Big Halloween Sale Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70percent

SCDM CCDM Certified Clinical Data Manager Exam Practice Test

Demo: 45 questions
Total 150 questions

Certified Clinical Data Manager Questions and Answers

Question 1

What does 21 CFR Part 11 dictate in regards to a minimum expectation of EDC training prior to access?

Options:

A.

Training must be performed

B.

Training must include an exam

C.

Training must be in the user's native language

D.

Training must be face to face

Question 2

A Data Manager receives an audit finding of missing or undocumented training for two database developers according to the organization's training SOP and matrix. Which is the best response to the audit finding?

Options:

A.

Identify the root cause and improve the process to prevent it

B.

Remove the training items from the training matrix

C.

Reprimand the person responsible for maintaining training documentation

D.

Send the two developers to the required training

Question 3

Which type of edit check would be implemented to check the correctness of data present in a text box?

Options:

A.

Manual Check

B.

Back-end check

C.

Front-end check

D.

Programmed check

Question 4

A Data Manager is asked to manage SOPs for a department. Given equal availability of the following systems, which of the following is the best choice for managing the organizational SOPs?

Options:

A.

Document management system

B.

Customized Excel spreadsheet

C.

Learning management system

D.

Existing paper filing system

Question 5

Which action has the most impact on the performance of a relational database system?

Options:

A.

Entering data into the database from CRFs

B.

Loading a large lab data file into the database

C.

Executing a properly designed database query

D.

Making updates to data previously entered into the database

Question 6

A study takes body-composition measurements at baseline using a DEXA scanner. Which information is needed to correctly associate the body-composition data to the rest of the study data?

Options:

A.

Study number and subject number

B.

Subject number

C.

Study number and visit number

D.

Subject number and visit number

Question 7

Before the EDC system used for the trial is upgraded, what should be the data manager's first task?

Options:

A.

Notify the sites of the upgrade

B.

Update the user manual

C.

Assess the impact on the data

D.

Redesign the eCRF

Question 8

A Data Manager is designing a CRF for a study for which the efficacy data are not covered by the current SDTM domains. Which search should the Data Manager do?

Options:

A.

Use controlled terminology covering the needed concepts

B.

Work with the study team to define new data elements

C.

Search for relevant data element standards

D.

Advise the study team not to collect the data

Question 9

In development of CRF Completion Guidelines (CCGs), which is a minimum requirement?

Options:

A.

CCGs are designed from the perspective of the Study Biostatistician to ensure that the data collected can be analyzed

B.

CCGs must be signed before database closure to include all possible protocol changes affecting CRF completion

C.

CCGs must include a version control on the updated document

D.

CCGs are developed with representatives of Data Management, Biostatistics, and Marketing departments

Question 10

Which protocol section most concisely conveys timing of data collection throughout a study?

Options:

A.

Study endpoints section

B.

Study schedule of events

C.

Protocol synopsis

D.

ICH essential documents

Question 11

In a cross-functional team meeting, a monitor mentions performing source data verification (SDV) on daily diary data entered by patients on mobile devices. Which of the following is the best response?

Options:

A.

All diary data should be source data verified

B.

The diary data should not be source data verified

C.

Diary data to be source data verified should be selected using a risk-based approach

D.

Diary data to be source data verified should be randomly selected

Question 12

A Clinical Data Manager reads a protocol for a clinical trial to test the efficacy of an antiviral to counteract a new epidemic. The stated primary efficacy endpoint is 3-month survival. Which data element is needed for the primary efficacy endpoint?

Options:

A.

Death date

B.

Date of autopsy

C.

Cause of death

D.

Birth date

Question 13

A protocol is updated mid-study to add an additional procedure about which data needs to be collected. Which of these statements applies?

Options:

A.

The DMP should be updated to reflect the changes to the protocol, but this update does not need to be communicated

B.

The DMP should be updated to reflect the changes to the protocol and stakeholders notified

C.

The DMP does not need to be updated as it represents the data at the beginning of the trial only

D.

The DMP does not need to be updated until the end of the trial and all updates are included in the DMP to indicate what happened in the trial

Question 14

A Data Manager is importing lab data for a study. The lab data and the associated audit trail is kept at the central lab. What is necessary to maintain traceability of the transferred data at the Data Manager's location?

Options:

A.

Making changes only after data have been imported

B.

Maintaining a copy of the data as received

C.

Making changes only for exceptions

D.

Making changes only on the copy of the received data

Question 15

A site study coordinator attempts to make an update in a study database in an EDC system after lock. What occurs?

Options:

A.

The old value is replaced in all locations by the new value

B.

The change is approved by the Data Manager before it is applied

C.

The site study coordinator is not able to make the change

D.

The change is logged as occurring after lock

Question 16

Which of the following statements would be BEST included in a data management plan describing the process for making self-evident corrections in a clinical database?

Options:

A.

A senior level data manager may make audited changes to the database without further documentation.

B.

Self-evident corrections made in the database will be reviewed and approved by a team leader or manager.

C.

No changes will be made in the database without a query response signed by the investigator.

D.

Self-evident changes may be made per the listed conventions and documented to the investigative site.

Question 17

For a study, body mass index is calculated from weight and height. Which information is needed to document the transformation?

Options:

A.

Algorithm and algorithm version associated with the calculated value

B.

Algorithm associated with the calculated value

C.

User ID making the change and reason for change

D.

Algorithm documented in the Data Management Plan

Question 18

Which method would best identify inaccuracies in safety data tables for an NDA?

Options:

A.

Compare counts of appropriate patients from manual CRFs to counts in table cells

B.

Compare counts of appropriate patients from line listings of CRF data to counts in table cells

C.

Review the tables to identify any values that look odd

D.

Review the line listings to identify any values that look odd

Question 19

A study has an expected enrollment period of one year but has subject recruitment issues. Twelve new sites are added toward the end of the expected enrollment period to help boost enrollment. What is the most likely impact on data flow?

Options:

A.

The database set-up will need to be changed to allow for additional sites as they are added to the study.

B.

The distribution of subjects selected for quality control will need to be stratified to allow for the twelve new sites.

C.

A bolus of CRFs at the end of the study will result in the need to increase data entry and cleaning rates to meet existing timelines.

D.

Additional sites will likely have increased query rates since site training is occurring closer to study close.

Question 20

Which of the following data verification checks would most likely be included in a manual or visual data review step?

Options:

A.

Checking an entered value against a valid list of values

B.

Checking adverse event treatments against concomitant medications

C.

Checking mandatory fields for missing values

D.

Checking a value against a reference range

Question 21

Which of the following tasks would be reasonable during a major upgrade of a clinical data management system?

Options:

A.

All of the data formats in the archive should be updated to new standards.

B.

The ability to access and read the clinical data archive should be tested.

C.

The data archive should be migrated to an offsite database server.

D.

All of the case report forms should be pulled and compared to the archive.

Question 22

A study team member wants to let sites enroll patients before the system is ready. Which are important considerations?

Options:

A.

Without the ability to capture the data electronically, the data cannot be checked or used to monitor and manage the study

B.

If the study were audited, enrolling subjects prior to having the EDC system ready would become an audit finding

C.

There is no way to identify, report and track adverse events and serious adverse events without the EDC system in place

D.

Starting the study prior to the EDC system being ready will delay processing of milestone-based site payments

Question 23

Which statement is true regarding User Acceptance Testing (UAT) in an EDC application?

Options:

A.

System tools in EDC do not remove the need for UAT

B.

Data should not be collected in a production environment until UAT is completed

C.

Every rule should be tested with at least one "pass" and one "fail" scenario

D.

The extent of UAT (i.e., the number of test cases and rules) cannot be risk-based

Question 24

The result set from the query below would be which of the following?

SELECT * FROM patient WHERE medical_record_number > 9000

Options:

A.

Longer than the patient table

B.

Shorter or of equal length than the patient table

C.

Narrower than the patient table

D.

Wider than the patient table

Question 25

At a cross-functional study team meeting, a statistician suggests collecting blood gases electronically through the existing continuous hemodynamic monitoring system at sites rather than having a person record the values every five minutes during the study procedure. Assuming that sending, receiving, and integrating these data are possible, what is the best response?

Options:

A.

Manual recording is preferred because healthcare devices are not validated to 21 CFR Part 11 standards

B.

Manual recording is preferred because the sites may forget to turn on the machine and lose data

C.

Electronic acquisition is preferable because more data points can be acquired

D.

Electronic acquisition is preferable because the chance for human error is removed

Question 26

Which metric reveals the timeliness of the site-work dimension of site performance?

Options:

A.

Time from Last Patient Last Visit to database lock

B.

Time from final protocol to first patient enrolled

C.

Time from site contract execution to first patient enrolled

D.

Median and range of time from query generation to resolution

Question 27

Which document contains the details of when, to whom, and in what manner the vendor data will be sent?

Options:

A.

Project Plan

B.

Communication Plan

C.

Data Transfer Agreement

D.

Data Management Plan

Question 28

Electronic submission standards require that an individual subject's complete CRF should be provided as what type of file:

Options:

A.

Portable Document Format (.pdf)

B.

Rich Text Format (.rtf)

C.

Microsoft Word (.docx)

D.

Statistical Analysis System (.sas)

Question 29

Which mode of data entry is most commonly used in EDC systems?

Options:

A.

Double entry

B.

Blind verification

C.

Single entry

D.

Third party compare

Question 30

Which competency is necessary for EDC system use in a study using the medical record as the source?

Options:

A.

Screening study subjects

B.

Using ePRO devices

C.

Resolving discrepant data

D.

Training on how to log into Medical Records system

Question 31

Data characterizing the safety profile of a drug are collected to provide information for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Survival curves

B.

Efficacy meta-analyses

C.

Product labeling

D.

Quality of life calculations

Question 32

Which of the following laboratory findings is a valid adverse event reported term that facilitates auto coding?

Options:

A.

Elevated HDL

B.

ALT

C.

Abnormal SGOT

D.

Increased alkaline phosphatase, increased SGPT, increased SGOT, and elevated LDH

Question 33

Which information should an auditee expect prior to an audit?

Options:

A.

Auditor's credentials and certification number

B.

Corrective action requests

C.

Standard operating procedures

D.

Audit plan or agenda

Question 34

Which data are needed to monitor site variability in eligibility screening?

Options:

A.

Number of sites with low enrollment

B.

Number of subjects screened and number of subjects enrolled

C.

Number of subjects enrolled

D.

Number of sites with high enrollment

Question 35

There is a modification to the CRF and a sudden increase in the number of queries generated in the EDC system. Which action is most likely to reduce the number of queries?

Options:

A.

Make some of the existing edit checks manually

B.

Introduce a source data verification process

C.

Review the edit checks for correctness

D.

Have the monitor close the queries

Question 36

The result set from the query below would be which of the following?

SELECT Pt_ID, MRN, SSN FROM patient

Options:

A.

Wider than the patient table

B.

Shorter than the patient table

C.

Longer than the patient table

D.

Narrower than the patient table

Question 37

ePRO data are collected for a study using study devices given to subjects. Which is the most appropriate quality control method for the data?

Options:

A.

Programmed edit checks to detect out of range values after submission to the database

B.

Manual review of data by the site study coordinator at the next visit

C.

Data visualizations to look for site-to-site variation

D.

Programmed edit checks to detect out of range values upon data entry

Question 38

QA is conducting an audit on a study for ophthalmology which is ready for lock. Inconsistencies are found between the database and the source. Of the identified fields containing potential data errors, which fields are considered critical for this particular study?

Options:

A.

Subject Identifier

B.

Concomitant Medications

C.

Weight

D.

Medical History

Question 39

According to ICH E6, developing a Monitoring Plan is the responsibility of whom?

Options:

A.

Sponsor

B.

CRO

C.

Data Manager

D.

Monitor

Question 40

Which is the best reason why front-end checks are usually kept minimal, when compared to back-end checks, in a paper-based clinical study?

Options:

A.

Data entry staff should be able to enter a value into the database just as it appears in the paper CRF

B.

There is no need to alert the site personnel immediately about a data issue, as the study has happened already

C.

There are approvals required to raise a Data Clarification Form which could take time

D.

Data review can be performed at a later time due to the paper-based studies being smaller in size

Question 41

When reviewing local lab data from a paper study, a Data Manager notices there are lab values not entered. What should the Data Manager request data-entry personnel do?

Options:

A.

Flag the module for review

B.

Call the patient to verify the information

C.

Issue a query

D.

Nothing

Question 42

During a database audit, it was determined that there were more errors than expected. Who is responsible for assessing the overall impact on the analysis of the data?

Options:

A.

Data Manager

B.

Statistician

C.

Quality Auditor

D.

Investigator

Question 43

A study is using blood pressure as an efficacy measure. Which is the best way to collect the data?

Options:

A.

Collecting the data from the medical record

B.

Measurement using existing equipment at sites

C.

Measurement using study-provisioned equipment

D.

Asking the study subjects what their blood pressure usually runs

Question 44

A Data Manager is establishing a timeline for database lock for a 100-person study where the data have been maintained almost all clean throughout the study. All data from external labs have been received and reconciled. Which is the best estimate of the amount of time needed to lock the database after Last Patient Last Visit?

Options:

A.

A few hours

B.

A few days

C.

A few months

D.

A few weeks

Question 45

Which document describes what study subjects expect with respect to data disclosure during and after a study?

Options:

A.

Study data sharing plan

B.

ICH essential documents

C.

Informed consent form

D.

Study protocol

Demo: 45 questions
Total 150 questions