The initial section of Zero Trust, Verify Identity and Context, includes three elements; the first is:
Who is connecting.
Device posture-based determinations of quarantine.
Integration with third-party threat intelligence feeds.
ML-based application discovery as part of a microsegmentation implementation.
The correct answer is A. Who is connecting. In the Zero Trust model used throughout these questions, the first major section is Verify Identity and Context, which is concerned with understanding the who, what, and where of the access request. The first logical element in that sequence is identifying who is connecting. Zscaler’s authentication architecture makes this explicit by describing authentication credentials as the first step in determining which policies are applied, based on responses from the Identity Provider (IdP). Those responses include the user’s identity, department, and group membership.
Device posture is also important, but it is part of the broader context that follows identity verification. Threat intelligence integrations and ML-based discovery are useful supporting capabilities, yet they are not the first element of the Verify stage. Zero Trust begins by establishing who the requester is, then layering in posture, location, and other contextual conditions to reach an access decision. Therefore, the best answer is Who is connecting.
What protects Personally Identifiable Information (PII) accidentally shared by a colleague to the entire company?
SSL/TLS inspection.
Verifying identity and context through a secure identity provider.
Data Loss Prevention (out-of-band and inline).
Virtual firewalls.
The correct answer is C. Data Loss Prevention (out-of-band and inline). In Zero Trust architecture, protection of sensitive data such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is handled by controls that understand and govern the content being transmitted, not just the identity of the sender or the existence of a connection. Zscaler’s TLS/SSL inspection reference architecture explicitly identifies Data Loss Prevention (DLP) as a capability that helps prevent sensitive data from leaving the organization . That directly addresses accidental broad sharing, because DLP policies can detect sensitive patterns and stop, restrict, or alert on improper distribution.
SSL/TLS inspection helps make the content visible, but by itself it is not the control that decides whether the sensitive information should be allowed. Identity verification is important for access decisions, but it does not prevent a legitimate user from unintentionally oversharing data. Virtual firewalls also do not provide content-aware protection for PII leakage. Zero Trust requires content-aware controls in addition to identity and context, which is why inline and out-of-band DLP is the correct answer for protecting accidentally shared PII.
Connections to destination applications are the same, regardless of location or function.
True
False, each application, whether internal or external, trusted or untrusted, must be considered for connectivity based on the risk profile and risk acceptance of each enterprise.
The correct answer is B . In Zero Trust architecture, application connectivity is not treated as identical across all destinations . Each application must be evaluated according to its business purpose, sensitivity, exposure, trust level, data handled, user population, and enterprise risk tolerance . This is a core departure from legacy network-centric design, where many applications were reached through the same broad network access model once a user was connected.
Zero Trust instead applies application-specific and context-aware access control . An internal private application, a sanctioned Software as a Service (SaaS) platform, an unmanaged external website, and a high-risk destination should not all receive the same access treatment. Some may require direct allow, some may require isolation, some may require additional inspection, and some may need to be blocked entirely.
This is why Zero Trust policy is granular rather than uniform. The architecture assumes that connectivity decisions must reflect risk . Application location alone does not determine trust, and neither does function alone. The enterprise must decide how each destination is handled based on its overall risk profile and policy requirements. Therefore, the statement is false.
Which crucial step occurs during the “Enforce Policy” stage?
Connecting an initiator to internal and external applications from the Zero Trust Exchange.
A handshake between the initiator and destination application.
The setup of an enterprise SSO or AD server for credential validation.
Verification of identity and context of the connection.
The correct answer is A . In the Zero Trust sequence, Verify Identity and Context happens first, followed by Control Content and Access , and then Enforce Policy . The enforce stage is where the platform applies the policy decision and enables the approved transaction to proceed in the allowed manner. In Zscaler’s model, this means the Zero Trust Exchange brokers or permits the connection to the authorized application under the right controls.
Option D is incorrect because verification of identity and context belongs to the earlier Verify stage. Option C is about identity infrastructure setup, not runtime enforcement. Option B may occur at a transport level, but it is not the defining Zero Trust function of the Enforce stage.
The best match is therefore the actual application of the policy outcome: the initiator is connected to the appropriate internal or external application through the Zero Trust Exchange according to policy. This is consistent with Zscaler’s architecture, where users, devices, and applications are securely connected through the cloud platform and access is granted only after policy evaluation.
Businesses undertake ________ to increase efficiency, improve agility, and achieve a competitive advantage.
Digital transformation journeys
Blue teaming exercises
Red teaming exercises
Disaster recovery planning
The correct answer is A. Digital transformation journeys . Businesses adopt digital transformation initiatives to modernize operations, improve responsiveness, increase efficiency, and create competitive differentiation. In the context of Zero Trust architecture, digital transformation is especially important because applications, users, and data are no longer confined to a traditional data center or corporate campus. As organizations move to cloud services, support remote work, and digitize workflows, legacy perimeter-based security models become less effective.
Zero Trust fits into this journey by providing a security model that aligns with modern business change. Instead of relying on static network trust, it supports application-aware, identity-based, and context-driven access. That allows the business to move faster while still enforcing security consistently across distributed environments.
The other options do not fit the business objective in the question. Blue teaming and red teaming are security testing and defense exercises, while disaster recovery planning is a resilience activity. All are valuable, but they are not the broad transformation effort undertaken to improve agility and competitiveness. Therefore, the correct answer is digital transformation journeys .
Risk within the Zero Trust Exchange is a dynamic value calculated to:
Be hashed, truncated, and stored in an obfuscated manner.
Give visibility of risky activity and allow enterprises to set acceptable thresholds of risk.
Provide access to the network.
Reduce processing load by enabling low-risk traffic to bypass less critical inspections.
The correct answer is B . In Zero Trust architecture, risk is calculated dynamically so that the organization can see risky behavior and make informed policy decisions based on its own business tolerance. A dynamic risk value helps determine whether a request should be allowed, restricted, isolated, deceived, or blocked. This supports one of the central principles of Zero Trust: trust is not static, and policy decisions should reflect current conditions rather than fixed assumptions.
The purpose of calculating risk is not to provide generic network access. Zero Trust is not about putting users onto a trusted network. It is about making precise decisions for each request. Dynamic risk also is not primarily about reducing system load by skipping controls. While organizations may prioritize resources intelligently, the main architectural reason for risk calculation is to support visibility and policy enforcement .
Enterprises can use this dynamic assessment to align security decisions with their own acceptable thresholds, application sensitivity, user context, device posture, and observed behavior. Therefore, the best answer is that risk is calculated to provide visibility into risky activity and allow enterprises to define acceptable risk thresholds .
In a Zero Trust architecture, what is required to apply the first levels of control policy decisions?
Inspection of SSL/TLS connections.
Local breakout so that traffic goes directly to SaaS applications from branches.
Context and Identity.
Segmenting an OT network so that it is air-gapped from the IT environment.
The correct answer is C. Context and Identity. In Zero Trust architecture, the earliest control decisions cannot be made effectively unless the platform first understands who is making the request and under what conditions that request is happening. That means identity must be verified, and context must be evaluated. Context includes factors such as device posture, location, group membership, application sensitivity, and risk-related conditions. Without those inputs, the architecture cannot determine whether the request should be allowed, restricted, isolated, or blocked.
SSL/TLS inspection is highly important for deeper content-aware controls, but it is not the first requirement for the initial level of control decisions. Local breakout is a traffic-forwarding design choice, not the foundational requirement for policy decision-making. Air-gapping an OT network is a segmentation strategy, but it does not represent the first control layer in Zero Trust. Zero Trust begins with verification and contextual understanding, because policy must be tied to the specific request, not to broad network assumptions. Therefore, the first levels of control policy decisions require context and identity.
In a Zero Trust architecture, how is the connection to an application provided?
Over any network with per-access control.
By establishing a full network-layer connection.
Through a virtual security appliance stack.
Via secure TLS connections with out-of-band inspection for advanced threats.
The correct answer is A. Over any network with per-access control. In Zero Trust architecture, access is provided to the specific application , not to the underlying network. This is a foundational design principle in Zscaler’s Universal Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) guidance. Users can connect from any location and over any network , while policy is enforced per user, per device, per application, and per session . This differs from legacy approaches that first place the user onto the network and then rely on network segmentation or firewall rules to limit access.
Option B is incorrect because establishing a full network-layer connection is characteristic of legacy VPN-based access, which extends network trust and increases lateral movement risk. Option C is also incorrect because Zero Trust is not defined by building a virtual appliance stack in front of applications. Option D includes TLS, which is used in Zscaler architectures, but the key Zero Trust concept being tested is not merely encrypted transport; it is brokered, granular, per-access connectivity without exposing the application to broad network reachability. Therefore, the most accurate answer is A .
What is the cause of performance issues for some VPN connections?
A split tunnel VPN where you break out traffic destined for certain IP addresses to go direct.
VPN vendors throttle network traffic on the overlay by default to reduce overhead on the VPN headend.
Hairpinning cloud application traffic through a data center bottleneck.
Interoperability issues between IPSec standards like IKEv1 and IKEv2.
The correct answer is C . A common cause of poor performance in legacy VPN architectures is hairpinning traffic through a central data center before it can reach cloud or internet destinations. This creates unnecessary distance, added latency, and congestion because the user’s traffic does not take the most direct path to the application. Instead, it is first forced back into the enterprise network, often through a VPN concentrator and a stack of centralized security appliances.
This design made more sense when applications mostly lived in corporate data centers. But once applications moved to the cloud and users became more distributed, the same architecture began creating serious user-experience problems. Zero Trust addresses this by allowing access to be enforced closer to the user and closer to the destination, rather than depending on centralized backhaul.
The other options are weaker answers. Split tunneling introduces visibility and control concerns, but it is not the main performance problem being tested here. Vendor throttling and IPSec version mismatch are not the common architectural cause. Therefore, the best answer is hairpinning cloud application traffic through a data center bottleneck .
What facilitates constant and uniform application of policy enforcement?
Open and clear communication channels across Network and Security teams.
The policy remains the same, conditionally, and is applied equally regardless of the location of the enforcement point.
Leveraging policy enforcement capabilities available through traditional security appliances.
Application access happens on-premises, typically either from within the data center or the corporate campus, where large security stacks are deployed.
The correct answer is B . A core Zero Trust principle is that policy should be consistent and context-based , regardless of where the user is, where the application is hosted, or where the enforcement service is located. In other words, the same business and security policy must be applied uniformly across all access requests, with outcomes changing only when the evaluated context changes. This creates predictable and repeatable enforcement across branches, campuses, home offices, mobile users, and cloud-hosted applications.
Legacy environments often struggle with this because different firewalls, VPN gateways, and security stacks may each enforce only part of the intended rule set, leading to drift and inconsistency. Zero Trust addresses that by moving toward a centralized, policy-driven control model that is applied equally across the distributed environment. Communication between teams is important operationally, but it is not what fundamentally enables constant and uniform enforcement. Traditional appliances and on-premises security stacks also do not solve the consistency problem at scale. Therefore, the best answer is that uniform enforcement is facilitated when the same conditional policy is applied equally regardless of the enforcement point’s location .
Third parties that can be integrated at the point of Verifying Identity and Context in the Zero Trust process include:
Open-source SIEM tools such as OSSM and the ELK Stack.
IdPs (Identity Providers) such as Okta and PingFederate, which are used for SSO (Single Sign-On).
Web scalers such as GCP, Azure, and AWS, where cloud workloads are typically hosted.
Data center providers such as Equinix, where customer hardware is typically hosted.
The correct answer is B . In Zscaler’s Zero Trust architecture, the Verify Identity and Context stage relies on identity systems that can authenticate users and provide policy-relevant attributes. The ZIA authentication architecture explicitly states that Zscaler partners with leading Identity Providers (IdPs) such as Azure Active Directory, Okta, and PingFederate , and that responses from the IdP can include the user’s identity, department, and group membership. Those attributes are then used to decide which policies apply.
The ZPA architecture reinforces the same model by stating that SAML and SCIM attributes such as group membership and role are used in access policy rules, and that additional access context can be provided by the SAML Identity Provider . This makes IdP integration a direct part of verification and context evaluation in the Zero Trust process.
The other options are not the best fit for this stage. SIEM tools support logging and analytics, while cloud and data center providers host workloads rather than acting as identity-verification systems. Therefore, the correct answer is IdPs like Okta and PingFederate .
As a connection goes through, the Zero Trust Exchange:
Initiates the three sections of a Zero Trust architecture (Verify, Control, Enforce), which once completed, will allow the Zero Trust Exchange and the application to complete the transaction.
Sits as a ruggedized, hardened appliance in the data center of the enterprise, where the enterprise must establish private links to major peering hubs.
Acts as the opposite of a reverse proxy, inspecting every single packet that goes out, but strictly without the ability to provide controls such as firewalling, intrusion prevention system (IPS), or data loss prevention (DLP).
Forwards packets as a passthrough cloud security firewall.
The correct answer is A . In Zscaler’s architecture, the Zero Trust Exchange is not just a packet-forwarding firewall or a single appliance. It is the cloud-delivered policy and security fabric that evaluates access through the core Zero Trust sequence of verify, control, and enforce . The architecture documents describe Zero Trust access as depending on establishing identity, evaluating context, and then applying the appropriate control for that specific request. ZPA guidance explains that users are evaluated for context such as location, device posture, groups, and time of day, and access is granted only if the request matches the required policies.
Option B is incorrect because the Zero Trust Exchange is not limited to a hardened enterprise data center appliance. Option C is incorrect because Zscaler explicitly provides inline controls such as firewalling, DLP, and related inspection services. Option D is also incomplete because the Zero Trust Exchange does more than pass traffic through; it makes access and security decisions. Therefore, the best architecture-aligned answer is that the Zero Trust Exchange carries out the Zero Trust process of Verify, Control, and Enforce as part of completing the transaction.
Content inspection of encrypted content at scale is widely available on most network-based security platforms, such as firewalls, to deploy.
True
False
The correct answer is B. False . In Zero Trust architecture, inspection of encrypted traffic is a major requirement because most internet traffic is now encrypted, and threats frequently hide inside TLS/SSL sessions. However, Zscaler’s TLS/SSL inspection reference guidance explains that this type of inspection is not widely available at scale on most traditional network-based security platforms . Conventional security appliances typically experience a major reduction in effective traffic-handling capacity when decryption is enabled, which is one of the main reasons many legacy environments only inspect a limited subset of encrypted traffic.
This limitation is important in Zero Trust because selective inspection creates blind spots. If encrypted traffic is not inspected broadly, malware delivery, command-and-control activity, risky application behavior, and data exfiltration can bypass security controls. Zscaler’s architecture is designed to move this function to a cloud-delivered inline security model so inspection can occur more consistently and at scale. Therefore, the statement is false because traditional firewalls and similar appliances have historically struggled to provide encrypted content inspection broadly and efficiently enough for modern Zero Trust needs.
The Zscaler Client Connector is:
A device used to create a secure communication channel with a Web Application Firewall (WAF).
A cloud-managed endpoint device via an MDM solution.
An agent installed on the endpoint to tunnel authorized user traffic to the Zero Trust Exchange for protection of SaaS, private applications, and internet-bound traffic.
A marketplace platform that connects different types of business clients to each other.
The correct answer is C . Zscaler documentation describes Zscaler Client Connector as a lightweight software agent that runs on the endpoint and connects user devices to Zscaler cloud-hosted services. It enables protection for internet destinations through ZIA , access to private applications through ZPA , and visibility through ZDX . The secure mobile access reference architecture states that Zscaler Client Connector connects users and devices to the Zscaler Zero Trust Exchange and enables secure access to the internet and private applications from any location.
This directly matches the description in option C. The agent tunnels or redirects the user’s authorized traffic to the Zero Trust Exchange, where security policy and access controls are enforced. It is not a WAF device, not an endpoint itself, and not a marketplace platform. The ZPA troubleshooting guide also notes that the initial request to a private application is initiated from Zscaler Client Connector, which intercepts the application request and forwards it appropriately for policy evaluation and brokering.
Therefore, the correct definition is that Zscaler Client Connector is an endpoint agent that securely tunnels authorized user traffic to the Zero Trust Exchange .
What options are available to an enterprise whose cybersecurity solution does not provide inline content inspection?
Leverage the lowest-latency path, which typically involves service chaining to send traffic to a specialized branch where a stack of firewalls is hosted on a rack.
Only view the metadata of a connection, such as who is calling and where they are calling.
Optimize their throughput.
Leverage tremendous cost savings, since TLS/SSL connections have a per-packet premium cost associated with processing them.
The correct answer is B . If a security platform cannot perform inline content inspection , then it cannot fully inspect the payload of encrypted or application traffic. In practical terms, that means the enterprise is limited mainly to observing connection-level metadata such as source, destination, ports, categories, and other session attributes rather than the actual content moving through the session. Zscaler’s TLS/SSL inspection reference architecture explains that when encrypted traffic is not decrypted, advanced analysis tools such as malware protection, sandboxing, and related controls cannot fully inspect that traffic. It also notes that traditional security appliances often handle only a small fraction of their normal traffic capacity when decryption is enabled, which is one reason many legacy environments inspect only a subset of traffic.
From a Zero Trust perspective, this limitation is significant because policy should be based not only on the existence of a connection, but also on what the connection is actually doing. Without inline inspection, hidden malware, risky transactions, and sensitive data loss can evade full control. Therefore, the realistic fallback is metadata visibility only, not full protection.
Connections approved by the Zero Trust Exchange must then enable permanent network-level access for at least 30 days.
True
False
The correct answer is B. False . Zero Trust architecture is specifically designed to avoid giving users broad, lasting network-level access after a connection is approved. Zscaler’s Universal ZTNA guidance states that users connect directly to applications, not the network , which minimizes attack surface and eliminates lateral movement. This means approval is tied to the specific access request and the relevant context at that moment, not to an ongoing entitlement to the underlying network.
The idea of granting network-level access for 30 days is much closer to a legacy VPN model, where a user is placed onto a routable network and may retain broad reachability beyond the immediate business need. Zero Trust does the opposite. It verifies identity and context, evaluates policy, and then enforces a specific control outcome for that request. If the user’s context changes, the policy outcome can also change. That is why Zero Trust is often described as dynamic and per-access , rather than static and persistent. A connection approved by the Zero Trust Exchange does not imply a long-term network privilege; it enables only the necessary application access under current policy conditions.
Should policy enforcement apply to all traffic, including from authorized initiators?
A true Zero Trust solution must never allow any access without authorization.
No. It should only apply to unauthorized initiators.
Unauthorized initiators are blackholed by default.
Zero Trust allows all initiators to see the destination, regardless of role and responsibility.
The correct answer is A . In Zero Trust architecture, policy enforcement applies to every access request , including requests from users who may ultimately be authorized. Zscaler documentation explains that when a user requests access, the platform evaluates context such as identity, posture, location, group membership, and application conditions , then enforces the matching policy. This means that authorized users are not exempt from policy; rather, policy is what determines whether they are authorized for that specific request.
ZPA guidance also states that access policies use explicit logic based on application segments, SAML attributes, client type, and posture profiles, and that traffic that does not match a policy is automatically blocked . This is fully consistent with the principle that no access should occur outside authorization and policy control.
Option A is the only choice that matches that Zero Trust principle, even though its wording is broader than the question. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they either exclude authorized users from enforcement or imply unnecessary visibility to destinations. In Zero Trust, all traffic is subject to policy , and nothing should be allowed without authorization.
What are some of the outputs of dynamic risk assessment?
Categories, criteria, and insights pertaining to each access request.
A full PCAP of the inline data transfer.
A backup and restore configuration process, run manually during a change window.
An ML/AI-driven engine analyzing and determining application segments after wildcard domains are established.
The correct answer is A . In Zero Trust architecture, dynamic risk assessment produces decision-support outputs that help determine how each access request should be handled. Zscaler’s identity and policy guidance explains that policy decisions are made by evaluating factors such as the user, device, location, group, and more to determine which policies apply. This means the output of risk assessment is not a packet capture or an operational maintenance workflow; it is the contextual information used to classify the request and enforce the appropriate control outcome.
This aligns closely with the idea of categories, criteria, and insights attached to an access request. Categories help classify the transaction or destination, criteria define which conditions are being evaluated, and insights provide the context needed to allow, restrict, deceive, isolate, or block. By contrast, a full PCAP is a troubleshooting artifact, not a core policy output. Backup and restore processes are administrative operations, and ML-based application segmentation is a separate discovery or segmentation capability rather than the direct output of dynamic risk assessment. Therefore, the best Zero Trust answer is that dynamic risk assessment produces contextual outputs tied to each access request so policy enforcement can be precise and adaptive.
Zero Trust access can work over any type of network.
True
False
The correct answer is A. True. Zero Trust architecture is designed so that access decisions are independent of the underlying network as a trust boundary. Zscaler’s ZPA guidance states that Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) gives users secure connectivity to private applications without ever placing them on the network, and that users can access applications without sharing network context with them.
Zscaler Client Connector guidance also states that it connects user devices to Zscaler cloud-hosted services independent of the user’s location, and the ZIA traffic-forwarding architecture explains that the same authentication and policy follow the user wherever they are. This means the access model can work across corporate networks, home broadband, public Wi-Fi, mobile networks, branch environments, and other transport types, because trust is derived from identity, posture, context, and policy, not from being on a particular network.
The network still carries the traffic, but it does not determine trust. That is one of the defining characteristics of Zero Trust. Therefore, the statement is true: Zero Trust access can work over any type of network.
What is policy enforcement built to enable?
Network access to all available applications.
Blocking access to applications and the network.
Granular access from the verified initiator only to the verified application, under the correct risk and content controls.
Forwarding traffic on to a virtual DMZ.
The correct answer is C. In Zero Trust architecture, policy enforcement exists to provide precise, least-privileged access. It is not designed to place a user broadly onto the network, and it is not limited to simply blocking everything. Instead, it enables granular access from the verified initiator to the specific verified application, while also applying the correct policy conditions related to risk, content inspection, and business requirements.
This is one of the central differences between Zero Trust and legacy security models. Traditional VPN and firewall architectures often grant broad network connectivity first and then attempt to restrict behavior afterward. Zero Trust reverses that logic. The user is not trusted because they reached the network. Instead, the user receives access only to the exact application or service that policy permits, and only under the validated conditions for that request.
That is why granular policy enforcement is so important. It reduces attack surface, limits lateral movement, and aligns access with identity, context, and content-aware controls. Therefore, the best answer is granular access from the verified initiator only to the verified application, under the correct risk and content controls.
Content stored within a SaaS/PaaS/IaaS location can be:
100% trusted, as cloud providers make sure content is safe before it is uploaded.
Considered risky until inspected, either through inline SSL/TLS controls or through assessing the files “at rest” using an out-of-band assessment.
Partially trusted depending on whether you maintain a proper audit log for access.
Should never be trusted.
The correct answer is B . In Zero Trust architecture, content stored in Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), or Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environments should not be assumed safe simply because it resides in a cloud platform. Zscaler’s security model emphasizes that trust must be established through inspection and policy , not by location alone. The TLS/SSL inspection architecture shows that inline inspection is necessary to evaluate content moving through encrypted sessions, while Zscaler’s broader data protection model also includes out-of-band assessment for content already stored in cloud services.
This aligns with the Zero Trust principle that applications and content can exist anywhere, but they are not automatically trustworthy because of where they are hosted. Cloud providers secure the platform, but they do not guarantee that every uploaded file, shared object, or stored dataset is safe, compliant, or free from malware or data exposure risk. At the same time, saying content should never be trusted is too absolute; Zero Trust is about verification , not blanket denial. Therefore, the most accurate answer is that cloud-stored content should be treated as risky until inspected , whether inline during transfer or out of band while at rest.
Historically, initiators and destinations have shared which of the following?
A network, because prior to Zero Trust there was no other way to connect the two.
The same IP subnet range.
The same punch card machine, pre-computer.
Physical hard drives and storage.
The correct answer is A . Historically, before modern Zero Trust models were adopted, the normal way to connect a user to an application or service was to place both within a shared network context . This did not always require the exact same subnet, but it did require some level of common routable network connectivity. Legacy architectures assumed that once the user was on the trusted network, or extended into it through technologies such as VPN, they could reach the destination across that network.
Zero Trust architecture changes this assumption. Zscaler’s architectural guidance emphasizes that users should gain access to applications without sharing network context or routing domain with those applications. That is one of the most important distinctions between legacy network-centric security and Zero Trust. The user no longer needs broad network reachability just to get to a specific service. Option B is too narrow because shared access historically did not always mean the same subnet. Options C and D are clearly incorrect. Therefore, the best answer is that initiators and destinations historically shared a network , because legacy connectivity depended on routed network access rather than identity-based, per-application brokerage.
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