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ACDIS CCDS-O Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 42 questions
Total 140 questions

Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A patient with a PMH of DM, GERD, and HTN is seen in the clinic with complaints of stuffy nose, fever, and feeling tired for the past four days. The patient’s medication list includes SSI, Prilosec, and Diovan. The provider documented: “Congestion, fever, malaise, DM, GERD, HTN. Continue OTC medications for congestion and fever. Rest. Return to the clinic in one week if symptoms persist.” Which of the following ICD-10-CM guidelines BEST applies to how this scenario should be coded?

Options:

A.

Selection of first-listed condition

B.

Codes that describe symptoms and signs

C.

Uncertain diagnoses

D.

Encounters for general medical examination with abnormal finding

Question 2

An ACO with 50,000 beneficiaries just completed its first year of a 3-year contract where the final scores were quality 90%; expected costs were $50 million, and actual costs were $52 million. The shared savings rate determined by CMS was 50%. Which of the following is MOST accurate and applies for the ACO?

Options:

A.

The ACO will expect to receive dollars in shared savings.

B.

The ACO will expect to pay back dollars in shared savings.

C.

The ACO will be eligible for shared savings after the second year.

D.

The ACO will have shared savings or penalty determined at the end of the agreement period.

Question 3

Which of the following lab values, when trended for greater than 3 months, indicates an objective measure of chronic kidney damage?

Options:

A.

BNP >1000 pg/mL

B.

GFR <60 ml/min

C.

BUN <12 mg/dL

D.

Glucose >100 mg/dL

Question 4

Which diagnosis and treatment plan may generate a query?

Options:

A.

Prostate carcinoma and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone

B.

Atrial fibrillation and amiodarone

C.

Malnutrition and parenteral nutrition

D.

Severe major depressive disorder and immunotherapy

Question 5

Which of the following BEST defines a risk score under the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Beneficiary's demographics and social determinants

B.

Beneficiary and family demographics

C.

Beneficiary's individual demographic and health status

D.

Beneficiary's health status and risk of mortality

Question 6

Which of the following adds weight to the risk score over and above the CMS-HCC weights for individual conditions?

Options:

A.

Hierarchies

B.

Disease interactions

C.

Resource-based relative values

D.

Conversion factors

Question 7

A patient is evaluated in the clinic. Documentation states: “HIV positive, gravida 1 at 24 weeks.” Which of the following conditions will be coded and in which sequence based on the documentation?

Options:

A.

HIV disease, pregnancy

B.

Pregnancy with HIV disease

C.

Asymptomatic HIV, pregnancy

D.

Pregnancy with asymptomatic HIV

Question 8

The primary purpose of the RADV program is to

Options:

A.

ensure risk-adjusted payment integrity and accuracy.

B.

verify medical necessity of care provided.

C.

identify over-payments rendered to individual physicians.

D.

support accuracy of Evaluation and Management billing.

Question 9

Which of the following health record elements impacts HHS-HCC risk scores?

Options:

A.

CPT codes

B.

Discharge status

C.

Gender

D.

Ethnicity

Question 10

In the outpatient setting, which of the following guidelines depicts the reason for the encounter/visit shown in the medical record to be chiefly responsible for the services provided?

Options:

A.

Differential diagnoses

B.

Co-existing diagnoses

C.

Principal diagnosis

D.

First-listed diagnosis

Question 11

An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary’s risk score?

Options:

A.

Patient noncompliance and age

B.

ICD-10-CM codes and race

C.

Medicaid status and race

D.

Medicaid status and gender

Question 12

A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status of ostomy

B.

Status of the sleep apnea

C.

Status of the COPD

D.

Status of colon cancer

Question 13

In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)

Options:

A.

$148,800

B.

$3,291,200

C.

$1,785,600

D.

$17,785,600

Question 14

When evaluating a CDI specialist's performance, which of the following expectations is held to the same standard for both inpatient and outpatient initiatives?

Options:

A.

Review productivity

B.

Query opportunities

C.

Revenue impact

D.

Query compliance

Question 15

The table below provides data indicating the use of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) diagnosis code assignment for years 1 and 2 of an ambulatory CDI program. Based on the data and if the HCC value assigned to MDD was 0.299, which of the following should be inferred?

Options:

A.

The number of patients increased with an equal increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, not impacting future cost benchmarking.

B.

The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.

C.

The number of patients increased with the difference between MDD specified and MDD, unspecified insignificant, not impacting future cost benchmarking.

D.

The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and an increase in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.

Question 16

A compliant physician query must:

Options:

A.

Lead the provider to a specific diagnosis

B.

Be non-leading and include clinical indicators

C.

Be verbal only

D.

Be open-ended without context

Question 17

A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility’s EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?

Options:

A.

Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation

B.

Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

C.

Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

D.

Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review

Question 18

A CDI specialist receives a call from a disgruntled provider regarding recent documentation queries. The provider claims to only have 15 minutes to see patients and does not have time for interruptions like this if it does not increase reimbursement. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to effectively facilitate communication?

Options:

A.

Explain to the provider that queries may affect reimbursement, however not directly, and he should comply.

B.

Listen to the provider, agree this does not affect reimbursement, and explain that the CDI team will stop querying.

C.

Request a time at the provider's convenience to review the query process and collaborate to facilitate the best workflow.

D.

Call the provider's superior and report him as being non-compliant with organizational processes.

Question 19

Which of the following BEST describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer?

Options:

A.

Pre-ulcer skin changes limited to persistent focal edema

B.

Full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue

C.

Necrosis of soft tissues through to underlying muscle, tendon, or bone

D.

Abrasion, blister, partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis and/or dermis

Question 20

Which of the following statements is true regarding RADV reviews?

Options:

A.

Diagnoses assigned by a diagnostic radiologist are considered during RADV reviews.

B.

Conditions reported must be documented in the final visit diagnoses or facesheet of the medical record.

C.

Acceptable physician authentication includes hand-written or electronic signatures.

D.

Diagnoses assigned by technicians are considered during RADV reviews.

Question 21

Which of the following actions should be taken when the documentation states: “Hemiparesis, history of CVA, and intracranial trauma?”

Options:

A.

Report hemiparesis as sequelae of CVA.

B.

Report hemiparesis, history of CVA, and history of trauma.

C.

Query to clarify the etiology of the hemiparesis.

D.

Assign the code for hemiparesis.

Question 22

Which of the following tools or processes is MOST appropriate to share with providers and administrators during a department meeting when demonstrating documentation and coding patterns?

Options:

A.

Spaghetti diagram

B.

PDSA cycle

C.

Bar graph

D.

Donabedian Model

Question 23

Calculate the expected yearly cost for this patient based on the RAF score.

Options:

A.

$486.40

B.

$12,672.00

C.

$17,011.20

D.

$5,836.80

Question 24

Which of the following conditions or findings supports a diagnosis of diabetes?

Options:

A.

2-hour blood sugar level of 90 during oral glucose tolerance test

B.

Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) level of 7.0%

C.

Hypoglycemia

D.

Fasting glucose of 100

Question 25

A patient receives treatment for diabetes during a primary care visit. He has a glucose level of 240 and A1C of 7.9. The patient is prescribed Gabapentin 100mg TID. Which of the following should the CDI specialist query for?

Options:

A.

Diabetes with chronic kidney disease

B.

Diabetes with macular degeneration

C.

Diabetes with ketoacidosis

D.

Diabetes with peripheral neuropathy

Question 26

Which of the following BEST represents performance metrics important to an outpatient CDI program?

Options:

A.

Medicare Case Mix Index, aggregate RAF scores, and clinical denial rate

B.

HCC capture rate, unspecified code utilization rate, and query response rate

C.

Severity of illness, HCC capture rate, and Medicare Case Mix Index

D.

Number of secondary diagnoses per claim, aggregate RAF score, and quality indicators

Question 27

A patient is seen in the office for a persistent cough. Provider documentation states: “History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, and hypertension. Hypertension treated with Enalapril. Cough an adverse effect of the ACE inhibitor; discontinue Enalapril. COPD stable. Instructed to continue meds for COPD/asthma.” Which of the following diagnoses should be reported for this encounter?

Options:

A.

COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

B.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; hypertension

C.

COPD, unspecified; hypertension

D.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

Question 28

Symbicort® is used to treat which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Degenerative osteoarthritis

B.

Persistent asthma

C.

Diabetic neuropathy

D.

Congestive heart failure

Question 29

PCP notes describe the presence of atrial fibrillation for 10 days. Atenolol, sotalol and rivaroxaban are ordered. Possible ablation is discussed. Identify the type of atrial fibrillation described in this clinical scenario.

Options:

A.

Paroxysmal

B.

Persistent

C.

Chronic

D.

Permanent

Question 30

Which performance metric is MOST appropriate for an outpatient program to share with providers?

Options:

A.

APC payment rates

B.

RAF scores

C.

HCC per member per month payments

D.

Major complication comorbidity (MCC) rates

Question 31

Which of the following encounters is billed as an outpatient encounter?

Options:

A.

ED visit that leads to inpatient admission

B.

ED visit that leads to observation stay

C.

Ambulatory surgery encounter for scheduled sigmoid resection

D.

Admission for COPD exacerbation with length of stay less than two midnights

Question 32

Which of the following section(s) of the Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting are applicable to outpatient settings?

Options:

A.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines, and Chapter Specific Guidelines

B.

Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

C.

Section III, Reporting Additional Diagnoses; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

D.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines and Chapter Specific Guidelines; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

Question 33

Which of the following concepts BEST reflects how risk adjustment is related to cost efficiency metrics?

Options:

A.

It is directly calculated from provider E&M levels.

B.

It is applied to resource utilization measures.

C.

It is related to physician time spent with patient.

D.

It is supported by interventions and procedures.

Question 34

Which of the following coding guidelines is MOST important for a provider to understand when selecting diagnosis codes for an office visit as opposed to an inpatient stay?

Options:

A.

Chronic conditions only have to be coded once a year even if relevant to multiple encounters.

B.

First-listed diagnosis and principal diagnosis are synonymous terms.

C.

Documentation of uncertain diagnoses may not be assigned ICD-10-CM codes.

D.

Documentation is only required for the main reason of the office visit.

Question 35

A CDI specialist has created the following query:

“Dear Dr., Based on the following clinical indicators: history of CVA and physical therapy ordered to address left sided weakness, please confirm a diagnosis of hemiplegia.”

What feedback should be given to the CDI specialist regarding the query?

Options:

A.

Hemiplegia can be coded without the provider clarification.

B.

The query leads the physician to one diagnosis, making it non-compliant.

C.

Clinical indicators do not support the query.

D.

The query does not include results from the most recent MRI.

Question 36

A patient is evaluated in the primary care clinic for chest pain, slight shortness of breath, and mild nausea. Documentation includes an ECG and chest x-ray to rule out MI. Which of the following diagnoses are reportable?

Options:

A.

Angina pectoris, unspecified, shortness of breath, and nausea

B.

Rule out MI, shortness of breath, and nausea

C.

Acute MI, chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

D.

Other chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

Question 37

A CDI specialist identifies an opportunity to clarify a patient’s BMI. The CDI specialist leaves a query within the medical record for the ancillary support team to address during the patient’s visit. Which of the following BEST describes this type of query?

Options:

A.

Retrospective

B.

Concurrent

C.

Prospective

D.

Prebill

Question 38

Which of the following physician performance metrics BEST illustrates provider engagement with outpatient CDI specialist?

Options:

A.

Query response rates and problem list updates

B.

Problem list updates and RAF capture rates

C.

Physician MIPS scores and query response rates

D.

Physician RAF scores and RAF capture rates

Question 39

Upon review of payer data, a decrease in RAF scores for the organization is noted. After reviewing internal metrics, a CDI specialist notes an increase in the volume of HCC queries across the organization, with accurate coding confirmed. Which of the following is the MOST plausible explanation for these findings?

Options:

A.

The payer is not receiving all diagnosis codes

B.

CPT codes are not reflected in the reporting

C.

CDI specialist queries are validated and compliant

D.

The HCC model has not been updated within the organization

Question 40

HCC category assignment methodology is similar to which of the following?

Options:

A.

DRG diagnostic categories

B.

835 claim submission

C.

ICD-10-PCS coding

D.

CPT coding

Question 41

Which statement is MOST accurate about the problem list?

Options:

A.

Problem list diagnoses should be removed after one year.

B.

A well-maintained problem list is vital in the continuity of patient care.

C.

More diagnoses on the problem list assist the provider in caring for the patient.

D.

A CDI specialist should update the problem list to provide continuity of care.

Question 42

A CDI specialist manager is reviewing the productivity metrics of the outpatient team and notes that one of the CDI specialists has a high query rate and a good physician response, but a low physician agree rate compared to the rest of the team. This likely indicates which of the following?

Options:

A.

The data is not stratified enough to show a true picture of the productivity.

B.

The CDI specialist is writing leading queries.

C.

The CDI specialist is creating poor quality queries.

D.

The cases the CDI specialist is reviewing are more complex than other clinics.

Demo: 42 questions
Total 140 questions