Summer Sale Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70percent

ASQ CSQE Certified Software Quality Engineer Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 84 questions
Total 280 questions

Certified Software Quality Engineer Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following sources is most likely to contain the information needed to propose a software correction?

Options:

A.

Physical configuration audit report

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Customer satisfaction survey

D.

Software problem report

Question 2

Which of the following is a defect prevention activity?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

External audit

C.

Training

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 3

Which of the following diagrams is most appropriate for showing the relationship between software design input requirements and software design output?

Options:

A.

Tree

B.

Matrix

C.

Affinity

D.

Ishikay

Question 4

Which of the following statements from a software requirements document is an example of a functional requirement?

Options:

A.

“The system must reject non-numeric input.”

B.

“The system must be 99.9% operational.”

C.

“The system’s response time must be less than three seconds.”

D.

“The system must be developed according to IEEE standards.”

Question 5

An organization uses the plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle to align its processes to an international quality standard, which of the following activities would be performed during the " act " step?

Options:

A.

Identifying actions to be performed during the pilot

B.

Performing internal audits of the system

C.

Making quality system revisions

D.

Documenting the problems to present to management

Question 6

An effective team facilitator should have which of the following characteristics?

Options:

A.

Neutrality

B.

Decision-making ability

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Competitiveness

Question 7

What type of audit is designed specifically to provide assurance that activities have been performed as documented?

Options:

A.

Compliance

B.

Supplier

C.

Quality

D.

Operations

Question 8

In order for a risk management plan to be effective., it should be

Options:

A.

updated regularly to address new risks

B.

monitored continuously to determine risk frequency

C.

based on maturing goals and sub-goals

D.

reviewed for contributions to the risk database

Question 9

A project team conducts a review of its latest software design The review process is well-defined and is used by all projects within the company. As part of the review process, defect levels are compared against acceptable limits to determine appropriate corrective action. According to the CMMI-DEV Vl_2_. which of the following activities could the company perform to demonstrate characteristics unique to a Maturin ' Level 5 organization?

Options:

A.

Submit defect data to a team for future defect prevention.

B.

Collect defect data for each project ' s specific software process.

C.

Record defect data and establish the process capability baseline

D.

Assess the validity of each defect data measurement independently.

Question 10

Which of the following formulas should a reviewer use to calculate defect yield for a single review?

Options:

A.

100 × defects removed before compile ÷ defects injected before compile

B.

Defects per hour in Phase 1 ÷ defects per hour in unit testing

C.

100 × compile time × test time ÷ total development time

D.

100 × design review time plus code review time ÷ total development time

Question 11

Which of the following techniques is used to measure the number of test cases needed to execute each code statement at least once?

Options:

A.

Function point analysis

B.

Cause and effect diagram

C.

Cyclomatic complexity

D.

Defect removal effectiveness

Question 12

Which of the following items are examined regularly at a program review meeting?

Options:

A.

Project dependencies

B.

Change request approvals

C.

Quality system updates

D.

Problem reports

Question 13

Which of the following testing designs is used to evaluate negative testing?

Options:

A.

Fault insertion

B.

Boundary analysis

C.

Fault-error handling

D.

Cause-effect graphing

Question 14

The following chart was developed to compare defects in two projects. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this chart?

Options:

A.

The projects have the same defect rates.

B.

The projects have different defect profiles.

C.

More defects were removed per phase from Project 1 than Project 2.

D.

More defects were removed per phase from Project 2 than Project 1.

Question 15

Which of the following software metrics is based on a nominal scale-1

Options:

A.

Root cause of defect, logic error data definition, etc

B.

Severing of a defect, critical, major, minor, etc.

C.

Defect density: number per function point, etc.

D.

Defect discovery rate: number detected per day, etc.

Question 16

A software developer is replacing a higher level code with a test code that establishes a function and passes test data to that function What type of test environment is the developer using

Options:

A.

Regression

B.

Static

C.

Driver

D.

Stub

Question 17

The modules in the following table were all created two years ago as part of the same software project

Current Cyclomatic

Module Version Complexity

A 12 9

B 3 21

C 9 4

D 11 20

Which module is the most likely candidate for reengineering?

Options:

A.

Option a

B.

Option b

C.

Option c

D.

Option d

Question 18

Which of the following actions will have the greatest impact on defect removal efficiencies?

Options:

A.

Avoiding style issues during reviews

B.

Holding inspections of requirements and design

C.

Conducting formal testing by trained specialists

D.

Performing code inspections

Question 19

Test data requirements

Options:

A.

include mechanisms for defining when, and for how long, each test data item is needed

B.

allow test data items to be reusable so that the same tests can be executed multiple times

C.

describe the data items and their characteristics and properties needed to execute the tests

D.

act as a single source of content for multiple testers to find and use existing test data items

Question 20

Which of the following terms is used to describe the measure of interdependence among modules in a computer program?

Options:

A.

Coherence

B.

Concurrency

C.

Cohesion

D.

Coupling

Question 21

Which of the following activities is part of performing verification and validation on safety-critical features at even ' step of the life cycle?

Options:

A.

Identifying and mitigating security risks to prevent safety and hazard risks

B.

Documenting software safer. ' risk plans that include rigorous development processes

C.

Performing software hazard analysis and determining acceptable levels of safety risks

D.

Providing mechanisms for discovering, correcting, and preventing the recurrence of safety’ risks

Question 22

Which of the following is an example of a poorly defined project milestone?

Options:

A.

Program specification completed

B.

Test plan approved by customer

C.

Coding 50% completed

D.

Program documentation approved

Question 23

Who is responsible for walking through business scenarios to determine the completeness of the defined requirements?

Options:

A.

The analyst

B.

The tester

C.

The quality function representative

D.

The product developer

Question 24

Quality function deployment is defined as a

Options:

A.

procedure in which code modules with low defect density are identified for reuse

B.

technique for measuring complex metrics by random sampling of functional units

C.

method that provides a framework for relating product features to customer needs

D.

process in which best practices are distributed throughout all levels of an organization

Question 25

Which of the following activities is classified as data collection and storage?

Options:

A.

Installing and administering data technology

B.

Supporting data technology usage and related issues

C.

Confirming adequacy, uniqueness, and consistency of data

D.

Providing mechanisms that support data availability requirements

Question 26

Virtualization is a technology that

Options:

A.

allows many logical computers to run on the same physical hardware

B.

is used when an application that runs in the cloud is offered as a service

C.

brings securing to the cloud by establishing the right privilege levels for users

D.

enables organizations to bridge the gap between identity access management and cloud services

Question 27

Which of the following is a responsibility of a lead auditor?

Options:

A.

Submitting the audit report

B.

Determining the scope of the audit

C.

Determining the corrective actions required

D.

Performing the initial review of the quality system

Question 28

During the requirements planning stage, management ' s responsibility is to

Options:

A.

provide effort estimates for implementation

B.

ensure that appropriate stakeholders are involved

C.

confirm customer requirements

D.

define the quality criteria for the project

Question 29

A usability test measured the number of errors made in performing a task with a product intended for 500 users. The following number of errors were made by six users: 5, 2, 12, 4, 2, 3. What conclusion can be drawn from this sample?

Options:

A.

These are acceptable error levels for users.

B.

These users make an average of 6 errors when using this product.

C.

The user who made 12 errors should be excluded from the data.

D.

Tests should be conducted with additional groups of users.

Question 30

In the archival process, retention of historical records is

Options:

A.

not required

B.

set for at least 2 years

C.

needed for all documents

D.

specified by the organization

Question 31

A strong customer feedback management process primarily helps an organization improve

Options:

A.

profitability

B.

existing products

C.

company stock price

D.

software development time

Question 32

Which of the following benefits is associated with using the iterative model?

Options:

A.

It can be tailored to the needs of the project and organization.

B.

It does not require knowledge of all the requirements up front.

C.

It correlates directly to the deliverables of software development.

D.

It focuses on exploring options early by feedback through prototyping

Question 33

In a software development company, which of the following authorities is responsible for establishing the company ' s quality policies?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Quality management

C.

Engineering development teams

D.

A cross-functional ream of developers and managers

Question 34

An effective listener is defined as someone who

Options:

A.

forms a reply while the speaker is talking

B.

is attuned to nonverbal cues

C.

asserts opinions without fear

D.

draws parallels to other situations or times

Question 35

The following graphs illustrate the arrival rate and current status of software defects during system test. Which of these graphs indicates a product that is most ready for formal release to the customer?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 36

If N equals the number of defects originating and found in phase X, and S equals the number of defects originating in phase X and found in subsequent phases, which of the following represents the efficiency rate of error detection for phase X?

Options:

A.

(N + S) / N

B.

N / (N + S)

C.

N × S

D.

N / (N − S)

Question 37

A test team is tasked to test an application that creates a large volume of reports. During regression testing, which of the following tools should the team use to assure that the application continues to produce the appropriate reports?

Options:

A.

A file format conversion tool

B.

A file comparison tool

C.

A string finding tool

D.

A keyboard capture and replay tool

Question 38

Which of the following verification and validation techniques is used to verify that the completed requirements and designs conform to their requirements specifications?

Options:

A.

Feasibility analysis

B.

Execution of test cases

C.

Functional configuration audits

D.

Mathematical proofs of correctness

Question 39

Which of the following methods is an example of dynamic analysis?

Options:

A.

Piloting

B.

Peer reviews

C.

Quality gates

D.

Mathematical proofs

Question 40

Static analysis tools are used to evaluate

Options:

A.

requirements and design

B.

software builds and test cases

C.

test procedures and packaging

D.

documentation and source code

Question 41

A function point analysis uses counts of which of the following elements^

Options:

A.

Data definitions

B.

Physical lines

C.

Executable lines

D.

External inquiries

Question 42

Which of the following statements is true about using branched development paths on a module?

Options:

A.

The delta of the module is decreased.

B.

The size of the code base is decreased.

C.

The maintenance of the module can be costly.

D.

The interface must be unique.

Question 43

Once a problem has been identified in the problem resolution process, which of the following steps should be taken next?

Options:

A.

Search for solutions

B.

Take corrective action

C.

Determine probable causes

D.

Seek authority to act

Question 44

Which of the following steps comes first during release planning for waterfall-type projects?

Options:

A.

Define the scope of the software being developed.

B.

Determine which problems will be corrected in the next release.

C.

Select the set of requirements that will be included in the release.

D.

Confirm the implemented software meets the specified requirements.

Question 45

Software security is developed to address which of the following types of communication threats?

Options:

A.

Intentional attacks

B.

Unintentional attacks

C.

Physical attacks

D.

Natural disasters

Question 46

Which of the following measures describes the number of independent linear paths through a module?

Options:

A.

Lines of code

B.

Function points

C.

Defect density

D.

Cyclomatic complexity

Question 47

What type of audit is performed to verify that the components of a system match the documented deliverables?

Options:

A.

Second-party

B.

Third-party

C.

Physical configuration

D.

Functional configuration

Question 48

When a product release is archived, which of the following information should be included in the archive?

Options:

A.

Defect tracking database

B.

Build environment and compilers

C.

Final version of documentation only

D.

The date the product was launched

Question 49

Which of the following software security requirements objectives is met by limiting access to the system through passwords?

Options:

A.

Supplying an audit trail

B.

Preserving data integrity

C.

Maintaining access control

D.

Providing backup and/or recovery

Question 50

Which of the following capabilities of a configuration management system is involved with constructing a specific build of the software?

Options:

A.

Project repository

B.

Release notes

C.

Version management

D.

Issue tracking

Question 51

A development manager started implementation activities for a product deployment to more than 600 users. Just prior to the final software release, the test team discovered severe anomalies. In this situation, which of the following actions should the test leader take first?

Options:

A.

Perform a root cause analysis and develop a corrective action plan

B.

Require the code developers to resolve the anomalies immediately

C.

Notify the users directly of the anomalies

D.

Notify the development manager and recommend delaying the release

Question 52

In a Scrum project, who is responsible for determining the time estimates during the project?

Options:

A.

Scrum master

B.

Sponsor

C.

Project team

D.

Champion

Question 53

Which of the following sets of reviews is considered an example of a project phase gate review?

Options:

A.

Management and retrospective reviews

B.

Management and ready to ship reviews

C.

Architectural design and retrospective reviews

D.

Architectural design and ready to ship reviews

Question 54

A cross-functional team has been established to improve the effectiveness of the inspection process. All team members have volunteered to participate and are experienced in the current process. In this situation, the team sponsor ' s role should be to

Options:

A.

provide die team with specific instructions and closely supervise its performance

B.

explain each step before the team can take action

C.

participate in team meetings and facilitate daily decision-making

D.

authorize the team to make decisions and implement changes

Question 55

During what activity would it be appropriate for a team to use a complexity analyzer0

Options:

A.

Requirements analysis

B.

Requirements traceability

C.

Test planning

D.

Test execution

Question 56

One advantage of using the pair programming development methodology is that

Options:

A.

fewer defects are introduced into the code

B.

fewer unplanned features are identified

C.

more collaboration occurs with the customer

D.

more work is devoted to completing the documentation

Question 57

Which of the following usage metrics is most effective for capacity planning of a data warehouse?

Options:

A.

Queries per user

B.

Queries per timeframe

C.

Query latency per user group

D.

Queries per user group per timeframe

Question 58

One reason for seeding errors into a program before testing begins is to

Options:

A.

determine whether the error exists in the program or the test case

B.

determine the percentage of total errors the test can find

C.

assess how well the test handles a program with a large number of errors

D.

identify gaps in the program specifications document

Question 59

Which of the following requirements statements is written in such a way that it can be validated?

Options:

A.

“The system shall respond to some signals with a red or green light.”

B.

“The system shall work according to user requirements.”

C.

“The system response time shall be operator defined.”

D.

“The system shall be available at least 99.98% of the time.”

Question 60

Coverage monitors are used during which of the following types of testing?

Options:

A.

Black-box

B.

White-box

C.

Stress

D.

Equivalence partitioning

Question 61

When a software qualm- engineer is preparing an inspection report to present to management., what type of information should be included in the report?

Options:

A.

A summary- of the inspection results

B.

A summary- of the defects found by each inspector

C.

A detailed analysis of the results for each inspection

D.

A list of actions that management should take to correct the defects

Question 62

Conflict in teams can be useful when it

Options:

A.

establishes decision-making patterns

B.

speeds decision-making

C.

produces new information

D.

focuses management s attention on the team

Question 63

Which of the following inputs is used in software cost estimation models?

Options:

A.

Lines of code

B.

Number of users

C.

Age of the software

D.

Maintenance requirements

Question 64

Which of the following elements must be in place for a measure to be reliable?

Options:

A.

A well-designed data collection form

B.

An automated tool for calculating the measure

C.

An operational definition of the measure

D.

An online database for tracking the measure

Question 65

A company uses a feature rating system with the following values.

1 = Completely dissatisfied

2 = Somewhat dissatisfied

3 = Neither satisfied nor dissatisfied

4 = Somewhat satisfied

5 = Completely satisfied

This rating system is based on what type of measurement scale?

Options:

A.

Nominal

B.

Ordinal

C.

Interval

D.

Ratio

Question 66

Which of the following benefits is related to DevOps when it is used to facilitate development activities?

Options:

A.

Reducing time to market

B.

Minimizing software releases

C.

Increasing return on investment

D.

Standardizing organizational processes

Question 67

Which of the following outputs is most likely to result from a sprint retrospective?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder feedback

B.

Refined product backlog

C.

Product enhancement request

D.

Continuous improvement action

Question 68

In specifying a software requirement, it is important to consider how the requirement might be

Options:

A.

referenced

B.

documented

C.

coded

D.

validated

Question 69

Which of the following activities best evaluates the effectiveness of a software testing process based on test execution documents?

Options:

A.

Counting the total number of defects found to determine the software’s quality

B.

Analyzing defect trends and resolution times to assess the quality of the testing

C.

Reviewing the number of test cases executed per day to measure tester productivity

D.

Assessing the uniformity of test case design to ensure consistency across the testing team

Question 70

One of the objectives of a functional test is to demonstrate that the software

Options:

A.

is sufficiently free of operational problems

B.

is understood by the user

C.

interacts appropriately at the unit level

D.

processes the data in a structured manner

Question 71

Which of the following corrective actions is the first action to take when a project experiences a significant deviation on baselined budgets, baselined schedules, or required quality levels?

Options:

A.

Add resources and continue with the plan.

B.

Cancel the project because of the deviation.

C.

Create a new baseline and continue with the plan.

D.

Realign project actuals and continue with the plan.

Question 72

Which of the following activities can be performed during the requirements phase?

Options:

A.

Data normalization

B.

Acceptance test planning

C.

Functional testing

D.

Reliability modeling

Question 73

Which of the following ASQ Codes of Ethics contributes to relations with peers?

Options:

A.

Build professional reputation on the merit of services and compete fairly with others.

B.

Hold paramount the safety, health, and welfare of the public in the performance of professional duties.

C.

Act as faithful agents or trustees and avoid conflict of interest and the appearance of conflicts of interest.

D.

Continue professional development and provide opportunities for professional and ethical development of others.

Question 74

In the following control diagram, all paths are feasible and the decisions are not correlated to each other.

How many rests are necessary for branch coverage?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

6

D.

8

Question 75

Which of the following techniques can interfere with an interviewer’s ability to read nonverbal signals?

Options:

A.

Ignoring distractions

B.

Reading between the lines

C.

Taking notes

D.

Asking questions

Question 76

Which of the following steps is taken first when managing earned value metrics?

Options:

A.

Determining the critical resources to be tracked

B.

Calculating the planned value, earned value, and actual value metrics

C.

Analyzing the earned value metric compared to the other metrics to date

D.

Allocating the resource budget to individual tasks in the work breakdown structure

Question 77

When a defect is discovered during the test phase., what is the earliest phase in the software lifecycle that could need rework to resolve the defect?

Options:

A.

Implementation

B.

test

C.

requirements

D.

design

Question 78

One advantage of outsourcing is that it allows the primary company to

Options:

A.

focus resources on its core competencies

B.

redirect its resources on new product development

C.

reduce the cost of ongoing training

D.

eliminate the need for a skills-based workforce

Question 79

A software engineer collected the following data set during testing

12, 13, 13, 15, 18, 14, 16, 15, 12, 18, 17, 16, 16, 15, 14

The engineer then used the following class intervals to represent the data in a histogram

11.5-13.5

13.5-15.5

15.5-17.5

17.5-19.5

Which of the following statements describes these class intervals most accurately?

Options:

A.

They are appropriate.

B.

They are unrelated to the data set

C.

They fail to describe the full range of data

D.

They should be whole numbers since the data are whole numbers

Question 80

Which of the following modules will require the most test cases to ensure path coverage?

Options:

A.

Cyclomatic Complexity: 8, LOC: 100

B.

Cyclomatic Complexity: 10, LOC: 500

C.

Cyclomatic Complexity: 12, LOC: 100

D.

Cyclomatic Complexity: 20, LOC: 400

Question 81

Which of the following metrics would be most appropriate for evaluating how effective the peer review process was for removing defects?

Options:

A.

Cycle time

B.

Defect density

C.

First-pass yield

D.

Requirements volatility

Question 82

When brainstorming is used to generate ideas, the most immediate result will be

Options:

A.

an unrestricted list of items

B.

a prioritized list of items

C.

a categorized list of items

D.

a problem solution

Question 83

Which of the following actions can a company take to reduce the risk associated with integrating a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) spreadsheet package into its own software product?

Options:

A.

Require the vendor to adhere to the keens mg agreement for product fixes.

B.

Audit the vendor ' s quality- system.

C.

Require the vendor to place the object code into escrow.

D.

Test the product to determine whether it satisfies critical functions.

Question 84

Which of the following factors is important in a software product m terms of its adaptability?

Options:

A.

Efficiency

B.

Accessibility

C.

Trainability

D.

Portability

Demo: 84 questions
Total 280 questions