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ISC CC CC - Certified in Cybersecurity Exam Practice Test

Demo: 120 questions
Total 403 questions

CC - Certified in Cybersecurity Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the purpose of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Restore IT services

B.

Mitigate security violations

C.

Provide DRP overview

D.

Analyze system requirements to determine recovery priorities

Question 2

Access control used in high-security military and government environments:

Options:

A.

DAC

B.

MAC

C.

RBAC

D.

ABAC

Question 3

A system architecture where one instance serves multiple user groups:

Options:

A.

Multithreading

B.

Multiprocessing

C.

Multitenancy

D.

Multi-cloud

Question 4

Scans networks to determine connected devices and services:

Options:

A.

Burp Suite

B.

Wireshark

C.

Fiddler

D.

Zenmap

Question 5

Why is security training important?

Options:

A.

Because it fulfills regulatory requirements

B.

Because it helps people perform job duties more efficiently

C.

Because it reduces the risk of attacks such as social engineering

D.

All

Question 6

What is the process of verifying a user’s identity called?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Authentication

C.

Authorization

D.

Identification

Question 7

What is the main objective of DRP after a breach shuts down systems?

Options:

A.

Relocation

B.

Employee safety

C.

Prosecution

D.

Restore systems

Question 8

Mark is configuring an automated data transfer between two hosts and needs an authentication method. What approach is best suited?

Options:

A.

Biometric

B.

Smart Card

C.

SSH Key

D.

Hard-coded Password

Question 9

A prolonged, targeted cyberattack where an intruder remains undetected for an extended period is called:

Options:

A.

Spoofing

B.

Phishing

C.

DoS

D.

Advanced Persistent Threat

Question 10

Which port is used by SSH?

Options:

A.

21

B.

23

C.

24

D.

22

Question 11

Which of the following documents contains elements that are NOT mandatory?

Options:

A.

Procedures

B.

Policies

C.

Regulations

D.

Guidelines

Question 12

Type 1 authentication poses which risks?

Options:

A.

Users may share their credentials with others

B.

Users may forget their passwords

C.

Passwords may be intercepted and stolen

D.

All

Question 13

Information should be consistently and readily accessible for authorized parties.

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Authentication

C.

Availability

D.

Non-repudiation

Question 14

Which cloud service model provides the most suitable environment for customers to build and operate their own software?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

IaaS

C.

PaaS

Question 15

What is the most important aspect of security awareness and training?

Options:

A.

Maximizing business capabilities

B.

Protecting assets

C.

Protecting health and human safety

D.

Ensuring confidentiality of data

Question 16

Which of the following is an endpoint?

Options:

A.

Router

B.

Firewall

C.

Laptop

D.

Switch

Question 17

Removing the belief that a network has any trusted space and enforcing security at the most granular level is known as:

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

Defense in Depth

C.

Least Privilege

D.

All

Question 18

Which zero-trust component breaks LANs into very small, localized security zones?

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

DMZ

C.

VPN

D.

Microsegmentation

Question 19

The purpose of risk identification is:

Options:

A.

Employees at all levels help identify risks

B.

Identify risks to communicate clearly

C.

Identify risks to protect against them

D.

All

Question 20

Which type of authentication issomething which you know?

Options:

A.

Type 1

B.

Type 2

C.

Type 3

D.

Type 4

Question 21

David's team recently implemented a new system that gathers information from a variety of different log sources, analyzes that information, and then triggers automated playbooks in response to security events. What term BEST describes this technology?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

Log Repository

C.

IPS

D.

SOAR

Question 22

Load balancing primarily safeguards which CIA triad element?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Integrity

D.

All

Question 23

Why is an asset inventory so important?

Options:

A.

It tells you what to encrypt

B.

The law requires it

C.

It contains a price list

D.

You can’t protect what you don’t know you have

Question 24

Which threat is directly associated with malware?

Options:

A.

APT

B.

Ransomware

C.

Trojan

D.

DDoS

Question 25

What is the purpose of immediate response procedures in a BCP?

Options:

A.

To notify personnel the BCP is activated

B.

To guide management

C.

To protect CIA

D.

To account for operations

Question 26

Exhibit.

What is the purpose of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Encrypting files

B.

Monitoring and analyzing security events -

C.

Blocking malicious websites

D.

Managing user passwords

Question 27

A company analyzes system requirements, functions, and interdependencies to prioritize contingency needs. What is this process called?

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

DRP

C.

IRP

D.

BIA

Question 28

Which security control is most commonly used to prevent data breaches?

Options:

A.

Physical control

B.

Logical control

C.

Administrative control

D.

RBAC

Question 29

What is the main purpose of using multi-factor authentication (MFA) in a security system?

Options:

A.

To prevent data breaches

B.

To protect against malware

C.

To ensure data integrity

D.

To add an extra layer of security to user authentication

Question 30

Which security control is designed to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information by ensuring it is accessible only to authorized users?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Firewall

C.

Antivirus

D.

Access control

Question 31

What is the recommended fire suppression system for server rooms?

Options:

A.

Foam-based

B.

Water-based

C.

Powder-based

D.

Clean-agent gas systems (e.g., FM-200 / Inergen)

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main components of an SQL database?

Options:

A.

Views

B.

Schemas

C.

Tables

D.

Object-oriented interfaces

Question 33

Often offered by third-party organizations and covering advisory or compliance objectives:

Options:

A.

Standard

B.

Policy

C.

Procedure

D.

Laws or Regulations

Question 34

XenServer, LVM, Hyper-V, and ESXi are:

Options:

A.

Type 2 hypervisors

B.

Type 1 hypervisors

C.

Both

D.

None

Question 35

A common network device used to filter traffic?

Options:

A.

Server

B.

Endpoint

C.

Ethernet

D.

Firewall

Question 36

The harmonization of automated computing tasks into reusable workflows is called:

Options:

A.

Cloud orchestration

B.

Cloud manager

C.

Cloud broker

D.

Cloud controller

Question 37

Which of the following does NOT normally influence an organization’s log retention policy?

Options:

A.

Laws

B.

Corporate governance

C.

Regulations

D.

Audits

Question 38

A way to prevent unwanted devices from connecting to a network is:

Options:

A.

DMZ

B.

VPN

C.

VLAN

D.

NAC

Question 39

A company wants to prevent employees from bringing unauthorized electronic devices into the workspace. Which physical control is best?

Options:

A.

Metal detectors

B.

Security guards

C.

RFID scanners

D.

Baggage X-ray machines

Question 40

Which of the following attacks can TLS help mitigate?

Options:

A.

Cross-site Scripting (XSS) attacks

B.

Social engineering attacks

C.

Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks

D.

SQL injection attacks

Question 41

An employee unintentionally shares confidential information with an unauthorized party. What term best describes this?

Options:

A.

Event

B.

Exploit

C.

Intrusion

D.

Breach

Question 42

A transaction over $50,000 requires approval from both a manager and an accountant. Which concept applies?

Options:

A.

MAC

B.

Defense in Depth

C.

Two-Person Integrity

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

Question 43

Which one of the following groups is NOT normally part of an organization's cybersecurity incident response team?

Options:

A.

Technical subject matter experts

B.

Cybersecurity experts

C.

Management

D.

Law enforcement

Question 44

Which type of risk involves unauthorized use or disclosure of confidential information such as passwords, financial data, or personal information?

Options:

A.

Compliance risk

B.

Reputational risk

C.

Operational risk

D.

Information risk

Question 45

In which cloud model does the customer have theleast responsibilityover infrastructure?

Options:

A.

FaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 46

Which fire suppression system is more friendly to electronics?

Options:

A.

Carbon dioxide–based

B.

Chemical-based

C.

Water-based

D.

Foam-based

Question 47

In incident terminology, a zero-day is:

Options:

A.

Days with a cybersecurity incident

B.

A previously unknown system vulnerability

C.

Days without a cybersecurity incident

D.

Days to solve a previously unknown system vulnerability

Question 48

Who should participate in creating a Business Continuity Plan?

Options:

A.

Management only

B.

IT only

C.

Finance only

D.

Members across the organization

Question 49

What doescriticalityrepresent?

Options:

A.

Consultation needs

B.

The importance of data or systems to mission success

C.

Availability requirements

D.

All of the above

Question 50

In Mandatory Access Control (MAC), which statement is true?

Options:

A.

Users access data based on need-to-know

B.

Access controls cannot be changed except by administrators

C.

Data owners modify access

D.

Users control permissions

Question 51

An external entity has tried to gain access to your organization’s IT environment without authorization. This is an example of a(n):

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Intrusion

C.

Event

D.

Malware

Question 52

If a device is found to be non-compliant with the security baseline, what action should the security team take?

Options:

A.

Report

B.

Evaluate

C.

Ignore

D.

Disable or isolate it into a quarantine area until it can be checked and updated

Question 53

The Bell–LaPadula access control model is a form of:

Options:

A.

RBAC

B.

MAC

C.

DAC

D.

ABAC

Question 54

A power outage disrupts operations. Which plan helps sustain operations?

Options:

A.

DRP

B.

IRP

C.

BCP

D.

All

Question 55

What drove the introduction of IPv6?

Options:

A.

IPv4 was insecure

B.

IPv4 was incompatible

C.

IPv4 address exhaustion

D.

IPv6 supports Wi-Fi

Question 56

What are registered ports primarily used for?

Options:

A.

Core TCP/IP protocols

B.

Web servers

C.

In-house applications

D.

Vendor and proprietary applications

Question 57

A company’s governing board decides that only legal services may review third-party contracts. They create a document stating that no other department has permission to do so. This document is a:

Options:

A.

Procedure

B.

Policy

C.

Standard

D.

Law

Question 58

What is an IPSec replay attack?

Options:

A.

An attack where an attacker modifies packets in transit

B.

An attack where an attacker eavesdrops on network traffic

C.

An attack where an attacker overloads a network with traffic

D.

An attack where an attacker attempts to inject packets in an existing session

Question 59

A team activates procedures to mitigate a cyberattack. What plan is this?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Plan

B.

Incident Response Plan

C.

Disaster Recovery Plan

D.

Security Operations Plan

Question 60

What is the term used to denote the inherent set of privileges assigned to a user upon the creation of a new account?

Options:

A.

Aggregation

B.

Transitivity

C.

Baseline

D.

Entitlement

Question 61

What is the difference between Business Continuity Planning (BCP) and Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP)?

Options:

A.

BCP restores IT systems, DRP maintains business functions

B.

DRP restores IT and communications, BCP maintains critical business functions

C.

They are the same

D.

BCP only applies before disasters

Question 62

What is privacy in the context of Information Security?

Options:

A.

Protecting data from unauthorized access

B.

Ensuring data is accurate and unchanged

C.

Making sure data is always accessible when needed

D.

Disclosed without their consent

Question 63

Common network device used to connect networks?

Options:

A.

Server

B.

Endpoint

C.

Router

D.

Switch

Question 64

Which is related to privacy?

Options:

A.

GDPR

B.

FIPS

C.

MOU

D.

All

Question 65

Port used by DNS.

Options:

A.

53

B.

80

C.

45

D.

54

Question 66

What is the main purpose of creating a baseline for system integrity?

Options:

A.

To compare baseline with current system state

B.

To protect information

C.

To understand current state

D.

All

Question 67

A centralized organizational function that monitors, detects, and analyzes security events to prevent disruptions is called:

Options:

A.

IRP

B.

BCP

C.

SOC

D.

DRP

Question 68

Which type of control is used to restore systems or processes to their normal state after an attack?

Options:

A.

Compensatory control

B.

Recovery control

C.

Detective control

D.

Corrective control

Question 69

An ISC2 member is offered an illicit copy of a movie. What should they do?

Options:

A.

Inform ISC2

B.

Inform law enforcement

C.

Accept the movie

D.

Refuse to accept

Question 70

A system crash results in loss of data. What term best describes this?

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Incident

C.

Event

D.

Adverse event

Question 71

An attacker places themselves between two communicating devices is known as:

Options:

A.

Phishing

B.

Spoofing

C.

On-Path attack

D.

All

Question 72

You experienced a power outage that disrupted access to your data center. What type of security concern occurred?

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Non-repudiation

D.

Integrity

Question 73

Software that creates and manages virtual machines (VMM) is called:

Options:

A.

Hypervisor

B.

Simulation

C.

Emulation

D.

Cloud controller

Question 74

Which is very likely to be used in a Disaster Recovery effort?

Options:

A.

Guard dogs

B.

Contract personnel

C.

Data backups

D.

Anti-malware solutions

Question 75

Which is related to standards?

Options:

A.

NIST

B.

GDPR

C.

HIPAA

D.

All

Question 76

_______ are virtual separations within a switch used mainly to limit broadcast traffic.

Options:

A.

LAN

B.

WAN

C.

VLAN

D.

MAN

Question 77

Security commensurate with risk and magnitude of harm is known as:

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Adequate security

Question 78

Which type of network is set up similar to the internet but is private to an organization? Select the MOST appropriate answer.

Options:

A.

Extranet

B.

VLAN

C.

Intranet

D.

VPN

Question 79

What is the purpose of multi-factor authentication (MFA) in IAM?

Options:

A.

To simplify user access

B.

To eliminate the need for authentication

C.

To add an additional layer of security by requiring multiple forms of verification

D.

To grant unrestricted access to all users

Question 80

DNS operates at which OSI layer?

Options:

A.

Physical

B.

Network

C.

Application

D.

Data Link

Question 81

What is the primary goal of a risk management process in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Eliminate all risks

B.

Transfer all risks

C.

Identify, assess, and mitigate risks to an acceptable level

D.

Ignore risks

Question 82

Which of the following is a characteristic of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Broad network access

B.

Rapid elasticity

C.

Measured service

D.

All

Question 83

A DLP solution should be deployed so it can inspect all forms of data leaving the organization, including:

Options:

A.

Posting to websites

B.

Applications and APIs

C.

Copying to portable media

D.

All

Question 84

A type of malware capable of self-propagation and infecting multiple systems without human intervention is called:

Options:

A.

Worm

B.

Spyware

C.

Adware

D.

Virus

Question 85

Exhibit.

IPSec works in which layer of OSI Model

Options:

A.

Layer 2

B.

Layer 5

C.

Layer 3

D.

Layer 7

Question 86

A company wants to ensure that its employees can evacuate the building in case of an emergency. Which physical control is best suited?

Options:

A.

Fire alarms

B.

Exit signs

C.

Emergency lighting

D.

Emergency exit doors

Question 87

Which one of the following cryptographic algorithms does NOT depend upon the prime factorization problem?

Options:

A.

RSA – Rivest-Shamir-Adleman

B.

GPG – GNU Privacy Guard

C.

ECC – Elliptic Curve Cryptosystem

D.

PGP – Pretty Good Privacy

Question 88

A hacker launches a specific attack to exploit a known vulnerability. This is called:

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Event

C.

Exploit

D.

Intrusion

Question 89

A DDoS attack affects which OSI layers?

Options:

A.

Network layer

B.

Transport layer

C.

Physical layer

D.

Both A and B

Question 90

In cybersecurity, typical threat actors include:

Options:

A.

Insiders (intentional or accidental)

B.

External individuals or groups

C.

Technology (bots, automation, AI)

D.

All

Question 91

A hacker intercepts network traffic to steal login credentials. Which OSI layer is being attacked?

Options:

A.

Data Link layer

B.

Physical layer

C.

Network layer

D.

Application layer

Question 92

Removing the design belief that the network has any trusted space. Security is managed at each possible level, representing the most granular asset. Microsegmentation of workloads is a tool of the model.

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

DMZ

C.

VLAN

D.

Microsegmentation

Question 93

A LAN-based attack involving malicious packets sent to the default gateway:

Options:

A.

ARP poisoning

B.

SYN flood

C.

Ping of death

D.

Trojan

Question 94

Which is the most efficient and effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Simulations

B.

Discussions

C.

Walkthroughs

D.

Reviews

Question 95

A company network experiences a sudden flood of network packets that causes major slowdown in Internet traffic. What type of event is this?

Options:

A.

Security incident

B.

Natural disaster

C.

Exploit

D.

Adverse event

Question 96

Which layer provides services directly to the user?

Options:

A.

Application Layer

B.

Session Layer

C.

Presentation Layer

D.

Physical Layer

Question 97

Example of Type 1 authentication:

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Smart card

C.

Fingerprint

D.

RSA token

Question 98

A standard that defines wired communication for network devices:

Options:

A.

Switch

B.

Hub

C.

Router

D.

Ethernet

Question 99

Raj wants aphysical deterrent controlto discourage unauthorized entry. Which option best serves this purpose?

Options:

A.

A wall

B.

Razor tape

C.

A sign

D.

A hidden camera

Question 100

Which penetration testing technique requires the team to do the MOST work and effort?

Options:

A.

White box

B.

Blue box

C.

Gray box

D.

Black box

Question 101

Actions, processes, and tools ensuring continuity of critical operations:

Options:

A.

BC

B.

DR

C.

IR

D.

All

Question 102

Why is the recovery of IT often crucial to the recovery and sustainment of business operations?

Options:

A.

IT is not important to business operations

B.

IT is often the cause of disasters

C.

IT can be easily recovered without impact

D.

Many businesses rely heavily on IT for operations

Question 103

True or False: The IT department is responsible for creating the organization’s Business Continuity Plan.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 104

The order of controls used in defense in depth:

Options:

A.

Assets → Physical → Administrative → Technical

B.

Assets → Administrative → Physical → Technical

C.

Physical → Administrative → Technical → Assets

D.

Assets → Administrative → Technical → Physical

Question 105

What is the first step in incident response planning?

Options:

A.

Develop a management-approved policy

B.

Identify critical systems

C.

Train staff

D.

Form the IR team

Question 106

Which of the following protocols is a secure alternative to using Telnet?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

SFTP

D.

LDAPS

Question 107

The right of an individual to control the distribution of information about themselves is:

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Integrity

C.

Privacy

D.

Availability

Question 108

Which type of database combines related records and fields into a logical tree structure?

Options:

A.

Relational

B.

Hierarchical

C.

Object-oriented

D.

Network

Question 109

Which of the following is a subject?

Options:

A.

File

B.

Fence

C.

Filename

D.

User

Question 110

Which is the first step in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Risk response

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk identification

D.

Risk assessment

Question 111

Events with negative consequences such as crashes, floods, defacement, or malicious code execution are called:

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Incident

C.

Adverse event

D.

Exploit

Question 112

What is multi-factor authentication (MFA)?

Options:

A.

A type of authentication that uses only one method

B.

A type of authentication that uses only two methods

C.

A type of authentication that uses more than two methods

D.

A type of authentication that uses only one factor

Question 113

The primary functionality of Privileged Access Management (PAM) is:

Options:

A.

Validate access to a file

B.

Prevent unauthorized access to assets

C.

Provide just-in-time access to critical resources

D.

Manage centralized access control

Question 114

In which access control model can the creator of an object delegate permissions?

Options:

A.

MAC

B.

RBAC

C.

ABAC

D.

DAC

Question 115

A curated knowledge base modeling adversary behavior across attack phases is:

Options:

A.

MITRE ATTandCK

B.

CVE

C.

RMF

D.

Security Management

Question 116

What is the main purpose of digital signatures?

Options:

A.

Encrypt data

B.

Verify sender identity and ensure message integrity

C.

Prevent network access

D.

Compress data

Question 117

An approach using software-based controllers and APIs to direct network traffic:

Options:

A.

VLAN

B.

SDN

C.

VPN

D.

SAN

Question 118

Which of the following properties is NOT guaranteed by digital signatures?

Options:

A.

Authentication

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Non-repudiation

D.

Integrity

Question 119

Why is identifying roles and responsibilities important in IR planning?

Options:

A.

To prevent incidents

B.

To ensure everyone knows their role

C.

To reduce impact

D.

To select containment strategy

Question 120

A set of instructions to detect, respond to, and recover from security incidents is a:

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

IRP

C.

DRP

D.

None

Demo: 120 questions
Total 403 questions