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Zscaler ZTCA Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Exam Practice Test

Demo: 22 questions
Total 75 questions

Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Questions and Answers

Question 1

The initial section of Zero Trust, Verify Identity and Context, includes three elements; the first is:

Options:

A.

Who is connecting.

B.

Device posture-based determinations of quarantine.

C.

Integration with third-party threat intelligence feeds.

D.

ML-based application discovery as part of a microsegmentation implementation.

Question 2

What protects Personally Identifiable Information (PII) accidentally shared by a colleague to the entire company?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS inspection.

B.

Verifying identity and context through a secure identity provider.

C.

Data Loss Prevention (out-of-band and inline).

D.

Virtual firewalls.

Question 3

Connections to destination applications are the same, regardless of location or function.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False, each application, whether internal or external, trusted or untrusted, must be considered for connectivity based on the risk profile and risk acceptance of each enterprise.

Question 4

Which crucial step occurs during the “Enforce Policy” stage?

Options:

A.

Connecting an initiator to internal and external applications from the Zero Trust Exchange.

B.

A handshake between the initiator and destination application.

C.

The setup of an enterprise SSO or AD server for credential validation.

D.

Verification of identity and context of the connection.

Question 5

Businesses undertake ________ to increase efficiency, improve agility, and achieve a competitive advantage.

Options:

A.

Digital transformation journeys

B.

Blue teaming exercises

C.

Red teaming exercises

D.

Disaster recovery planning

Question 6

Risk within the Zero Trust Exchange is a dynamic value calculated to:

Options:

A.

Be hashed, truncated, and stored in an obfuscated manner.

B.

Give visibility of risky activity and allow enterprises to set acceptable thresholds of risk.

C.

Provide access to the network.

D.

Reduce processing load by enabling low-risk traffic to bypass less critical inspections.

Question 7

In a Zero Trust architecture, what is required to apply the first levels of control policy decisions?

Options:

A.

Inspection of SSL/TLS connections.

B.

Local breakout so that traffic goes directly to SaaS applications from branches.

C.

Context and Identity.

D.

Segmenting an OT network so that it is air-gapped from the IT environment.

Question 8

In a Zero Trust architecture, how is the connection to an application provided?

Options:

A.

Over any network with per-access control.

B.

By establishing a full network-layer connection.

C.

Through a virtual security appliance stack.

D.

Via secure TLS connections with out-of-band inspection for advanced threats.

Question 9

What is the cause of performance issues for some VPN connections?

Options:

A.

A split tunnel VPN where you break out traffic destined for certain IP addresses to go direct.

B.

VPN vendors throttle network traffic on the overlay by default to reduce overhead on the VPN headend.

C.

Hairpinning cloud application traffic through a data center bottleneck.

D.

Interoperability issues between IPSec standards like IKEv1 and IKEv2.

Question 10

What facilitates constant and uniform application of policy enforcement?

Options:

A.

Open and clear communication channels across Network and Security teams.

B.

The policy remains the same, conditionally, and is applied equally regardless of the location of the enforcement point.

C.

Leveraging policy enforcement capabilities available through traditional security appliances.

D.

Application access happens on-premises, typically either from within the data center or the corporate campus, where large security stacks are deployed.

Question 11

Third parties that can be integrated at the point of Verifying Identity and Context in the Zero Trust process include:

Options:

A.

Open-source SIEM tools such as OSSM and the ELK Stack.

B.

IdPs (Identity Providers) such as Okta and PingFederate, which are used for SSO (Single Sign-On).

C.

Web scalers such as GCP, Azure, and AWS, where cloud workloads are typically hosted.

D.

Data center providers such as Equinix, where customer hardware is typically hosted.

Question 12

As a connection goes through, the Zero Trust Exchange:

Options:

A.

Initiates the three sections of a Zero Trust architecture (Verify, Control, Enforce), which once completed, will allow the Zero Trust Exchange and the application to complete the transaction.

B.

Sits as a ruggedized, hardened appliance in the data center of the enterprise, where the enterprise must establish private links to major peering hubs.

C.

Acts as the opposite of a reverse proxy, inspecting every single packet that goes out, but strictly without the ability to provide controls such as firewalling, intrusion prevention system (IPS), or data loss prevention (DLP).

D.

Forwards packets as a passthrough cloud security firewall.

Question 13

Content inspection of encrypted content at scale is widely available on most network-based security platforms, such as firewalls, to deploy.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 14

The Zscaler Client Connector is:

Options:

A.

A device used to create a secure communication channel with a Web Application Firewall (WAF).

B.

A cloud-managed endpoint device via an MDM solution.

C.

An agent installed on the endpoint to tunnel authorized user traffic to the Zero Trust Exchange for protection of SaaS, private applications, and internet-bound traffic.

D.

A marketplace platform that connects different types of business clients to each other.

Question 15

What options are available to an enterprise whose cybersecurity solution does not provide inline content inspection?

Options:

A.

Leverage the lowest-latency path, which typically involves service chaining to send traffic to a specialized branch where a stack of firewalls is hosted on a rack.

B.

Only view the metadata of a connection, such as who is calling and where they are calling.

C.

Optimize their throughput.

D.

Leverage tremendous cost savings, since TLS/SSL connections have a per-packet premium cost associated with processing them.

Question 16

Connections approved by the Zero Trust Exchange must then enable permanent network-level access for at least 30 days.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 17

Should policy enforcement apply to all traffic, including from authorized initiators?

Options:

A.

A true Zero Trust solution must never allow any access without authorization.

B.

No. It should only apply to unauthorized initiators.

C.

Unauthorized initiators are blackholed by default.

D.

Zero Trust allows all initiators to see the destination, regardless of role and responsibility.

Question 18

What are some of the outputs of dynamic risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Categories, criteria, and insights pertaining to each access request.

B.

A full PCAP of the inline data transfer.

C.

A backup and restore configuration process, run manually during a change window.

D.

An ML/AI-driven engine analyzing and determining application segments after wildcard domains are established.

Question 19

Zero Trust access can work over any type of network.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 20

What is policy enforcement built to enable?

Options:

A.

Network access to all available applications.

B.

Blocking access to applications and the network.

C.

Granular access from the verified initiator only to the verified application, under the correct risk and content controls.

D.

Forwarding traffic on to a virtual DMZ.

Question 21

Content stored within a SaaS/PaaS/IaaS location can be:

Options:

A.

100% trusted, as cloud providers make sure content is safe before it is uploaded.

B.

Considered risky until inspected, either through inline SSL/TLS controls or through assessing the files “at rest” using an out-of-band assessment.

C.

Partially trusted depending on whether you maintain a proper audit log for access.

D.

Should never be trusted.

Question 22

Historically, initiators and destinations have shared which of the following?

Options:

A.

A network, because prior to Zero Trust there was no other way to connect the two.

B.

The same IP subnet range.

C.

The same punch card machine, pre-computer.

D.

Physical hard drives and storage.

Demo: 22 questions
Total 75 questions