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APICS CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 181 questions
Total 606 questions

Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

An organization donates used computer equipment to a non-profit group. A system administrator used a degausser on both the magnetic and Solid State Drives (SSD) before delivery. A volunteer at the non-profit group discovered some of the drives still contained readable data and alerted the system administrator. What is the BEST solution to ensure that computer equipment does not contain data before release?

Options:

A.

Verify sanitization results by trying to read 100% of the media.

B.

Determine the type of media in the computer and apply the appropriate method of sanitization.

C.

Use cryptographic erasure to ensure data on the media device is erased.

D.

Use a program that will overwrite existing data with a fixed pattern of binary zeroes.

Question 2

A security team is analyzing the management of data within the human resources systems, as well as, the intended use of the data, and with whom and how the data will be shared. Which type of assessment is the team MOST likely performing?

Options:

A.

Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA)

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Sensitive data assessment

D.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII) risk assessment

Question 3

During the sales and operations planning (S & OP) process, which of the following tasks is the primary responsibility of the functional representatives on the supply planning team?

Options:

A.

Identifying reasons why the demand plan is not realistic

B.

Communicating when an event will prevent meeting the supply plan

C.

Ensuring that the functional objectives are considered when developing the plans

D.

Understanding how to use the plan to improve functional performance

Question 4

A large organization is planning to lay off half of its staff. From an information security point of view, what is the BEST way of approaching affected staff?

Options:

A.

Discuss the Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) with the affected staff before revoking access.

B.

Revoke the user certificates and add them to the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

C.

Revoke user access at the time of informing them.

D.

Ask human resources to conduct exit interviews before revoking access.

Question 5

When implementing a data classification program, Which is MOST important for measuring businesss impact?

Options:

A.

Data classification program being rolled out in accordance with policies and procedures

B.

Measuring the size of the data set to understand scoping for compliance requirements

C.

The adverse effect of data leakage

D.

The early appointment of data custodians

Question 6

An organization is running a cloud-based application to process the information obtained at point-of-sale devices. Which guideline should be applied to the application?

Options:

A.

Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA)

B.

Application Security Verification Standard (ASVS)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)

D.

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

Question 7

An audit of antivirus server reports shows a number of workstations do not have current signatures installed. The organization security standard requires all systems to have current antivirus signatures. What distinct part of the audit finding did the auditor fail to include?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Condition

C.

Effect

D.

Cause

Question 8

Which of the following security features is utilized to validate both user credentials and the health of the client device on a network?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Network Access Control (NAC)

Question 9

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

Options:

A.

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

B.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

C.

An increase in reported changes in click percentage that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

D.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

Question 10

In a hospital, during a routine inspection performed by the computerized tomography device technical service, it is discovered that the values of radiation used in scans are one order of magnitude higher than the default setting. If the system has had an unauthorized access, which one of the following concepts BEST describes which core principle has been compromised?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Cybersecurity

D.

Integrity

Question 11

What is the MAIN privacy risk raised by federated identity solutions?

Options:

A.

The potential for tracking and profiling an individual ' s transactions

B.

The potential to break the chain of trust between identity brokers

C.

The potential for exposing an organization ' s sensitive business information

D.

The potential for unauthorized access to user attributes

Question 12

A security analyst has been asked to build a data retention policy for a hospital. What is the FIRST action that needs to be performed in building this policy?

Options:

A.

Determine local requirements.

B.

Determine federal requirements.

C.

Ensure that all data has been classified.

D.

Designate a person of authority.

Question 13

Which of the following mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart side channel attacks?

Options:

A.

Honeypots

B.

Adding listening devices

C.

Adding noise

D.

Acoustic cryptanalysis

Question 14

What is the MAIN benefit of network segmentation?

Options:

A.

Limiting data transfer

B.

Limiting cyberattack damage

C.

Limiting privilege access

D.

Limiting network addresses

Question 15

Business management should be engaged in the creation of Business Continuity (BC) and Disaster Recovery plans (DRP) because they need to

Options:

A.

Ensure that the technology chosen for implementation meets all of the requirements.

B.

Provide resources and support for the development and testing of the plan.

C.

Predetermine spending for development and implantation of the plan.

D.

Specify the solution and options around which the plans will be developed.

Question 16

We have observed the inventory system does not handle plastic parts well. " What should be added to the problem statement to make it more useful?

Options:

A.

Measurements that help describe the problem

B.

Guidance to which problem-solving tools should be used

C.

Criteria for selecting the improvement team

D.

Description of who is responsible for the problem

Question 17

A financial services organization wants to deploy a wireless network. Which of the following is the WEAKEST option for ensuring a secure network?

Options:

A.

Separating internal wireless users from guests

B.

Media Access control (MAC) address filtering

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Deploy mutual authentication between the client and the network

Question 18

Broadcast traffic is causing network performance degradation of sensitive equipment.

Which of the following methods is used to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting availability?

Options:

A.

Place the sensitive equipment behind a firewall to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

B.

Implement Quality of Service (QoS) on network switches to throttle the sensitive equipment traffic.

C.

Move the sensitive equipment to a different switch port to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

D.

Use Network Access Control (NAC) to prevent the broadcast traffic from broadcasting.

Question 19

A company has a demand for 30 units of A, 40 units of B, and 50 units of C. These products are scheduled to run daily in batches of 10 as follows: ABC, ABC, ABC, CBC. What is this scheduling

technique called?

Options:

A.

Mixed-model

B.

Matrix

C.

Synchronized

D.

Line balancing

Question 20

Which of the below represent the GREATEST cloud-specific policy and organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Loss of governance between the client and cloud provider

B.

Loss of business reputation due to co-tenant activities

C.

Supply chain failure

D.

Cloud service termination or failure

Question 21

A disadvantage of a capacity-lagging strategy may be:

Options:

A.

lack of capacity to fully meet demand.

B.

risk of excess capacity if demand does not reach forecast.

C.

a high cost of inventories.

D.

planned capital investments occur earlier than needed.

Question 22

An organization processes healthcare data, stores credit card data, and must provide audited financial statements, each of which is controlled by a separate compliance standard. To support compliance against multiple standards and the testing of the greatest number of controls with a limited budget, how would the internal audit team BEST audit the organization?

Options:

A.

Conduct an integrated audit against the most stringent security controls.

B.

Combine the systems into a single audit and implement security controls per applicable standard.

C.

Combine the systems into a single audit against all of the associated security controls.

D.

Audit each system individually and implement the applicable standard specific security controls.

Question 23

Which of the following methods would be appropriate for forecasting the demand for a product family when there is a significant trend and seasonality in the demand history?

Options:

A.

Econometric models

B.

Computer simulation

C.

Time series decomposition

D.

Weighted moving average

Question 24

In a make-to-stock (MTS) environment, the master production schedule (MPS) Is usually a schedule of which of the following types of items?

Options:

A.

Phantom items

B.

Finished goods items

C.

Component/subassembly items

D.

Raw material items

Question 25

To gain entry into a building, individuals are required to use a palm scan. This is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Administrative detective

B.

Physical preventive

C.

Physical detective

D.

Administrative preventive

Question 26

Which of the following regarding authentication protocols is a PRIMARY consideration when designing an authentication and key management system?

Options:

A.

Refresh

B.

Visibility

C.

Authorization

D.

Integrity

Question 27

An organization received a notification from a Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) provider that one of its products will no longer be supported. Using obsolescence progression stages, which of the following risk trigger points was activated in this case?

Options:

A.

End of Life (EOL)

B.

End of Maintenance

C.

End of Service Life (EOSL)

D.

End of Repair

Question 28

A life cycle assessment (LCA) would be used to determine:

Options:

A.

the length of a long-term agreement.

B.

how an Item should be scheduled.

C.

environmental aspects and impacts.

D.

If risk pooling would reduce inventory investment.

Question 29

An organization is having bandwidth utilization issues due to unauthorized devices on the network. Which action should be taken to solve the problem?

Options:

A.

Disable all unused ports.

B.

Implement a Network Access Control (NAC) solution.

C.

Rate limit on access ports.

D.

Restrict access with an Access Control List (ACL).

Question 30

A consultant has been engaged to support the team in analyzing why the development of a new software product has slipped schedule by a year. The consultant discovered an increase of the functionality requirements due to the failure of the asset tracking program. Which of the following BEST describes which system lifecycle element is impacted?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder identification

B.

Vision statement

C.

Operational efficiency

D.

Solution boundary

Question 31

Maintaining software asset security is MOST dependent on what information?

Options:

A.

Software licensing

B.

Asset ownership

C.

Inventory of software

D.

Classification level

Question 32

In a large organization, the average time for a new user to receive access is seven days. Which of the following is the BEST enabler to shorten this time?

Options:

A.

Implement a self-service password management capability

B.

Increase system administration personnel

C.

Implement an automated provisioning tool

D.

Increase authorization workflow steps

Question 33

Given the following data, calculate the appropriate takt time:

Options:

A.

0.25 minutes

B.

1 minute

C.

2 minutes

D.

4 minutes

Question 34

Which of the following is MOST accurate when comparing patch management and vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

Patch management manages the security lifecycle from discovery to remediation.

B.

Patch management identifies, acquires, tests, and installs code changes on a specific computing device.

C.

Vulnerability management is a process executed in specialized software to address security issues or add new features.

D.

Vulnerability management plugs security holes and remediates risk by upgrading software to the most recent versions.

Question 35

Which is the MOST valid statement around the relationship of security and privacy?

Options:

A.

A system designed with security provides individuals with data privacy by default.

B.

Nonrepudiation protects against unauthorized disclosure of private data.

C.

Privacy in the realm of physical security often entails trade-offs with security.

D.

Privacy and security are mutually exclusive.

Question 36

Organization A provides scalable Information Technology (IT) infrastructure while Organization B provides security services to customers via Software as a Service (SaaS) model. Which document is used to express a set of intended actions between the organizations with respect to meeting the customers’ needs?

Options:

A.

Business partnership agreement

B.

Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)

C.

Framework partnership agreement

D.

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

Question 37

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify the various types of software installed on an endpoint?

Options:

A.

Active network scanning

B.

Passive network scanning

C.

Authenticated scanning

D.

Port scanning

Question 38

In which of the following phases of the product life cycle is product price most effective in influencing demand?

Options:

A.

Introduction

B.

Growth

C.

Maturity

D.

Decline

Question 39

An organization requires all passwords to include two uppercase characters, two numbers, and two special characters. After a security professional has successfully retrieved the hashed password file from a server, what would be the fastest attack to conduct on the file?

Options:

A.

Dictionary

B.

Hybrid

C.

Inference

D.

Rainbow table

Question 40

Elements calculated in the master scheduling process include:

Options:

A.

Time fences

B.

Allocations

C.

Service-parts forecast

D.

Available-to-promise (ATP)

Question 41

Which of the following are compromised in an untrusted network using public key cryptography when a digitally signed message is modified without being detected?

Options:

A.

Integrity and authentication

B.

Integrity and non-repuditation

C.

Integrity and availability

D.

Confidentiality and availability

Question 42

Which of the following factors is the MOST important consideration for a security team when determining when determining whether cryptographic erasure can be used for disposal of a device?

Options:

A.

If the methods meet the International organization For Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 27001.

B.

If the data on the device exceeds what cryptographic erasure can safely process.

C.

If the device was encrypted prior using cipher block chaining.

D.

If the security policies allow for cryptographic erasure based on the data stored on the device.

Question 43

An organization decides to conduct penetration testing. Senior management is concerned about the potential loss of information through data exfiltration. The organization is currently preparing a major product launch that is time-sensitive. Which of the following methods of testing is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

Gray box

B.

Green box

C.

Black box

D.

White box

Question 44

Which of the following presents the GREATEST benefit to an organization ' s security posture when a change management process is implemented?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of Key Risk Indicators (KRI) reported to senior management

B.

Ensure the integrity of the organization ' s assets

C.

Backups being completed in a timely manner

D.

Accuracy of Key Performance Indicators (KPI) reported to senior management

Question 45

Which of the following sampling techniques is BEST suited for comprehensive risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Convenience sampling

B.

Snowball sampling

C.

Judgement sampling

D.

Systematic sampling

Question 46

Typically, rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP) in a job shop environment would review which of the following work centers to determine the ability to execute the plan?

Options:

A.

Critical work centers only

B.

Gateway work centers only

C.

Final assembly work centers only

D.

All work centers

Question 47

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Mai-In-The-Middle (MITM)

B.

Side-Channel

C.

Frequency analysis

D.

Fault injection

Question 48

A manufacturer has a primary assembly line supported by output from several subassembly lines. Which of the following scenarios would be the best argument for a multilevel master scheduling process?

Options:

A.

Low variation in aggregate subassembly demand

B.

High variation in aggregate subassembly demand

C.

Low variation in subassembly demand mix

D.

High variation in subassembly demand mix

Question 49

An organization has a legacy application used in production. Security updates are no longer provided, which makes the legacy application vulnerable. The legacy application stores Social Security numbers and credit card numbers. Which actions will BEST reduce the risk?

Options:

A.

Submit a security exception for the application and remove it from vulnerability scanning

B.

Report to the privacy officer and increase logging and monitoring of the application

C.

Continue to operate and monitor the application until it is no longer needed

D.

Implement compensating controls and prioritize upgrading the application

Question 50

What document MOST likely states an organization’s values?

Options:

A.

Union labor agreement

B.

Information protection policy

C.

Code of conduct

D.

Management standards

Question 51

An order winner during the growth stage of a product ' s life cycle is:

Options:

A.

variety.

B.

availability.

C.

dependability.

D.

price.

Question 52

An external audit is conducted on an organization ' s cloud Information Technology (IT) infrastructure. This organization has been using cloud IT services for several years, but its use is not regulated in any way by the organization and security audits have never been conducted in the past. Which task will be the MOST challenging to conduct an effective security audit?

Options:

A.

Resource forecast

B.

Asset inventory

C.

Access to logs

D.

Software license agreements

Question 53

A contractor hacked into an unencrypted session on an organization ' s wireless network. Which authentication configuration is MOST likely to have enabled this?

Options:

A.

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

B.

Captive web portal

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Token authentication

Question 54

The most effective way to manage demand uncertainty and improve customer service is to reduce:

Options:

A.

Backlogs

B.

Lead times

C.

Safety stock

D.

Product options

Question 55

A company that uses concurrent engineering is likely to experience which of the following outcomes in the first period of a product ' s life cycle?

Options:

A.

Fewer product design changes

B.

An increase in obsolete inventory

C.

More accurate forecasting

D.

Conflicts between purchasing and engineering

Question 56

Which of the following mechanisms should a practitioner focus on for the MOST effective information security continuous monitoring?

Options:

A.

Implementing automated methods for data collection and reporting where possible

B.

Updating security plans, security assessment reports, hardware, and software inventories

C.

Defining specific methods for monitoring that will maintain or improve security posture

D.

Collecting risk metrics from teams, such as business, testing, QA, development, and operations with security controls

Question 57

A furniture manufacturer using material requirements planning (MRP) and lean manufacturing has changed the bills of material (BOMs) for all chests by making drawers into phantom assemblies. Which of the following outcomes would likely result from this change?

Options:

A.

An increased number of receipts and issues for subassemblies

B.

An increased number of production order feedback transactions

C.

A reduced number of production orders planned by MRP

D.

An inability to process orders for replacement drawers

Question 58

Pitfalls of a differentiation strategy include:

Options:

A.

Not recognizing opportunities for proprietary advantage

B.

Becoming too focused on cost reduction

C.

Overly aggressive cost cutting resulting in lower margins

D.

Failing to identify gaps in quality or service compared to rivals

Question 59

A security assessor has been engaged to perform a penetration test on control system components located on a shipping vessel. The individuals on the ship do not have any knowledge of how the component is configured or its internal workings. Which of the following test types does this scenario call for?

Options:

A.

Tandem testing

B.

Blind testing

C.

Double-gray testing

D.

Double-blind testing

Question 60

The production plan defines which of the following targets?

Options:

A.

Sales forecast

B.

Quantities of each product to be produced

C.

Level of output to be produced

D.

Business plans for the company

Question 61

Access Control Lists (ACL), protection bits, and file passwords are typical examples of which of the following access control methods?

Options:

A.

Discretionary.

B.

Attribute-based.

C.

Mandatory.

D.

Role-based.

Question 62

An organization has network services in a data center that are provisioned only for internal use, and staff at offices and staff working from home both use the services to store sensitive customer data. The organization does not want the Internet Protocol (IP) address of the service to receive traffic from users not related to the organization. Which technology is MOST useful to the organization in protecting this network?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Question 63

An attacker was able to identify an organization’s wireless network, collect proprietary network resource information, and capture several user credentials. The attacker then used that information to conduct a more sophisticated and impactful attack against the organization. Which method did the attacker MOST likely use to gather the initial information?

Options:

A.

Proxy manipulation and Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack

B.

Media Access Control (MAC) spoofing and proxy manipulation

C.

Rogue access point and Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack

D.

Media Access Control (MAC) spoofing and rogue access point

Question 64

A security consultant is working with an organization to help evaluate a proposal received from a new managed security service provider. There are questions about the confidentiality and effectiveness of the provider ' s system over a period of time. Which of the following System And Organization Controls (SOC) report types should the consultant request from the provider?

Options:

A.

SOC 2 Type 1

B.

SOC 2 Type 2

C.

SOC 1 Type 1

D.

SOC 1 Type 2

Question 65

Which Internet of Things (IoT) process was developed specifically to support retail commerce?

Options:

A.

Automated storage/retrieval system (AS/RS)

B.

Electronic shelving of items

C.

Container tracking through the use of electronic tags

D.

Exchange of point-of-sale (POS) data

Question 66

Which of the following MUST be in place for security to be effective in an organization?

Options:

A.

Security objectives are documented and in line with the organization’s mission and goals.

B.

Security policies are in line with international standards.

C.

Technology strategy decisions have the involvement and approval of the security organization.

D.

Risk assessments on business plans include security issues as part of the analysis.

Question 67

Which of the following stock location systems would you use in a repetitive manufacturing, lean environment?

Options:

A.

Fixed location

B.

Floating location

C.

Point-of-use storage

D.

Central storage

Question 68

An organization wants to implement Zero Trust (ZT). The Information Technology (IT) department is already using Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and Identity and Access Management (IAM). Which of the following would be the BEST solution for the organization to implement in order to have a ZT network?

Options:

A.

Next-generation firewall

B.

Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

Question 69

Which of the following is typically used to control physical access to highly secure facilities?

Options:

A.

Surveillance

B.

Mantrap

C.

Dual control

D.

Door locks

Question 70

Which of the following statements is an advantage of a fourth-party logistics (4PL) provider?

Options:

A.

It coordinates between the client and multiple logistics suppliers.

B.

It focuses primarily on last-mile delivery.

C.

It allows the client to concentrate on operating its own warehouse.

D.

It provides a logistics specialist who manages some of the logistics operation.

Question 71

What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?

Options:

A.

Create a list of key personnel

B.

Create a list of decommissioned hardware

C.

Review tabletop exercises

D.

Replicate access logs

Question 72

The horizon for forecasts that are input to the sales and operations planning (S & OP) process should be long enough that:

Options:

A.

cumulative forecast deviation approaches zero.

B.

planned product launches can be incorporated.

C.

required resources can be properly planned.

D.

supply constraints can be resolved.

Question 73

In choosing suppliers, a company wishes to maintain maximum leverage to reduce costs. Which of the following supply chain strategies would provide this opportunity?

Options:

A.

Single sourcing

B.

Multisourcing

C.

Long-term agreement

D.

Service-level agreement (SLA)

Question 74

An organization’s system engineer arranged a meeting with the system owner and a few major stakeholders to finalize the feasibility analysis for a new application.

Which of the following topics will MOST likely be on the agenda?

Options:

A.

Results of the preliminary cost-benefit studies

B.

Design of the application system and database processes

C.

Communication of procedures and reporting requirements

D.

Identification of inter-application dependencies

Question 75

Which of the following statements about demonstrated capacity Is true?

Options:

A.

It reflects the future load.

B.

It should be higher than rated capacity.

C.

It considers utilization and efficiency factors.

D.

It is determined from actual results.

Question 76

The planned channels of Inventory disbursement from one or more sources to field warehouses are known as:

Options:

A.

a supply chain community.

B.

interplant demand.

C.

a bill of distribution.

D.

logistics data interchange (LDI).

Question 77

An organization is working to secure its Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition (SCADA) system, Which monitors water supply to the city. What type of security should the organization ensure FIRST?

Options:

A.

Endpoint security

B.

Network security

C.

Cyber physical security

D.

Cloud security

Question 78

An example of a flexibility metric for an organization Is:

Options:

A.

average batch size.

B.

scrap rate.

C.

percentageof orders delivered late.

D.

cycle time.

Question 79

Which of the following represents the BEST metric when measuring the effectiveness of a security awareness program?

Options:

A.

Interview the candidates ' managers about training effectiveness.

B.

Test the candidates on the content of the program.

C.

Require the candidates ' signatures to certify that they have attended training.

D.

Provide management reporting of candidate completion status.

Question 80

A large retail organization will be creating new Application Programming Interfaces (API) as part of a customer-facing shopping solution. The solution will accept information from users both inside and outside of the organization. What is the safest software development practice the team can follow to protect the APIs against Structured Query Language Injection (SQLi) attacks?

Options:

A.

Strictly validate all inputs for safe characters.

B.

Grant database access using the principle of least authority.

C.

Escape special characters in input statements.

D.

Use prepared input statements.

Question 81

A security engineer is implementing an authentication system for a new web application. The authentication requirements include the ability for a server to authenticate the client and for the client to authenticate the server. Which of the following choices BEST supports this requirement?

Options:

A.

Secure Shell (SSH)

B.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

Question 82

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Side-channel

B.

Fault injection

C.

Man-In-The-Middle (MITM)

D.

Frequency analysis

Question 83

Which of the following is the workflow of the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Creation, Assessment, Deletion

B.

Assessment, Creation, Deletion

C.

Provision, Review, Revocation

D.

Review, Provision, Revocation

Question 84

How would blockchain technology support requirements for sharing audit information among a community of organizations?

Options:

A.

By creating a cryptographically signed event-specific audit block

B.

By creating a centralized audit aggregation service

C.

By creating a centralized digital ledger system

D.

By creating a decentralized digital ledger of cryptographically signed transactions

Question 85

What is the MAIN purpose of risk and impact analysis?

Options:

A.

Calculate the cost of implementing effective countermeasures.

B.

Calculate the effort of implementing effective countermeasures.

C.

Identify countermeasures.

D.

Eliminate the risk of most threats.

Question 86

The primary outcome of frequent replenishments in a distribution requirements planning (DRP) system is that:

Options:

A.

lead times to customers decrease.

B.

transportation costs decrease.

C.

the level of required safety stock is reduced.

D.

more efficient load consolidation occurs.

Question 87

Which of the following statements best characterizes enterprise resources planning (ERP) systems?

Options:

A.

They track activity from customer order through payment.

B.

They are expensive but easy to implement.

C.

They provide real-time planning and scheduling, decision support, available-to-promise (ATP), and capable-to-promise (CTP) capabilities.

D.

They are used for strategic reporting requirements.

Question 88

A company that has experienced steady growth for seasonal products in the last several years currently is reevaluating its production planning approach. The chase production plan initially requires 150 employees, then increases to 440 employees, and then decreases to 165 employees. Which of the following factors would be most relevant when evaluating the cost of this production planning approach?

Options:

A.

Inventory carrying cost

B.

Material cost

C.

Overhead cost

D.

Labor-related cost

Question 89

Which technology is BEST suited to establish a secure communications link between an individual’s home office and the organization’s Local Area Network (LAN)?

Options:

A.

Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN)

B.

Representational State Transfer (REST)

C.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Question 90

Which of the following capacity planning methods uses the master production schedule (MPS) as its primary input?

Options:

A.

Resource planning

B.

Rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP)

C.

Finite loading

D.

Input/output analysis

Question 91

A company confirms a customer order based on available capacity and inventory, even though the current production plan does not cover the entire order quantity. This situation is an example of what type of order fulfillment policy?

Options:

A.

Assemble-to-order (ATO)

B.

Capable-to-promise (CTP)

C.

Available-to-promise (ATP)

D.

Configure-to-order (CTO)

Question 92

Which of the following product design approaches are likely to reduce time to market for a global supply chain?

Options:

A.

Concurrent engineering

B.

Design for manufacture

C.

Design for logistics

D.

Quality function deployment (QFD)

Question 93

A logistics manager Is faced with delivering an order via rail or truck. Shipping via rail costs S300 and takes 14 days. Shipping via truck costs $600 and takes 3 days. If the holding cost is $40 per day, what is the cost to deliver the order?

Options:

A.

$340for rail,$600 for truck

B.

$340for rail.$720 for truck

C.

$860for rail,$720 for truck

D.

$860for rail.$600 for truck

Question 94

If organizational leadership determines that its required continuous monitoring plan is too costly for the organization, what action should be taken by leadership and the Authorizing Official (AO)?

Options:

A.

Determine if the organization’s risk posture allows the system to operate without the continuous monitoring of the controls in question

B.

Identify and monitor only the technical controls, as they cover the most critical threats to the organization

C.

Ensure that the organization’s Configuration Management (CM) and control processes are documented and executed according to policy

D.

Continue developing the system using a secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) approach and testing, thereby eliminating the need for monitoring the security controls

Question 95

Which of the following BEST represents a security benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

Improved threat detection

B.

Flexible firewall configuration

C.

Network availability

D.

Improved threat prevention

Question 96

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using federated identity?

Options:

A.

The administrative burden is increased

B.

The application has access to the user’s credentials

C.

Applications may need complex modifications to implement

D.

A compromised credential provides access to all the user’s applications

Question 97

A large organization that processes protected data issues preconfigured laptops to workers who then access systems and data based on their role. As their technology ages, these laptops are replaced with newer devices. What is the BEST solution to mitigate risk associated with these devices?

Options:

A.

Establish a device recycle process.

B.

Establish a process preventing credential storage on devices.

C.

Establish a physical destruction process for the storage medium.

D.

Establish a process for check in and check out of devices.

Question 98

While conducting an information asset audit, it was determined that several devices were running unpatched Operating Systems (0S). Further review Indicated the OS was no longer supported by the vendor. Which of the following BEST indicates the appropriate asset lifecycle stage of the devices?

Options:

A.

Maintain

B.

Modify

C.

Procure

D.

Dispose

Question 99

Which of the following systems would be the most cost-efficient for inventory management of a low value item?

Options:

A.

Order point

B.

Material requirements planning (MRP)

C.

Periodic review

D.

Economic order quantity(EOQ)

Question 100

A United States (US)-based online gaming provider, which operates in Germany, collects and uses a large amount of user behavioral data. A customer from Germany requests a copy of all their personal data.

What is the MOST appropriate course of action for the organization to take?

Options:

A.

Provide all the requested data in an organization’s proprietary encrypted format and deliver a viewing application.

B.

Gather all the data about all the users and provide it to the customer in Extensible Markup Language (XML) format.

C.

Gather and provide all the requested data in Extensible Markup Language (XML) format.

D.

Provide a time convenient to the customer to visit the organization’s premises and provide an overview of all the processed data by an organization’s privacy officer.

Question 101

An organizational policy requires that any data from organization-issued devices be securely destroyed before disposal. Which method provides the BEST assurance of data destruction?

Options:

A.

Incinerating

B.

Reformatting

C.

Degaussing

D.

Erasing

Question 102

Which of the following represents the level of confidence that software is free from intentional an accidental vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Due care

B.

Vulnerability management

C.

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

D.

Software assurance

Question 103

During an investigation, a forensic analyst executed a task to allow for the authentication of all documents, data, and objects collected, if required. Which of the options below BEST describes this task?

Options:

A.

Electronically stored information was collected through a forensic tool.

B.

Metadata was collected from files and objects were listed in a notebook.

C.

A chain of custody form was filled with all items quantity and descriptions.

D.

Archive tagging was applied to all digital data and physical papers were stamped.

Question 104

What priority control technique is most appropriate for a firm using a cellular production system?

Options:

A.

Shortest processing time (SPT) rule

B.

Distribution requirements planning (DRP)

C.

Pull production activity control (PAC)

D.

Push production activity control (PAC)

Question 105

Reducing distribution network inventory days of supply will have which of the following Impacts?

Options:

A.

Increase turnovers and increase cash-to-cash cycle time.

B.

Increase turnovers and reduce cash-to-cash cycle time.

C.

Decrease turnovers and reduce cash-to-cash cycle time.

D.

Decrease turnovers and increase cash-to-cash cycle time.

Question 106

A planner has chosen to increase the order point for a raw material. Which of the following costs is most likely to increase?

Options:

A.

Carrying

B.

Ordering

C.

Landed

D.

Product

Question 107

Which of the following is the BEST type of fire extinguisher for a data center environment?

Options:

A.

Class A

B.

Class B

C.

Class C

D.

Class D

Question 108

A company selling seasonal products is preparing their sales and operations plan for the coming year. Their current labor staffing is at the maximum for their production facility and cannot meet the forecasted demand. The business plan shows they do not have the financial capability to add to the production facility. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Uselevel production planning and investigate subcontracting to meet the extra demand.

B.

Usechaseproduction planningand only take the orders that can be produced In the highdemand season.

C.

Usehybridproduction planningto save labor costs and inventory costs in the low demand season.

D.

Usehybridproduction planningand reduce the size of the customer base during the highdemand season.

Question 109

A security officer has been tasked with performing security assessments on the organization’s in the current calendar year. While collecting data, the officer realizes that more than one business until will be engaged in the assessment. What activity MUST be included in the data collection phase?

Options:

A.

Conduct a detailed data analysis on the security impacts using historical data.

B.

Prioritize assessment activities and strategically asses each application

C.

Identify a sponsor from within the organization to prioritize the activities

D.

Perform a risk analysis and determine which applications must be assessed

Question 110

A vendor has been awarded a contract to supply key business software. The vendor has declined all requests to have its security controls audited by customers. The organization insists the product must go live within 30 days. However, the security team is reluctant to allow the project to go live. What is the organization ' s BEST next step?

Options:

A.

Shift the negative impact of the risk to a cyber insurance provider, i.e., risk transference.

B.

Document a risk acceptance, in accordance with internal risk management procedures, that will allow the product to go-live.

C.

Gain assurance on the vendor ' s security controls by examining independent audit reports and any relevant certifications the vendor can provide.

D.

Evaluate available open source threat intelligence pertaining to the vendor and their product.

Question 111

Which of the following circumstances would cause a move from acceptance sampling to 100% inspection?

Options:

A.

History shows that the quality level has been stable from lot to lot.

B.

The company uses one of its qualified suppliers.

C.

Downstream operators encounter recurring defects.

D.

The percent of defects is expected to be greater than 5%.

Question 112

An Information Technology (IT) professional is seeking a control objective framework that is widely accepted around the world and focuses specifically on information security controls. Which of the following frameworks BEST meets this need?

Options:

A.

International Organization For Standardization (ISO) 27001

B.

International Organization For standardization (ISO) 27002

C.

International Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

D.

Capability Maturity Model (CMM)

Question 113

A company can easily change Its workforce, but inventory carrying costs are high. Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate during times of highly fluctuating demand?

Options:

A.

Produceto backorders

B.

Produceat a constant level

C.

Produceto the sales forecast

D.

Produceto demand

Question 114

A large volume of outbound Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections from the same source Internet Protocol (IP) address was observed at a satellite office firewall. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation?

Options:

A.

There is only one managed switch port device on the satellite network.

B.

The command and control server has shut down all but one host.

C.

The network hosts are behind a Network Address Translation (NAT) device.

D.

The malware has shut down all but one host used for command and control.

Question 115

An agency has the requirement to establish a direct data connection with another organization for the purpose of exchanging data between the agency and organization systems. There is a requirement for a formal agreement between the agency and organization. Which source of standards can the system owners use to define the roles and responsibilities along with details for the technical and security requirements?

Options:

A.

International Organization For Standardization (ISO)

B.

European Committee for Electrotechnical Standardization

C.

Caribbean Community Regional Organization for Standards and Quality

D.

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

Question 116

A work center has 3 machines that are all run at the same time with a single worker. The work center has an efficiency of 75% and a utilization of 100%. What is the work center ' s capacity in standard hours for an 8-hour shift?

Options:

A.

6 hours

B.

8 hours

C.

18 hours

D.

24 hours

Question 117

An organization has determined that it needs to retain customer records for at least thirty years to discover generational trends in customer behavior. However, relevant local regulation requires that all Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is deleted after expiration of the customer ' s engagement with the organization, which is usually no longer than one year. How should the data be handled at the expiration of customer engagement at one year?

Options:

A.

Because the data contains PII, it should be backed up in an encrypted form, with the encryption key securely kept in a Hardware Security Module (HSM), and all access logged and monitored.

B.

The data should be deleted from the customer website, and archived to a write-once, read-many drive to securely meet the business requirement for analytics.

C.

PII portion of the data should be tokenized or deleted, and the rest of the data stored securely to meet the business requirement for analytics.

D.

Since legal and regulatory compliance takes priority over business requirements, the data should be deleted.

Question 118

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach. Where should the organization focus their efforts?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Common configuration enumerations

D.

National vulnerabilities database

Question 119

Up-to-date Information about production order status is required to do which of the following tasks?

Options:

A.

Calculate current takt time.

B.

Determine planned orders.

C.

Replenish kanban quantities.

D.

Calculate the cost of work in process (WIP).

Question 120

What is the MOST beneficial principle of threat modeling?

Options:

A.

To focus on specific adversaries, assets, or techniques

B.

To improve the security and privacy of a system through early and frequent analysis

C.

To create meaningful outcomes when they are of value to external agencies

D.

To create a single threat model representation as multiple models may be inconsistent

Question 121

Capacity requirements planning (CRP) is applicable primarily In companies operating In an environment where:

Options:

A.

backlog is very low.

B.

the status of work orders is disregarded.

C.

lean principles are used.

D.

material requirements planning (MRP) is used.

Question 122

A newly hired Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is now responsible to build a third-party assurance for their organization. When assessing a third-party, which of the following questions needs to be answered?

Options:

A.

How many employees the third-party employs?

B.

Which level of support does the third-party provide related to security?

C.

What is the monetary value of the third-party contract?

D.

To which standards does the third-party need to be assessed?

Question 123

A vendor has been awarded a contract to supply key business software. The vendor has declined all requests to have its security controls audited by customers. The organization insists the product must go live within 30 days. However, the security team is reluctant to allow the project to go live.

What is the organization ' s BEST next step?

Options:

A.

Evaluate available open source threat intelligence pertaining to the vendor and their product.

B.

Shift the negative impact of the risk to a cyber insurance provider, i.e., risk transference.

C.

Gain assurance on the vendor’s security controls by examining independent audit reports and any relevant certifications the vendor can provide.

D.

Document a risk acceptance, in accordance with internal risk management procedures, that will allow the product to go-live.

Question 124

Which of the following states of data becomes MOST important to protect as organizations continue to transition toward Application Programming Interface (API)-based solutions?

Options:

A.

Data at rest

B.

Data in use

C.

Data in transit

D.

Data on the client machine

Question 125

After a data loss event, an organization is reviewing its Identity and Access Management (IAM) governance process. The organization determines that the process is not operating effectively. What should be the FIRST step to effectively manage the IAM governance process?

Options:

A.

Complete an inventory of who has access to systems.

B.

Create a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) process to determine what a specific group of users can access.

C.

Create an Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) process to assign access to users based on their account attributes and characteristics.

D.

Conduct an assessment and remove all inactive accounts.

Question 126

During an emergency management and planning session, an organization is discussing how to identify, prevent, prepare for, or respond to emergencies. Which of the following will provide the BEST possible outcome?

APerform drills on a recurring basis.

B.Harden all critical facilities.

C.Outsource to an external organization.

D.Allocate 100% of required funds.

Options:

Question 127

Which of the following should be performed FIRST in the course of a digital forensics investigation?

Options:

A.

Undelete files and investigate their content.

B.

Search through unallocated space.

C.

Shut down the system.

D.

Identify any data that needs to be obtained.

Question 128

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use to test whether servers are set up according to the organization ' s documented policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization ' s policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization ' s policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

Question 129

A healthcare organization is preparing an exercise test plan of its Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) for the Electronic Medical Record (EMR) application. The Business Continuity (BC) analyst is reviewing the requirements of the DRP. The EMR must provide basic charting services within 4 hours, must not lose more than 15 minutes of data, and must be fully functional within 12 hours. At the completion of the exercise, the analyst is preparing a lessons learned report and notes that the EMR was available after 3 hours and 25 minutes of data was lost. Which PRIMARY requirement needs to be addressed because of the exercise?

Options:

A.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

B.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Mean Time to Recovery (MTTR)

Question 130

What does the Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) method define?

Options:

A.

What equipment is needed to perform

B.

How information is accessed within a system

C.

What actions the user can or cannot do

D.

How to apply the security labels in a system

Question 131

While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user ' s hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?

Options:

A.

Add privileged user to the domain admin group.

B.

Add privileged users to the protected users group.

C.

Enable security options for each privileged user.

D.

Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.

Question 132

Objective security metrics tend to be easier to gather, easier to interpret, and easier to include in reports to management.

What is the BEST objective metric for the effectiveness of a security awareness training?

Options:

A.

The management’s attitude toward the training

B.

The number of times users comply with the training

C.

A change of helpdesk calls after the training

D.

The off-hand comments about the training

Question 133

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) allows for scanning a statistical sample of the environment without scanning the full environment. Scanning a statistical sample has many advantages and disadvantages.

Which of the following is the MOST accurate set of advantages and disadvantages?

Options:

A.

Limited risk to production targets, rapid scan times, requires proof of image standardization, and one-offs systems are not scanned

B.

Easy for auditors to question, fastest scanning method, ideal for cloud environments, and not suitable for small organizations

C.

Limited to a single environment/platform, proves image standardization, random selection misses end-to-end applications, and slower than targeted scanning

D.

Confirmation of Configuration Management (CM), hand selection introduces confirmation bias, is ideal in operational technology environments, and requires about 10% of each environment/platform

Question 134

An organization has to conduct quarterly reviews of user authorization access to its primary financial application. Which position is responsible for performing these reviews?

Options:

A.

Internal audit manager

B.

Information Security Manager (ISM)

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

Question 135

In an ABC analysis, “A” items generally represent about 20% of the:

Options:

A.

Cost of goods sold (COGS).

B.

Inventory value.

C.

Inventory items.

D.

Gross annual sales.

Question 136

An organization wants to establish an information security program and has assigned a security analyst to put it in place. What is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop and implement an information security standards manual.

B.

security control review.

C.

Perform a risk assessment to establish baseline security.

D.

Implement security access control software.

Question 137

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) defined a requirement to install a network security solution that will have the ability to inspect and block data flowing over network in real time. What network deployment scenario will be MOST suitable?

Options:

A.

Deploy the solution to a network terminal access point port.

B.

Deploy the solution and connect it to a Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN) port.

C.

Deploy the solution in line with the traffic flows.

D.

Deploy the solution on a separate Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN).

Question 138

Which of the following should Business Impact Analysis (BIA) reports always include?

Options:

A.

Security assessment report

B.

Recovery time objectives

C.

Plan of action and milestones

D.

Disaster Recovery Plans (DRP)

Question 139

Which of the below represents the GREATEST cloud-specific policy and organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Supply chain failure

B.

Loss of business reputation due to co-tenant activities

C.

Loss of governance between the client and cloud provider

D.

Cloud service termination or failure

Question 140

Disaster Recovery (DR) training plan outcomes should have which KEY quality?

Options:

A.

Comprehensible

B.

Identifiable

C.

Measurable

D.

Editable

Question 141

For a process that is outside its upper control limit (UCL), which of the following techniques would best be used to return the process under control?

Options:

A.

Conduct a Pareto analysis

B.

Plan-do-check-action (PDCA)

C.

Plot histograms

D.

Monitor control charts

Question 142

Which of the following production activity control (PAC) techniques focuses on optimizing output?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Priority sequencing rules

C.

Theory of constraints (TOC) scheduling

D.

Critical path management (CPM)

Question 143

What is the BEST way to plan for power disruptions when implementing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Empty jugs which can easily be filled up with water.

B.

Stock up on generator fuel and execute a generator test.

C.

Request bids for inexpensive generators.

D.

Purchase a contract with a secondary power provider.

Question 144

Which of the following methods is most often used to manage inventory planning variability across the supply chain?

Options:

A.

Buffer management

B.

Safety lead time

C.

Risk pooling

D.

Risk categorization

Question 145

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization ' s policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization ' s policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

Question 146

Which of the following outcomes Is a benefit of mixed-model scheduling?

Options:

A.

Increased inventory

B.

Improved demand response

C.

Fewer setups

D.

Fewer material shortages

Question 147

Which of the following protocols BEST provides for the secure transfer of voice, data, and video over a network?

Options:

A.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B.

Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)

C.

User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

D.

HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

Question 148

An organization has decided to leverage open source software for its latest application development project. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to ensure the open source software can be used securely while still meeting business requirements?

Options:

A.

Allow only a minimal number of developers to reduce the chance for errors.

B.

Ensure the organization has a written policy governing the use of open source code.

C.

Interview a number of the open source developers to determine their experience level.

D.

Scan the code for security vulnerabilities.

Question 149

The Data Loss Prevention (DLP) team in a major financial institution discovered network traffic that involved movement of sensitive material to a Cloud Service Provider (CSP). What action should be taken FIRST in this situation?

Options:

A.

Contact the CSP to validate data access controls in the cloud.

B.

Contact the network security team to block the traffic.

C.

Contact the Identity And Access Management (IAM) team to remove the user from the network.

D.

Contact the data owner to confirm the transfer was authorized.

Question 150

Which if the following is the FIRST control step in provisioning user rights and privileges?

Options:

A.

Identification

B.

Authorization

C.

Authentication

D.

Confidentiality

Question 151

One of the findings in the recent security assessment of a web application reads: " It appears that security is an afterthought in the web application development process. It is recommended that security be addressed earlier in the development process. " Which of these choices would BEST remediate this security finding?

Options:

A.

The installation and use of Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) software to test written code.

B.

The installation and use of Static Application Security Testing (SAST) software to test written code.

C.

The introduction of a continuous integration/continuous development pipeline to automate security into the software development change process.

D.

The introduction of a security training program for the developers.

Question 152

The time spent In queue by a specific manufacturing job is determined by which of the following factors related to the order?

Options:

A.

Lot size

B.

Priority

C.

Setup time

D.

Run time

Question 153

If an organization wanted to protect is data against loss of confidentiality in transit, which type of encryption is BEST?

Options:

A.

Symmetric cryptography

B.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with asymmetric keys

C.

Password encryption using hashing (with salt and pepper)

D.

Message Authentication Code (MAC) using hashing

Question 154

Which of the following ensures privileges are current and appropriately reflect an individual’s authorized roles and responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Access authorization

B.

Identity management

C.

Access approval

D.

Access review

Question 155

An organization is preparing for a natural disaster, and management is creating a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP). What is the BEST input for prioritizing the restoration of vital Information Technology (IT) services?

Options:

A.

By priority as defined by the critical assets list

B.

The latest Continuity Of Operations Plan (COOP)

C.

Senior management assessment and approval

D.

The latest Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

Question 156

A product manager wishes to store sensitive development data using a cloud storage vendor while maintaining exclusive control over passwords and encryption credentials. What is the BEST method for meeting these requirements?

Options:

A.

Local self-encryption with passwords managed by a local password manager

B.

Client-side encryption keys and passwords generated dynamically during cloud access sessions

C.

Zero-knowledge encryption keys provided by the cloud storage vendor

D.

Passwords generated by a local password manager during cloud access sessions and encrypted in transit

Question 157

A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Something one does

B.

Something one is

C.

Something one has

D.

Something one knows

Question 158

Risk pooling would work best for items with:

Options:

A.

low demand uncertainty and short lead times.

B.

low demand uncertainty and long lead times.

C.

high demand uncertainty and short lead times.

D.

high demand uncertainty and long lead times.

Question 159

A security practitioner has been asked to investigate the presence of customer Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on a social media website. Where does the practitioner begin?

Options:

A.

Review logs of all user ' s social media activity.

B.

Review the organizational social media policy.

C.

Initiate the organization ' s incident response plan.

D.

Determine a list of information assets that contain PII.

Question 160

At which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer does User Datagram Protocol (UDP) function?

Options:

A.

Layer 1

B.

Layer 2

C.

Layer 4

D.

Layer 3

Question 161

Which of the following controls should a financial Institution have in place in order to prevent a trader from both entering and executing a trade?

Options:

A.

Cameras in the trading room

B.

Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)

C.

Separation of Duties (SoD)

D.

Least privilege

Question 162

Which of the following roles is the BEST choice for classifying sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Information system owner

B.

Information system security manager

C.

Information owner

D.

Information system security officer

Question 163

Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that specific data is protected?

Options:

A.

Custodian

B.

Data owner

C.

Data controller

D.

System owner

Question 164

Which of the following is a core subset of The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) enterprise architecture model?

Options:

A.

Security architecture

B.

Availability architecture

C.

Privacy architecture

D.

Data architecture

Question 165

Which of the following provides that redundancy and failover capabilities are built into a system to maximize its uptime?

Options:

A.

Offsite backup

B.

High availability

C.

Diverse routing

D.

System mirroring

Question 166

To mitigate risk related to natural disasters, an organization has a separate location with systems and communications in place. Data must be restored on the remote systems before they are ready for use. What type of remote site is this?

Options:

A.

Cold Site

B.

Mobile Site

C.

Hot Site

D.

Warm Sit

Question 167

Which of the following tools is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity?

Options:

A.

Demand time fence (DTF)

B.

Bill of resources

C.

Product routing

D.

Safety capacity

Question 168

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of sharing assessment results among key organizational officials across information boundaries?

Options:

A.

Facilitates development of organization-wide security metrics

B.

Allows management to assess which organizational elements have the best security practices

C.

Provides the organization a wider view of systemic weaknesses and deficiencies in their information systems

D.

Identifies areas that require additional training emphasis in each organizational element

Question 169

In the sales and operations planning (S & OP) process, the demand management function provides:

Options:

A.

Information not included in the forecast

B.

A measurement of forecast accuracy

C.

A correction of forecast errors

D.

A more detailed forecast

Question 170

An organization co-locates three divisions and merges them into one network infrastructure. Prior to the merge, the network manager issued devices to employees for remote login. What security concept should be observed to provide security when a device joins the network or when a client makes an Application Programming Interface (API) call?

Options:

A.

Access Control List (ACL)

B.

Non-repudiation

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Zero Trust (ZT)

Question 171

A manufacturing facility uses common wireless technologies to communicate. The head of security is concerned about eavesdropping by attackers outside the perimeter fence. The distance between the facility and fence is at least 300 feet (100 m). Which of the following wireless technologies is MOST likely to be available to an attacker outside the fence?

Options:

A.

ZigBee

B.

Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID)

C.

Long-Term Evolution (LTE)

D.

Bluetooth

Question 172

Which of the following BEST describes web service security conformance testing as it relates to web services security testing?

Options:

A.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

B.

Focused on ensuring that the security functionally performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

C.

Ensure individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focused on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

Question 173

Which of the physiological biometric scanning methods is considered the MOST invasive?

Options:

A.

Retina

B.

Facial recognition

C.

Iris

D.

Hand geometry

Question 174

A systems engineer has been tasked by management to provide a recommendation with a prioritized, focused set of actions to help the organization stop high-risk cyber attacks and ensure data security. What should the systems engineer recommend the organization use to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Center for Internet Security critical security controls

B.

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)

C.

Inventory baseline controls

D.

Security content automation protocol controls

Question 175

What is a strategic process that is aimed at considering possible attack scenarios and vulnerabilities within a proposed or existing application environment for the purpose of clearly identifying risk and impact levels?

Options:

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Asset management

C.

Risk management

D.

Asset modeling

Question 176

If a work center is already loaded to full capacity, which of the following actions would be best to take before releasing a new order?

Options:

A.

Changing the date of the order

B.

Adjusting the master schedule

C.

Choosing a feasible alternate routing

D.

Releasing the order and trying to produce on time

Question 177

Which of the following statements characterizes a pull system In distribution management?

Options:

A.

Each warehouse makes its own replenishment decisions.

B.

It uses distribution requirements planning(DRP).

C.

It uses uniform performance measures.

D.

It uses fair-share allocation.

Question 178

The results of a threat campaign show a high risk of potential intrusion. Which of the following parameters of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) will MOST likely provide information on threat conditions for the organization to consider?

Options:

A.

Modified base metrics

B.

Remediation level

C.

Integrity requirements

D.

Attack complexity

Question 179

Bad actors with little expense can easily make calls. Which social engineer strategy is a telecommunications ONLY risk concept?

Options:

A.

Pretexting

B.

Diversion theft

C.

Phreaking

D.

Baiting

Question 180

An organization is looking to integrate security concepts into the code development process early in development to detect issues before the software is launched. Which advantage does the organization gain from using Static Application Security Testing (SAST) techniques versus dynamic application security testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Allows tailored techniques

B.

Executes code to detect issues

C.

Allows for earlier vulnerability detection

D.

Simulates attacker patterns

Question 181

A financial institution is implementing an Information Technology (IT) asset management system. Which of the following capabilities is the MOST important to include?

Options:

A.

Logging the data leak protection status of the IT asset

B.

Tracking the market value of the IT asset

C.

Receiving or transferring an IT asset

D.

Recording the bandwidth and data usage of the IT asset

Demo: 181 questions
Total 606 questions