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Scaled Agile SAFe-RTE SAFe-RTE - SAFe Release Train Engineer (RTE) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 27 questions
Total 180 questions

SAFe-RTE - SAFe Release Train Engineer (RTE) Questions and Answers

Question 1

During the management review and problem-solving meeting, one team raises the risk of not finishing a Feature before the end of the Program Increment (PI). How can the man-agement team help ensure they complete the Feature within the PI?

Options:

A.

Use buffer resources as a guard band

B.

Redefine the definition of done for Features

C.

ROAM the risk appropriately

D.

Negotiate a reduction in scope of the Feature

Question 2

What is one purpose of iterations?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate the increment to stakeholders

B.

To provide fast feedback learning cycles and frequent integration

C.

To provide a regular cadence for producing increments of value

D.

To provide an architectural basis for future development

Question 3

An Agile Release Train (ART) is frequently discovering compatibility issues between the developed Solution and the Enterprise information architecture. What can the Release Train Engineer do to prevent this from occurring?

Options:

A.

Develop more detailed Feature definitions

B.

Add data Architects onto the ART

C.

Confirm attendance of architectural representatives at Program Increment (PI) Planning

D.

Conduct the entire data architecture design upfront

Question 4

What is a characteristic of an effective Scrum Master?

Options:

A.

Gives open, honest opinions

B.

Removes all conflict

C.

As a technical expert

D.

Understands customer needs

Question 5

Some teams are having difficulty identifying where they might make process improve-ments. How might the RTE support them?

Options:

A.

Encourage the team to perform regular self-assessments and discuss findings

B.

Conduct a survey to identify the worst problems the team is having

C.

Observe the team's ceremonies and share observations

D.

Run longer I&A meetings to brainstorm improvement items

Question 6

Product Management is expected to collaborate in planning the amount of upcoming En-abler work by establishing what?

Options:

A.

Completed Epic acceptance criteria

B.

Capacity allocation

C.

Team Backlog prioritization

Question 7

What is the recommended duration of an Iteration in SAFe?

Options:

A.

Three weeks

B.

Two weeks

C.

Four weeks

D.

Six weeks

Question 8

Which two items should be kept under version control? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Test data

B.

Scrum of scrum results

C.

Weighted shortest job first outcomes

D.

Archived User Stories

E.

Configuration Items

Question 9

Which statement is true about scrum?

Options:

A.

lt is an ideal method for static design requirements

B.

lt is a team-based framework

C.

lt is a Lean system engineering technique

D.

lt is a set of technical software practices

Question 10

What does an effective Scrum Master help the team with?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Team metrics

C.

Relentless improvement

D.

Deploying work

Question 11

A Release Train Engineer (RTE) would like to try a new retrospective technique at the next Inspect and Adapt event. However, the RTE is unsure how to prepare for it and thinks there may be some pitfalls. How could an RTE get help?

Options:

A.

Share and receive feedback from other RTEs in a community of practice

B.

Post it in an internal communications forum and inspire others to try this technique as well

C.

Ask leadership to decide whether or not this technique should be used with the Agile Release Train

D.

Start a discussion with the Architects to see how they would re-design the retro-spectives

Question 12

Which two behaviors should a Scrum Master represent as a coach? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Provide subject matter expertise

B.

Lay out the team's plan for the iteration

C.

Encourage the team to learn from their mistakes

D.

Set long-term goals for the team

E.

Focus on deadlines and technical options

Question 13

A group of developers, Scrums Masters, and Product Owners are interested in sharing knowledge and learning more about DevOps concepts. How can the Release Train Engi-neer help them collaborate to gain knowledge about DevOps?

Options:

A.

Align them with the System Team

B.

Help them launch a DevOps community of practice

C.

Schedule a DevOps bi-weekly synchronization

D.

Provide Devops training

Question 14

When should a Product Owner (PO) develop preliminary Iteration Goals?

Options:

A.

After PI Planning

B.

During PI Planning

C.

Prior to iteration planning

D.

During backlog refinement

Question 15

Which tool is useful in facilitating scrum of scrums meetings?

Options:

A.

Microsoft project schedule

B.

Agile lifecycle management software

C.

Program board

D.

Team velocity comparison report

Question 16

The business must depend on the team for what in order to do any meaningful planning?

Options:

A.

Team capabilities

B.

Commitment to the plan

C.

Measurements

D.

A cross-functional skill set

Question 17

When should Agile Teams make time for innovation?

Options:

A.

Continuously throughout the Program Increment

B.

When there are Enabler Stories in the Backlog

C.

At a consistent time each day during the Iteration

Question 18

What is ultimately intended to be supported by the use of a Program board?

Options:

A.

Problem solving

B.

Program predictability

C.

Feature delivery

D.

Dependency review

Question 19

When does the Plan-Do-Check-Adjust cycle occur in scrum?

Options:

A.

As part of the lteration retrospective

B.

In the daily stand-up

C.

At the lteration review

D.

A cross all scrum events

Question 20

What is an input to the Program Increment Planning process that highlights how Product Management plans to accomplish the Vision?

Options:

A.

Top ten Features

B.

Top 20 Features

C.

Business context

D.

Program board

Question 21

How does SAFe handle the 'fear of conflict' team dysfunction?

Options:

A.

Reviews results at the end of every iteration

B.

Avoids discussion of disagreements

C.

Has teams engage in retrospectives

D.

Uses scrum to create a safe environment for conflict

Question 22

What are two benefits of having a team definition of done? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

To measure the team's capacity to load ratio

B.

To increase predictability

C.

To collect team performance metrics

D.

To improve quality

E.

To gauge team predictability

Question 23

In what way is a value stream map different from a process flow?

Options:

A.

A value stream map uncovers local problems in functional organizations

B.

A value stream map measures the flow of value and identifies bottlenecks for improvement

C.

A value stream map is used to define Solution Context

D.

A value stream map can be operational or developmental; process flows are only operational

Question 24

What are two common PI Planning anti-patterns? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Stories are created for the Iterations

B.

The team decides which changes need to happen and when

C.

Too much time is spent analyzing each Story

D.

Scrum Masters who work with multiple teams do not have time for their teams

E.

Too much time is spent prioritizing Features

Question 25

What is the best way for a Release Train Engineer to support teams having challenges with problem identification and decision making?

Options:

A.

By providing solution ideas

B.

By changing team composition

C.

By listening to the team

D.

By escalating to senior management

Question 26

At which two stages will the Agile Release Train (ART) act as a one-team culture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Performing - Creating a flow of knowledge across the teams and the ART

B.

Norming - Teams begin to form communities

C.

Storming - Fostering continuous improvement

D.

Collaborating - Pairing and sharing across the ART

E.

Forming - The leaders will start to emerge

Question 27

What are two responsibilities of the Release Train Engineer during Program Increment (PI) execution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

To facilitate the System Demo

B.

To escalate and track impediments

C.

To formulate and direct decisions on risks

D.

To make decisions on resource issues for critical bottlenecks

E.

To direct the management of the communities of practice

Demo: 27 questions
Total 180 questions