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WGU Managing-Cloud-Security WGU Managing Cloud Security (JY02, GZO1) Exam Practice Test

WGU Managing Cloud Security (JY02, GZO1) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which process is implemented during the hardening of an operating system (OS) and its workloads?

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Incident management

C.

Patch management

D.

Security management

Question 2

Which cloud storage architecture allows the digital rights management (DRM) solutions to associate metadata with the materials in storage?

Options:

A.

Object-based

B.

Volume

C.

Relational database

D.

File

Question 3

Which description accurately characterizes the movement of applications to the cloud?

Options:

A.

In a desktop as a service (DaaS) environment, the customer is responsible for securing the underlying infrastructure.

B.

In an infrastructure as a service (IaaS) environment, the CSP is responsible for securing the platform.

C.

In a platform as a service (PaaS) environment, the customer is responsible for securing the underlying infrastructure.

D.

In a software as a service (SaaS) environment, the CSP is responsible for securing the platform.

Question 4

Which cloud storage design is based on a hierarchical system?

Options:

A.

Database

B.

Block

C.

File

D.

Object

Question 5

Which data management activity is considered legal fair use of a copyrighted item?

Options:

A.

Reporting the work on the news

B.

Performing the work publicly

C.

Exporting the work

D.

Broadcasting the work

Question 6

Which cloud infrastructure component employs a hierarchical and distributed database that contains mappings?

Options:

A.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Clustered hosting

D.

Resource sharing

Question 7

An engineer needs to create segmentation using the built-in tools provided by the company's cloud provider. The InfoSec team has given the engineer directions to limit traffic using a security group between two cloud deployments in the organization. Which mechanisms should the engineer use to create this segmentation?

Options:

A.

MAC addresses and protocols

B.

Ports and protocols

C.

Unique identifiers and protocols

D.

Definitions and protocols

Question 8

Which risk mitigation technique will compensate a cloud service customer for failures on the part of the cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objective

B.

Data protection requirements

C.

SLA penalties

D.

Suspension of service clause

Question 9

An organization that primarily uses a remote work model is reviewing the documentation of various insurance providers to become eligible for cybersecurity insurance. Competitive insurance providers require the organization to implement security controls to ensure only authorized personnel can access the network, data, emails, and other administrative information. Which commonly required control should the organization implement before applying for cybersecurity insurance from these competitive insurance providers?

Options:

A.

Network segmentation

B.

Application whitelisting

C.

Multifactor authentication (MFA)

D.

Trusted platform module (TPM)

Question 10

What is the definition of transportable as it relates to cloud contract design requirements?

Options:

A.

Available to be accessed by mobile devices

B.

Able to be moved to another vendor

C.

Available in a proprietary format

D.

Able to be archived quickly

Question 11

Which tier from Uptime Institute's Data Center Site Infrastructure Tier Standards is considered to be the most secure, reliable, and redundant in design and operational elements?

Options:

A.

Tier IV

B.

Tier I

C.

Tier II

D.

Tier III

Question 12

Which characteristic could affect the audit process for a customer of a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Lack of physical access to the cloud infrastructure

B.

Utilization constraints on the bandwidth imposed by the cloud service vendor

C.

Limits for up-time of the hosted system

D.

Restrictions on the data storage options offered by the cloud service provider

Question 13

A breach caused by lack of security management resulted in a civil lawsuit. The organization must communicate with the entity that is responsible for performing adequate oversight. Who should be contacted?

Options:

A.

Cloud customer

B.

IT department

C.

High-level government agencies

D.

Board of director members

Question 14

An organization is reviewing a contract from a cloud service provider and wants to ensure that all aspects of the contract are adhered to by the cloud service provider. Which control will allow the organization to verify that the cloud provider is meeting its obligations?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

Confidential computing

C.

Regulatory oversight

D.

Incident management

Question 15

An organization wants to conduct some of the disaster recovery plan testing with the least possible impact on production. Which method should be used?

Options:

A.

Unit testing

B.

Full test

C.

Dry run test

D.

Tabletop testing

Question 16

Which business area in the enterprise risk management (ERM) strategy is concerned with formal risk assessments when forming new or renewing existing vendor relationships?

Options:

A.

Software development

B.

Procurement

C.

Quality assurance

D.

Marketing

Question 17

Which key management option typically needs to be on-premises and delivers the keys to the cloud over a dedicated connection?

Options:

A.

Hardware security appliance

B.

Hybrid

C.

Virtual appliance

D.

Cloud provider service

Question 18

A warning system identifies an impending disaster. When should failover occur to ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

Prior to the crisis event

B.

During the resumption of normal activities

C.

During the crisis event

D.

Prior to the resumption of normal activities

Question 19

A customer service representative needs to verify a customer's private information, but the representative does not need to see all the information. Which technique should the service provider use to protect the privacy of the customer?

Options:

A.

Hashing

B.

Encryption

C.

Masking

D.

Tokenization

Question 20

Which type of cloud security vulnerability is static application security testing (SAST) likely to find?

Options:

A.

Software misconfiguration

B.

Embedded credentials

C.

Hypervisor vulnerabilities

D.

Run-time vulnerabilities

Question 21

What is a benefit of federated identity and access management (IAM)?

Options:

A.

Use of U.S. federal government identities

B.

Segregation of duties

C.

Disablement of CSP

D.

Use of an organization’s identities

Question 22

Which logical consideration should be addressed when planning the design of a data center?

Options:

A.

Multitenancy of networks

B.

Heating and cooling

C.

Ability for expansion

D.

Utility power availability

Question 23

Which regulation defines requirements for the electronic transfer of healthcare data to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Stark Law

B.

Healthcare Quality Improvement Law

C.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

D.

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

Question 24

Which action should be taken to preserve forensic evidence for collection?

Options:

A.

Implementing serverless architectures

B.

Enabling threat modeling

C.

Pausing the virtual machine

D.

Enforcing mutable servers

Question 25

Which activity is within the scope of the cloud provider’s role in the chain of custody?

Options:

A.

Setting data backup and recovery policies

B.

Collecting and preserving digital evidence

C.

Initiating and executing incident response

D.

Classifying and analyzing data

Question 26

Which steps should an organization take to avoid risk when dealing with software licensing?

Options:

A.

It should ensure it has the correct type of license.

B.

It should ensure it has the correct location to store licenses.

C.

It should ensure it only uses closed-source licenses.

D.

It should ensure it only uses open-source licenses.

Question 27

An organization is informed by its cloud provider that a storage device containing some of the organization’s data has been seized as possible evidence in a court case, but the organization itself is not involved in any ongoing court cases. Which characteristic of a cloud environment architecture makes such a scenario possible?

Options:

A.

Virtualization

B.

Multitenancy

C.

Software as a service (SaaS)

D.

Platform as a service (PaaS)

Question 28

Which phase of the cloud secure data lifecycle is being viewed and processed without modification?

Options:

A.

Store

B.

Create

C.

Use

D.

Share

Question 29

Which type of data sanitization should be used to destroy data on a USB thumb drive while keeping the drive intact?

Options:

A.

Key revocation

B.

Physical destruction

C.

Overwriting

D.

Degaussing

Question 30

Which cloud architecture model provides application development services?

Options:

A.

Security as a Service (SECaaS)

B.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Question 31

Which device is used to create and manage encryption keys used for data transmission in a cloud-based environment?

Options:

A.

Hardware security module (HSM)

B.

Memory controller

C.

RAID controller

D.

Trusted platform module (TPM)

Question 32

An organization consists of many divisions. Its leadership team has gathered the managers and key team members in each division to help create a disaster recovery plan. It studies the type of natural events that commonly occur and the risk involved for each location in which the organization has a data center. What is the leadership team doing in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Performing an asset inventory

B.

Running a disaster declaration process

C.

Identifying the actions

D.

Defining the disaster criteria

Question 33

Which device identifies and stops attack-based commands from executing on a structured query language (SQL) server?

Options:

A.

Host-based firewall

B.

Database activity monitor

C.

Hardware security module

D.

Cloud access and security broker

Question 34

Which technology is increasingly deployed in enterprise environments for applications such as digital tracking of the supply chain?

Options:

A.

Internet of Things

B.

Cloud computing

C.

Big data

D.

Machine learning

Question 35

Which security risk is co-owned by the enterprise team and the cloud provider in the software as a service (SaaS) model?

Options:

A.

Application

B.

Data

C.

Physical

D.

Platform

Question 36

Which phase in secure application design and development includes threat modeling?

Options:

A.

Define

B.

Design

C.

Training

D.

Develop

Question 37

An organization is considering a cloud provider that has multivendor pathway connectivity. What does this feature provide?

Options:

A.

Connections to several electric providers that are not on the same grid

B.

Contracts with fuel providers

C.

Contracts with heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) providers

D.

Connections to several internet service providers

Question 38

Which type of service allows an organization to maximize control of its information?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 39

Which threat modeling process would a security analyst use to test a new application from a malicious actor's perspective?

Options:

A.

Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, and Discoverability (DREAD)

B.

Architecture, Threats, Attack Surfaces, and Mitigation (ATASM)

C.

Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis (PASTA)

D.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privileges (STRIDE)

Question 40

Which section of a contract includes the customer's right to audit the vendor to verify whether the vendor is fulfilling its contractual obligations?

Options:

A.

Assurance

B.

Indemnification

C.

Termination

D.

Litigation

Question 41

Which country lacks a national law assuring individual personal privacy?

Options:

A.

New Zealand

B.

Canada

C.

United States

D.

Israel

Question 42

Which cost is reduced by using software as a service (SaaS)?

Options:

A.

General costs of licensing

B.

Ongoing costs by utilizing a single vendor

C.

Energy costs with optimum use of IT resources

D.

Support costs for hardware and software

Question 43

Which cloud model allows an on-premises data center to use cloud bursting?

Options:

A.

Public

B.

Hybrid

C.

Community

D.

Private

Question 44

An organization needs to provide space where security administrators can centrally monitor network traffic and events and respond to threats or outages. What should the organization create?

Options:

A.

Emergency response team (ERT)

B.

Security operations center (SOC)

C.

Disaster response team (DRT)

D.

Network operations center (NOC)

Question 45

Which risk may be faced by users when using software resources in the platform as a service (PaaS) cloud model?

Options:

A.

Guest escape

B.

Information bleed

C.

Software interoperability

D.

Web application security

Question 46

Which release management term describes the process from code implementation to code review and approval to automated testing and then to production deployment?

Options:

A.

Iteration

B.

Baseline

C.

Pipeline

D.

Framework

Question 47

What is a risk in using the community cloud over the private cloud?

Options:

A.

Lack of virtual instances

B.

Loss of policy control

C.

Loss of trained personnel

D.

Lack of physical resources

Question 48

During a financial data investigation, the investigator is unsure how to handle a specific data set. Which set of documentation should they refer to for detailed steps on how to proceed?

Options:

A.

Policies

B.

Procedures

C.

Legal rulings

D.

Legal definitions

Question 49

Which methodology encompasses conducting tests around the interaction of end users with new code that is intended for a patch?

Options:

A.

Full testing

B.

Nonfunctional testing

C.

Tabletop testing

D.

Functional testing

Question 50

Which tool should a developer use to describe the requirements they have gathered for a code improvement they are tasked with making as part of a current release?

Options:

A.

Cases

B.

Stories

C.

Cookies

D.

Notes

Question 51

Which testing standard is currently used to guide Service Organization Control (SOC) audits outside the United States?

Options:

A.

The Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE) 18

B.

The International Standard on Review Engagements (ISRE) 2400

C.

The Statement on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS) 25

D.

The International Standard on Assurance Engagements (ISAE) 3402

Question 52

Which security threat occurs when authorized users increase their level of access in an unauthorized manner?

Options:

A.

Escalation of privilege

B.

Man-in-the-middle

C.

Role assumption

D.

Segregation of duties

Question 53

Which security strategy is associated with data rights management solutions?

Options:

A.

Persistent protection

B.

Multilevel aggregation

C.

Enhanced detail

D.

Unexpired digital content

Question 54

After selecting a new vendor, what should an organization do next as part of the vendor onboarding process?

Options:

A.

It should terminate the relationship with the vendor and dissolve technical agreements, data transfers, and other connections with the vendor.

B.

It should monitor the practices of the vendor by performing audits and confirming that the vendor is meeting its contractual agreements.

C.

It should evaluate and determine whether the vendor meets the organization's requirements by evaluating its security policies.

D.

It should confirm contractual details and arrange other details such as technical agreements, data transfers, and encryption standards with the vendor.

Question 55

Which characteristic of cloud computing refers to sharing physical assets among multiple customers?

Options:

A.

Rapid scalability

B.

On-demand self-service

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Measured service

Question 56

An organization is sharing personal information that is defined in its privacy policy with a trusted third party. What else should the organization communicate to the trusted third party about the personal information?

Options:

A.

The results of the organization's most recent privacy audit

B.

A notice of any contractual obligations that do not align with the privacy policy

C.

A copy of federal privacy laws regarding unauthorized data disclosure

D.

The organization's privacy policy and handling practices

Question 57

Which business continuity and disaster recovery consideration should be part of a cloud application architecture?

Options:

A.

Architecting for failure

B.

Health status pages

C.

Compliance of applications

D.

Application message queues

Question 58

As part of an e-discovery process, an employee needs to identify all documents that contain a specific phrase. Which type of discovery method should the employee use to identify these documents?

Options:

A.

Location-based

B.

Content-based

C.

Label-based

D.

Metadata-based

Question 59

Which countermeasure should be taken during the containment, eradication, and recovery phase of the incident response lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Validate alerts

B.

Identify training

C.

Build timeline of attack

D.

Take systems offline

Question 60

Which service model requires the most consumer responsibility for security issues?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

C.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Question 61

A company has determined that encryption has too much overhead to work with their system and has identified tokenization as an alternative. During this process, the tokenization server generates the token. Which step should occur immediately after this action?

Options:

A.

Data is sent to the tokenization server.

B.

The application generates a piece of sensitive data.

C.

The tokenization server returns the token to the application.

D.

The application stores the token rather than the original data.