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CSI CSC2 Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Exam Practice Test

Demo: 69 questions
Total 232 questions

Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Questions and Answers

Question 1

What happens if a company ' s dividend payout ratio exceeds 100%?

Options:

A.

The company will be unable to repay its debts

B.

Profits will be reduced

C.

Shareholders ' equity will be eroded

D.

The share price will increase

Question 2

According to the life-cycle hypothesis, what is the single most important determinant of a client ' s asset allocation, regardless of stage?

Options:

A.

Anticipating remaining life expectancy.

B.

Psychological willingness to bear risk.

C.

Market expectations.

D.

Current financial burdens.

Question 3

What financial instrument is derived from the value of an underlying asset?

Options:

A.

Real estate investment trust

B.

Forward contract

C.

Preferred share.

D.

Inflation linked bond

Question 4

How does asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) differ from mortgage-backed securities?

Options:

A.

ABCP minimizes roll-over risk.

B.

ABCP provides high liquidity.

C.

ABCP offers maturity dates of at least three years.

D.

ABCP guarantees principle repayment if held to maturity

Question 5

Companies W, X, Y, and Z ail issue preferred shares and have experienced the following conditions

Over the last five years:

Based on the above, which company is most likely to experience an increase in the market price of its preferred shares?

Options:

A.

Company W.

B.

Company Z.

C.

Company Y.

D.

Company X.

Question 6

Which ratio gauges a company’s ability to repay its debts using funds generated from operating activities?

Options:

A.

Cash flow-to-total debt

B.

Interest coverage.

C.

Asset coverage.

D.

Debt-to-equity

Question 7

What is the main pitfall of closet indexing for investors?

Options:

A.

The portfolio does not closely resemble the benchmark index.

B.

Investors must take greater risks due to a high portfolio beta.

C.

passively management fund can be marketed as actively managed.

D.

High portfolio turnover makes it unsuitable for taxable accounts

Question 8

Maya invested $5,000 in a three-year ABC market-linked GIC for her non-registered account. Her GIC just matured and the return was based on the performance of the S & P/TSX Composite Index, with a 70% participation rate. Initial and ending reference index levels were 13,600 and 19,000, respectively. What amount of GIC return will be taxable for Maya in the year of maturity?

Options:

A.

$1,985.00.

B.

$694.75.

C.

$992.50.

D.

$1,389.71.

Question 9

What information must be disclosed in ETF Facts documents that may be excluded from Fund Facts documents?

Options:

A.

The management fee

B.

The total value of all units within the fund

C.

The investment exposure.

D.

The market price and bid-ask spread.

Question 10

What is the reason for an individual to use an estate freeze?

Options:

A.

Eliminate probate fees

B.

Reduces asset price volatility

C.

Transfer control of the assets.

D.

Limit the tax liability for future growth

Question 11

How are monthly Canada Pension Plan (CPP) benefits treated when both spouses are eligible for CPP?

Options:

A.

Each spouse receives the higher pension amount.

B.

Each spouse can only receive their own benefits.

C.

Each spouse receives the lower pension amount.

D.

Each spouse can share a portion of the total pension amount.

Question 12

Kenji is ready to place a large trade in a European small-cap ETF, traded on the TSX. It is 10 a.m. in Toronto, where Kenji is located. What trading tip can Kenji use to protect his trade from sudden price movements?

Options:

A.

Place his trade by executing it in small portions at a time.

B.

Place his trade when a trading halt is issued for any underlying ETF holding.

C.

Place his trade close to the end of the TSX ' s regular trading hours.

D.

Place his trade by using a limit order.

Question 13

What is one at the most important factors to determine how much of a product people buy or sell in a given marketplace?

Options:

A.

Consumer satisfaction

B.

Government spending

C.

Price level

D.

Maximized profits

Question 14

What is the normal shape of a yield curve?

Options:

A.

Downward slope

B.

inverted

C.

Upward slops

D.

Humped

Question 15

Which vehicle is least appropriate for an institutional investor?

Options:

A.

Dark pool

B.

Family office

C.

Discount broker

D.

University endowment

Question 16

Which funds have a similar objective to those of balanced funds?

Options:

A.

Fixed-income funds

B.

Target-date funds

C.

Dividend funds

D.

Asset allocation funds

Question 17

An investor wants to gain exposure to the Canadian stock market with minimal risk exposure. What is the test financial instrument for this investor?

Options:

A.

Canadian bank preferred shares.

B.

Index exchange-trace fund.

C.

Call option.

D.

Index-linked guaranteed investment certificate.

Question 18

What is the Sharpe ratio given the following information?

Options:

A.

1.5

B.

0.4

C.

20

D.

2.5

Question 19

What investment dealer function is part of the back-office operations?

Options:

A.

Information technology.

B.

Research.

C.

Compliance.

D.

Corporate treasury.

Question 20

What is the measure of risk commonly applied to portfolio and to individual securities within that portfolio?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Standard Deviation.

C.

Correlation.

D.

Alpha

Question 21

A firm implements a comprehensive due diligence process before allowing their firm to sell a few funds. The fund’s high-water mark falls within what primary area of inquiry?

Options:

A.

Fund structure.

B.

Fees.

C.

Risk analysis.

D.

Operations.

Question 22

Which type of industry typically has a high inventory turnover ratio?

Options:

A.

Wineries.

B.

Distillers.

C.

Steel manufacturers.

D.

Cosmetics.

Question 23

What is the key objective for investors in alternative strategy funds?

Options:

A.

To match the performance of a reference index.

B.

To maximize risk-adjusted returns.

C.

To achieve absolute returns

D.

To exceed the current rate of inflation.

Question 24

What type of investment has the ability to bypass probate?

Options:

A.

Segregated fund.

B.

Mutual fund.

C.

Exchange-traded fund.

D.

Structured product.

Question 25

A financial institution is selling their pooled mortgages to a Special Purpose Vehicle. What process are they engaging in?

Options:

A.

Merger strategy.

B.

Asset securitization.

C.

Share splitting.

D.

Credit spread arbitrage.

Question 26

What risk exists for an investor unable to readily exit a position in an alternative investment near current prices?

Options:

A.

Default.

B.

Liquidity.

C.

Trading.

D.

Deal breakage.

Question 27

Which primary value is violated if an advisor places an unsuitable order requested by a client?

Options:

A.

Compliance.

B.

Integrity.

C.

Duty of care.

D.

Professionalism.

Question 28

What is an example of an activity that is restricted in a mutual fund?

Options:

A.

The purchase of 6% of net assets in the securities of a single issuer.

B.

The purchase of a put option on an equity index.

C.

The purchase of a silver futures contract.

D.

The purchase of an ETF, while netting out the fees.

Question 29

In Canada, which industries are categorized as defensive?

Options:

A.

Baking and materials

B.

Energy and materials.

C.

Energy and utilities.

D.

Banking and utilities.

Question 30

What type of risk could theoretically be eliminated completely by buying a portfolio of shares comprising all S & P/TSX Composite Index stocks?

Options:

A.

Business risk.

B.

Specific risk.

C.

Default risk.

D.

Systematic risk.

Question 31

Which asset type is classified as a fixed-income asset for portfolio management purposes?

Options:

A.

Money market securities

B.

Preferred shares.

C.

Convertible bonds.

D.

Bonds with a maturity of one year or less.

Question 32

Jerry sells Company A’s regular bond because the thinks it is overvalued. Using the proceeds from the sale, jerry then busy Company A’s convertible bond because the thinks that the equity component is undervalued and that he convertible bond’s coupon rate is relatively attractive given his forecast of falling interest rates. What fixed-come management style is jerry most likely using?

Options:

A.

Market timing.

B.

Interest rate anticipation.

C.

Bond swap

D.

Immunization

Question 33

Which type of commodity ETF is most suitable for an investor seeking to gain exposure to the spot price of a commodity?

Options:

A.

Physical-based

B.

Swap-based

C.

Futures-based.

D.

Equity-based

Question 34

A business trust would typically purchase the underlying company assets of which type of operation?

Options:

A.

Senior housing

B.

Restaurants

C.

Industrial rentals

D.

Shopping centres

Question 35

What method of trading claims to offer greater liquidity and lower transaction costs?

Options:

A.

Dark pool.

B.

High-frequency trading.

C.

Market timing.

D.

Algorithmic trading.

Question 36

TRU Fund portfolio manager decided to deviate from the portfolio long-term target asset mix in order to capitalize on investment opportunities in the domestic bond market. What type of asset allocation is the TRU Fund portfolio manager using?

Options:

A.

Strategic.

B.

Tactical.

C.

Timing.

D.

Dynamic.

Question 37

Which exchange trades all financial and equity futures and options listed for trading in Canada?

Options:

A.

ICE NGX Canada

B.

Canadian Securities Exchange

C.

Montreal Exchange

D.

Toronto Stock Exchange

Question 38

What is a characteristic of an investment firm’s liability traders?

Options:

A.

They are responsible for managing the dealer’s trading capital to encourage market flows.

B.

They have a limited amount of flexibility in the strategies they employ.

C.

They improve liquidity to the market and increase trading volumes.

D.

They have large client commitments.

Question 39

Which statement best describes the Sharpe ratio?

Options:

A.

It compares the return of the portfolio with the return of the market as a whole, relative to the portfolio ' s risk as measured by its standard deviation.

B.

It compares the return of the portfolio with the riskless rate of return, relative to the portfolio ' s risk as measured by its standard deviation.

C.

It compares the return of the portfolio with the return of the market as a whole, relative to the portfolio ' s risk as measured by its beta.

D.

It compares the return of the portfolio with the riskless rate of return, relative to the market ' s risk as measured by its standard deviation.

Question 40

A client recently sold her holdings in JKL Equity Fund. The client ' s transactions in the fund are

Summarized below:

What is the client ' s capital gain from the sale of the fund in Year 47?

Options:

A.

$1,839.00

B.

$1,155.25

C.

$1,168.37

D.

$2,509.63

Question 41

What item compares the expected return of the market portfolio to the riskless rate?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Risk premium

C.

Alpha

D.

Variance

Question 42

For institutional trading, when does the investor need to provide trade-matching elements?

Options:

A.

After the dealer issues a trade execution notice.

B.

One the custodian confirms the trade.

C.

With the initial order.

D.

Once the trade clears.

Question 43

What is a characteristic of the FTSE Canada Universe Bond Index?

Options:

A.

It measures the total price return on bonds including realized and unrealized gains

B.

It represents a full cross-section of government and corporate bonds.

C.

It Includes Canadian investment-grade bonds with a term to maturity of one year or less.

D.

It is an equal-weighted bond Index with each bond representing the same weight within the index.

Question 44

How do index-tracking ETFs differ from index mutual funds?

Options:

A.

ETFs have higher tracking errors

B.

Index mutual funds have higher implicit trading costs

C.

ETFs have higher administrative costs of record-keeping

D.

Index mutual funds only have initial investment and trading fees

Question 45

What type of investment typically involves massive amounts of capital provided by a small number of investors?

Options:

A.

Derivatives

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Bonds

D.

Commodities

Question 46

What is a characteristic of a company in a growth industry?

Options:

A.

Generates large cash flows that are paid out in dividends.

B.

Exhibits lower costs of production with increased competition.

C.

Sales and earnings closely match the overall rate of economic growth.

D.

Has low price-to-earnings ratio and high dividend yield.

Question 47

Over the previous three calendar years, fund LMO had five drawdowns as follows:

What was the maximum drawdown during this time period?

Options:

A.

18.00%

B.

52.50%

C.

22.50%

D.

21.25%

Question 48

Which one is a unique feature of mutual funds or ETFs?

Options:

A.

Their asset mix must be held consistent.

B.

They have a higher MER than traditional mutual funds.

C.

They offer an automatic rebalancing without the costs of trading the ETF.

D.

They refuse pre-authorized contributions and systematic withdrawal plans.

Question 49

Soft-dollar arrangements can be used for which type of service?

Options:

A.

Advice.

B.

Sales.

C.

Research.

D.

Underwriting.

Question 50

What do the returns on treasury bills often represent?

Options:

A.

Bank prime rate.

B.

Inflation rate

C.

Risk-free rate

D.

Federal funds rate

Question 51

What is the meaning of ex-ante return?

Options:

A.

The real return on the security.

B.

The return of the security based on the risk-free rate.

C.

The historical return of the security.

D.

The expected return of the security.

Question 52

What actions can a government take to lower a $40 billion national deficit?

Options:

A.

Increase taxation

B.

Increase government spending.

C.

Decrease taxation

D.

Increase interest rates.

Question 53

A shareholder receive rights from a company through direct ownership in shares. Not expecting to exercise them, she sells the right on the relevant exchange. What is her capital gain?

Options:

A.

The sale price of the rights.

B.

The sales price less the exercise price of the rights.

C.

The current price of the shares less the sale price of the rights.

D.

The current share price less the exercise price of the rights.

Question 54

What correlation would an investor need in order to eliminate the variability in the total returns between two stocks?

Options:

A.

+0.5.

B.

-1.0.

C.

0.0.

D.

+1.0.

Question 55

If the manager believes the market is efficient, what investment strategy should they employ for a portfolio?

Options:

A.

Momentum investing

B.

Sector rotation

C.

Growth investing

D.

Buy-and-hold strategy

Question 56

How does a sector rotation manager choose securities?

Options:

A.

Focuses on large, liquid companies expected to perform well.

B.

Searches for lesser-known, undervalued companies.

C.

Chooses companies that have the greatest earnings momentum.

D.

Identifies recurring patterns in historical prices for buying opportunities.

Question 57

What is one advantage of implementing indexing investing style?

Options:

A.

Provides preferential tax treatment to distributions in the form of derive-based income.

B.

Simple for investors to understand.

C.

Offers opportunity to outperform the market at a low cost.

D.

Suitable for short-term investing.

Question 58

What is typically a key tax attribute of dividends?

Options:

A.

Dividend income is taxed more preferentially than interest income.

B.

Dividends from preferred shares are ineligible tot dividend tax credit.

C.

Stock dividends are treated differently than regular cash dividends for tax purposes.

D.

Reinvested dividends are non-taxable to the shareholders.

Question 59

When a company issues a number of common shares, some of which are held by institutional investors, what are the institutional investors ' shares known as?

Options:

A.

Market capitalization shares.

B.

Outstanding shares.

C.

issued shares

D.

Public float shares.

Question 60

The following table outlines the life cycle hypothesis profiles of various investors:

Investor A: Short-term investment goals; light personal commitments.

Investor B: Short-term investment goals; high personal commitments.

Investor C: Medium-term investment goals; light to moderate personal commitments.

Investor D: Long-term investment goals; moderate personal commitments.

All else being equal, which investor is most likely to increase equity allocations?

Options:

A.

Investor C.

B.

Investor D.

C.

Investor A.

D.

Investor B.

Question 61

In which type of ETF does the portfolio manager select securities and their weighting to best match the performance of an index?

Options:

A.

Rules-based

B.

Synthetic.

C.

Sampling

D.

Full replication

Question 62

Omar invests $5,000 in a labour-sponsored venture capital corporation (LSVCC) in Ontario, his province of residence. What is the total LSVCC tax credit that Omar is eligible to receive from this investment?

Options:

A.

$1,500

B.

$750

C.

$1,625

D.

$875

Question 63

Which asset allocation technique is used to shift the portfolio away from its policy mix to take advantage of market opportunities?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Tactical

C.

Strategic

D.

Event-driven

Question 64

Which document details certain rights of the investor and provides audited financial statements of a hedge fund structured as a limited partnership?

Options:

A.

Information folder

B.

Fund Facts document

C.

Offering memorandum

D.

Managers discussion and analysis

Question 65

Which regulatory body is responsible for the surveillance of trading and market-related activities of participants on Canadian equity marketplaces?

Options:

A.

OBSI

B.

OSFI

C.

CIRO

D.

CSA

Question 66

What do a hedge fund’s liquidity dates indicate?

Options:

A.

The period that the hedge fund manager is forced to unwind all its investment positions.

B.

The period that existing investors in the hedge fund can redeem their shares.

C.

The period that non-accredited investors can enter a hedge fund by purchasing newly issued shares.

D.

The period that a hedge fund is expected to cover its short positions.

Question 67

What typically causes a designated broker to remove ETF units from the market?

Options:

A.

A client sells on the exchange.

B.

The broker delivers the basket of shares to the ETF provider.

C.

Demand of an ETF outstrips supply.

D.

There are arbitrage opportunities with the ETF price.

Question 68

What type of risk were mortgage-backed securities designed to address?

Options:

A.

Liquidity

B.

Interest rate

C.

Rollover

D.

Prepayment

Question 69

The following information is available for REW Co:

What is the price of REW Co. if calculated using the dividend discount model?

Options:

A.

$13.75.

B.

$15.71.

C.

$12.50.

D.

$14.29.

Demo: 69 questions
Total 232 questions