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NABP FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Exam Practice Test

Demo: 63 questions
Total 426 questions

Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements refers to carbamazepine?

Options:

A.

Effects in hypertension: 1. Blood pressure - decrease 2. Systemic vascular resistance - decrease 3. Heart rate - no change 4. Stroke volume - no change 5. Ejection fraction - no change 6. Venous capacitance - increase 7. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - no change 8. Renin - increase 9. Plasma aldosterone - decrease 10. Plasma norepinephrine - no change

B.

Cognitive side effects, respiratory depression.

C.

Generally very effective as a single drug.

D.

Few cognitive or behavioral side effects.

E.

Is found in breast milk.

Question 2

Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with β-lactamase inhibitors.

Examples of β-lactamase inhibitors is/are:

I- Clavulanic acid

II- Sulbactam

III- Tazobactam

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 3

Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include:

Options:

A.

Niclosamide

B.

Prazinquatel

C.

Mebendazole

D.

Dapsone

E.

Thiabendazole

Question 4

Which of the following agents may interfere with the regular effect of penicillins?

Options:

A.

Antacids

B.

Food

C.

Probenecid

D.

Aminoglycosides

E.

All of the above

Question 5

Which of the following conditions are quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used?

Options:

A.

Respiratory tract infections

B.

Urinary tract infections

C.

Gastrointestinal tract infections

D.

Endocarditis

E.

Cerebral infections

Question 6

Which of the following agents may best treat Meningococcal encephalitis?

Options:

A.

Sulfametoxazole

B.

Erythromycin

C.

Cephalexin

D.

Tetracycline

E.

Penicillin

Question 7

Side effect of OKT-3 is:

Options:

A.

Myalgia

B.

Restlessness

C.

Cognitive dulling

D.

Dyspnea

E.

Cough

Question 8

Half-life of tolbutamide is:

Options:

A.

12-24 hours

B.

3 hours

C.

6-12 hours

D.

10 hours

E.

8 hours

Question 9

Indication of diazepam is:

Options:

A.

Migraine prophylaxis

B.

Bipolar disorder

C.

Myoclonic seizures

D.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

E.

Trigeminal neuralgia

Question 10

Mechanism of action of cocaine is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

B.

Muscarinic agonist

C.

beta-2 agonist

D.

beta-1 antagonist

E.

Blocks catecholamine uptake by axonal terminal

Question 11

Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria. Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient?

Options:

A.

Atovaquone only

B.

Chloroquine and primaquine

C.

Quinine and doxacycline

D.

Mefloquine

E.

C and D are correct

Question 12

Correct statements regarding Penicillin V may include which of the following?

I-β-lactamase sensitive antibiotic – acid stable

II- Has a short half-life because is rapidly excreted by glomerular filtration

III- Probenecid increase penicillin’s activity

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 13

Correct statements regarding aminoglycosides may include:

I- Has a half-life of 12hours

II- The effect continue remain after all drug is eliminated

III- The relation plasma concentration and half-life is not clear

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 14

Mechanism of action of Prozac is:

Options:

A.

Induces translation misreadings

B.

dopamine antagonist

C.

Damages mitochondrial DNA

D.

serotonin reuptake inhibitor

E.

monoamine reuptake inhibitor

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline?

Options:

A.

Alteration in gut flora

B.

Disulfiram like reactions

C.

Teeth permanent discoloration

D.

Fanconi like syndrome

E.

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

Question 16

Example of fourth generation cephalosporin includes:

Options:

A.

Ceftriaxone

B.

Cefipime

C.

Cefixime

D.

Cefotaxime

E.

Cefoxitin

Question 17

Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

B.

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

C.

Inhibits DNA gyrase

D.

Inhibits viral protease

E.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

Question 18

dication of ciprofloxacin is:

Options:

A.

In Tuberculosis

B.

Migraine prophylaxis

C.

Tricyclic antidepressant poisoning

D.

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

E.

Asthma

Question 19

Which of the following Cytochrome P450 isozymes is responsible for the bulk of phase I metabolism?

Options:

A.

CYP1A2

B.

CYP2C9

C.

CYP2D6

D.

CYP3A4

E.

CYP51

Question 20

Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

Options:

A.

Kidney

B.

Liver

C.

Blood

D.

Heart

Question 21

Subclass of lomafloxacin is:

Options:

A.

Fluoroquinolones

B.

IA

C.

Calciferols

D.

Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins

E.

Aldosterone antagonists

Question 22

A drug ending in the suffix (tidine. is considered a ______.

Options:

A.

Antidepressant

B.

Protease inhibitor

C.

Beta antagonist

D.

H2 antagonist

Question 23

Indication of aspirin is:

Options:

A.

Insomnia

B.

Cyanide poisoning

C.

Cardiac arrest

D.

Inflammation

E.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Question 24

Which Cytochrome P450 isozyme does not participate appreciably in drug metabolism?

Options:

A.

CYP1A2

B.

CYP2C9

C.

CYP3A4

D.

CYP51

E.

All are drug metabolizing isoforms

Question 25

Side effect of fluvastatin is:

Options:

A.

Seizures

B.

Skin rash

C.

Nausea

D.

Urinary tract complications

E.

Myalgia

Question 26

Side effect of furosemide is:

Options:

A.

Nausea

B.

Mucositis

C.

Constipation

D.

Hearing impairment

E.

Weight gain

Question 27

Effect of bisacodyl is:

Options:

A.

Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

B.

Decreases water absorption

C.

Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%

D.

Enhances mucociliary clearance

E.

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

Question 28

Indication of phenoxybenzamine is:

Options:

A.

Pain

B.

Movement disorders

C.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy

D.

Anaphylactic shock

E.

Acute hypertension

Question 29

Route of excretion of cinoxacin is:

Options:

A.

Unknown

B.

Kidneys

C.

Intestines

D.

Liver

Question 30

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

Options:

A.

Valproic acid

B.

Quinidine

C.

Isoniazid

D.

Ethosuximide

Question 31

Indication of metoprolol is:

Options:

A.

Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)

B.

Duodenal ulcer

C.

Stage fright

D.

Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exercise

E.

Cardiac arrest

Question 32

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?

Options:

A.

Valproic acid

B.

Quinidine

C.

Isoniazid

D.

Ethosuximide

Question 33

Example of compound that is phospholipids include:

Options:

A.

Glycogen

B.

Leucine

C.

Lecithin

D.

Hyaluronic acid

E.

Phenylalanine

Question 34

In cardiovascular physiology, LaPlace's law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to:

I the length of the vessel

II the radius of vessel

III the intraluminal pressure

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 35

False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include:

Options:

A.

Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver

B.

Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney

C.

Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver

D.

Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney

E.

Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight

Question 36

Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Riboflavin

C.

Niacin

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Folic acid

Question 37

Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of one group to other group is called:

Options:

A.

Oxidoreductase enzymes

B.

Transferase enzymes

C.

Hydrolyses enzymes

D.

Isomerasis enzymes

E.

Lyasis enzymes

Question 38

All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

There is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.

B.

The liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature.

C.

The solute usually forms an amorphous glass.

D.

The eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution.

E.

Water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation.

Question 39

Shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall:

Options:

A.

Ribossomes

B.

Endoplasmic reticulum

C.

Mitocondria

D.

Cell membrane

E.

Nucleotide

Question 40

Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:

Options:

A.

pyrimidine ring

B.

purine ring

C.

pyrazine ring

D.

pteridine ring

E.

pyridine ring

Question 41

All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

It may develop as a granulomatous inflammation.

B.

It may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis.

C.

It may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

D.

large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate.

E.

Lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development.

F.

Pharmaceutical Sciences

Question 42

Which is responsible for N in vivo?

Options:

A.

Argenine

B.

Tryptophan

C.

Guanine

D.

Thiamine

E.

Leucine

Question 43

Diseases which are viral infections include:

I poliomyelitis

II rabies

III Legionnaires' disease

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 44

Which of the following is the end product of proteins?

Options:

A.

Amino acids

B.

Urea

C.

Uric acid

D.

Purine

E.

Phosphorous

Question 45

Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow include which of the following agents?

Options:

A.

Tetracycline

B.

Aminoglycosides

C.

Vancomycin

D.

Cloramphenicol

E.

Clindamycin

Question 46

Which of the following is the end product of AEROBIC reactions?

Options:

A.

Pyruvic acid

B.

CO2

C.

CO2 + H2O

D.

Lactic acid

E.

Proteins

Question 47

Which vitamin is/are fat-soluble?

I- Vitamin E

II- Vitamin K

III- Vitamin B

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 48

The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:

Options:

A.

Virus

B.

Gram-negative bacterias

C.

Gram-positive bacterias

D.

Both gram-positive and negative bacterias

E.

Plasmodium

Question 49

The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy:

Losec® 20 mg

S: Take 1 tab BID

M: 2 weeks

Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription?

Options:

A.

Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets).

B.

Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets).

C.

Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets).

D.

Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets).

E.

Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets)

Question 50

Which of the following is an azo dye?

Options:

A.

Hexachlorophene

B.

Nitrofurantoin

C.

Methenamine

D.

Phenazopyridine

E.

Nalidixic acid

Question 51

Which of the following is considered as the best treatment of asthma?

Options:

A.

β2-agonists

B.

β-Blockers

C.

α-agonists

D.

Anticholinergic drugs

E.

Cholinergic drugs

Question 52

The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis.

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

E.

E

Question 53

Intal-Sodium cromoglycate is characterized by which of the following statements?

I- Non-steroidal drug with anti-inflammatory proprieties

II- They can be used in prophylaxis of asthma and allergic rhinitis

III Used in asthma only

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 54

Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA. include:

Options:

A.

induction of microsomal enzymes

B.

inhibition of microsomal enzymes

C.

inhibition of liposomal enzymes

D.

displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin

E.

enhanced platelet aggregation

Question 55

All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

isoproterenol

B.

histamine

C.

phentolamine

D.

phenylephrine

E.

atropine

Question 56

Use of estrogen in osteoporosis:

I- Estrogen enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss

II- Estrogen is useful in treat osteoporosis associated to menopause

III- Estrogen is not effective at increasing bone mass that has already been lost.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 57

Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea include:

I Bacteroides fragilis

II Escherichia coli

III Shigella sp

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 58

Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include:

Options:

A.

With meals

B.

In emptying stomach

C.

With plenty of water

D.

With orange juice

E.

Before bedtime

Question 59

The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by:

I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant

II the free drug concentration

III the total receptor concentration

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 60

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:

Options:

A.

15.

B.

20.

C.

150.

D.

200.

E.

2000.

Question 61

The number of milli-alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is:

Options:

A.

8

B.

16

C.

24

D.

32

E.

48

Question 62

Patient has a relevant increase in his asthma symptoms due to environmental allergies. He is currently having salbutamol and fluticasone inhalers. What would you advise as an adjunct medication to treat his symptoms?

Options:

A.

Oral corticosteroids

B.

Higher dose of corticosteroid inhalers

C.

Salmeterol

D.

Sodium cromoglycate

E.

Anticholinergic agents

Question 63

Chronic progressive lower airway destruction causing reduced pulmonary inspiration and expiratory capacity is known as:

Options:

A.

Asthma

B.

Bronchitis

C.

GERD

D.

COPD

E.

CHF

Demo: 63 questions
Total 426 questions