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PMI PMI-002 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Exam Practice Test

Demo: 112 questions
Total 748 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

Question 1

A contract cannot contain _____________.

Options:

A.

Illegal activities

B.

deadline for the completion of the work

C.

Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 2

Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?

Options:

A.

The project manager

B.

The project sponsor

C.

The Team lead

D.

The nianagement

Question 3

If a project with a CPI of 1.2, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

B.

The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.

C.

The project is falling behind.

D.

The project is running ahead of schedule.

Question 4

The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called ___________.

Options:

A.

Project time management

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Monitoring and controlling

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 5

You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200,000 and is expected to last 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule. What is the BAC?

Options:

A.

$-00,000

B.

$200,00

C.

$50,000

D.

None of the above

Question 6

You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This means that your project __________.

Options:

A.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

B.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

C.

Resources are being assigned to other areas of the business

D.

None of the above

Question 7

What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?

Options:

A.

CPF

B.

CPFF

C.

CPIF

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 8

Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contractor team in a fourth country. What tool would optimize communication?

Options:

A.

Extranet-based electronic document repository

B.

Manual filing system

C.

War loom

D.

Verbal

Question 9

______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

Options:

A.

Control Scope system

B.

VeiirV Scope

C.

Scope Charter

D.

Scope Management plan

Question 10

Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?

Options:

A.

Formal acceptance

B.

WBS template

C.

sow acceptance

D.

Rework

Question 11

Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of ____________.

Options:

A.

Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project

B.

Integral parts of the SOW

C.

Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment

D.

Project selection methods

Question 12

A Risk Register is a part of the ________.

Options:

A.

Project Scope Statement

B.

Project Management plan

C.

Project Scheduling plan

D.

Project Charter

Question 13

Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______.

Options:

A.

True, real, or certain

B.

True, real, or uncertain

C.

Real

D.

Verbal

Question 14

In PMBOK, the buyer is ________ to the project team.

Options:

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Outside

D.

Assigned

Question 15

Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start, and start-to-finish)?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

Question 16

When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to predict estimate. What type of estimation method are you using?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Bottom-up estimating

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 17

Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Manage project team

C.

Quality control

D.

Manage Scope statement

Question 18

You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is ___________.

Options:

A.

Bad practice

B.

Unprofessional practice

C.

Bacl f°r both tne buyer and seller

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 19

Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Sponsor

C.

Team Lead

D.

Management

Question 20

The project management plan:

Options:

A.

Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated

B.

Steps needed to complete a project task

C.

Prepared at the beginning and fixed throughout the execution of the project

D.

Includes project charter

Question 21

Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________.

Options:

A.

Work Breakdown Structure

B.

sow

C.

Project Charter

D.

Project Scope Statement

Question 22

You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM failing to live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do?

Options:

A.

You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding

B.

Confront the person immediately

C.

Ignore the rumours

D.

^ass the rumours along

Question 23

_______ is the road map for the execution of the project.

Options:

A.

Project plan

B.

sow

C.

WBS

D.

Strategic planning

Question 24

The process to change a contract clause is _______ the project change control system.

Options:

A.

Not related to

B.

An input to

C.

The same as

D.

Integrated within

Question 25

18 You are the project manager of a software company. As software development can be very chaotic, your company has decided to follow a more rigorous approach to software development. Specifically your company has chosen to adopt the extreme programming XP methodology for your current software project. The XP methodology is highly iterative, and produces numerous deliverables include UML diagrams, architecture diagrams, prototypes and test-cases. Assume you are in the Sequence Activities phase of the project. Which of the following sequencing methods should you use to identify the logical relationships between tasks, so that the activities can be sequenced correctly?

Options:

A.

ADM

B.

PDM

C.

GEPT

D.

A0A

Question 26

The MOST important selection criterion to select a project manager for a large project in a technical industry is:

Options:

A.

Communication and Integration skills.

B.

Specific technical specialization.

C.

Financial management experience.

D.

Industry and business experience.

Question 27

The Person primarily responsible for the quality of deliverables is the.

Options:

A.

Quality control inspector.

B.

Project manager.

C.

Design engineer.

D.

Quality manager.

Question 28

The cost effective rule for shortening a project is to crash the:

Options:

A.

Critical tasks-

B.

Non-critical tasks.

C.

Tasks with lowest cost.

D.

Tasks with highest cost.

Question 29

A project Control Scope system is documented during the ______ process.

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

Question 30

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Documenting and meeting the requirements

B.

Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

C.

Documenting and meeting the performance measurements

D.

Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate

Question 31

After preparing a probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, the estimate with a 20% probability of being exceeded is approximately one standard deviation:

Options:

A.

Below the mean.

B.

Above the mean.

C.

Below the median.

D.

Above the median.

Question 32

Developing alternative activity sequences is an example of:

Options:

A.

Polling wave.

B.

Risk aversion.

C.

Rework.

D.

Contingency planning.

Question 33

During project integration activities, a project sponsor's role can best be described as doing which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues

B.

Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholders

C.

Showing management the project progress and status reports

D.

None

Question 34

Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is an example of which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Scope creep

B.

Change control

C.

Quality Assurance

D.

Integrated Change Control

Question 35

All of the statements regarding control accounts and planning packages are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Control accounts and planning packages are tools and techniques of Develop Schedule process.

B.

A control account is an assigned WBS level used to monitor cost and schedule performance of significant element of work.

C.

Planning packages reflect a future segment of work within a control account that has not yet been decomposed into detailed work packages.

D.

As work becomes more clearly defined, planning packages are converted into work packages.

Question 36

To verify if the scope of the project is being met (Verify Scope), it is necessary to:

Options:

A.

Ensure that changes to project character are reflected in the definition.

B.

Conduct periodic inspections, reviews, and walk-throughs .

C.

Verify the project schedule is on track.

D.

Define causes and symptoms of identified problem.

Question 37

Which of the following are not essential for project close out ?

Options:

A.

Documenting formal acceptance of the product.

B.

Documenting the lessons learned

C.

Documenting the final project scope

Question 38

A primary function of the change control board is to:

Options:

A.

Review the impact of change request.

B.

Issue change requests.

C.

Identify new areas of project work.

D.

None

Question 39

You are the project manager and are considering recommending a project that costs $280,000; expected inflows are $10,000 per quarter for the first two years and then $25,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the payback period?

Options:

A.

48 months

B.

40 months

C.

36 months

D.

50 months

Question 40

Comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk; all occur during a:

Options:

A.

Project audit.

B.

Contract negotiation.

C.

Stakeholder meeting.

D.

Resource leveling activity.

Question 41

A project is considered successful when

Options:

A.

the project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders

B.

the product of the project has been manufactured

C.

the project sponsor announces the completion of the project

D.

None

Question 42

You have been assigned to a project where the objective is to create a new building. You are in charge of the demolition phase of this project, and you report to the project manager in charge of this project. You have been hired on contract and will be released at the completion of the demolition phase. What type of organizational structure you are working for?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Weak matrix organization

C.

Balanced matrix organization

D.

Functional organization

Question 43

What type of organizational structure usually experiences the MOST team nervousness at project close-out?

Options:

A.

Weak matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

Question 44

The stakeholder's influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.

Options:

A.

beginning

B.

closing

C.

controlling

D.

none

Question 45

With respect to earned value analysis, which of the following is the value of work actually completed?

Options:

A.

Actual Cost (AC)

B.

planed Value (PV)

C.

Cost Variance (CV)

D.

Earned Value (EV)

Question 46

Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation can be directly reduced by:

Options:

A.

Studying scatter diagrams.

B.

Increasing the number of quality inspectors.

C.

Improving the overall system of production.

D.

Identifying patterns of variance.

Question 47

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding various Activity Scheduling tools?

Options:

A.

PDM allows for conditional branching and iteration of activities.

B.

PDM uses activity-on-node (AON) diagramming method.

C.

PDM allows for conditional branching and iteration of activities.

D.

PDM uses analogous methods as an estimation technique.

Question 48

________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.

Options:

A.

Project performance

B.

Stakeholder requirements

C.

Schedule progress

D.

Cost and schedule

Question 49

Which of the following is not a process of Project Communications Management?

Options:

A.

Administrative Closure

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Conflict Resolution

Question 50

Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers. Functional managers and project managers share authority and responsibility for projects.

Options:

A.

Innovation

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Just in time

D.

Paradigm

Question 51

The receiver filters messages based on all but the following:

Options:

A.

Culture

B.

Semantics

C.

Language

D.

Distance

Question 52

The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards is called _______________.

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance

B.

Quality Control

C.

plan Quality

D.

Quality Review

Question 53

Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract?

Options:

A.

The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does not have.

B.

The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort.

C.

The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor.

D.

Both A and c

Question 54

Which of the following is true concerning evaluation criteria?

Options:

A.

Can often be found in procurement documents

B.

Can be objective or subjective

C.

Used to rate or score proposals

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 55

A contingency plan is ______________.

Options:

A.

A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event occurs

B.

A workaround

C.

A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part

D.

Both A and c

Question 56

Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?

Options:

A.

Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction.

B.

Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to achieve personal objectives.

C.

Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation.

D.

A definitive resolution is seldom achieved.

Question 57

A cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF) contract has an estimated cost of $150,000 with a predetermined fee of $15,000 and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. How much profit does the seller make?

Options:

A.

$31,000

B.

$19,000

C.

$15,000

D.

None of the above

Question 58

The concept that it is easier and less costly to do the work right the first time is called _______________.

Options:

A.

Zero defects

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

DTRTRTFT

D.

The customer is the next person in the process

Question 59

Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are considered _____________.

Options:

A.

Project selection methods

B.

Project selection criteria

C.

A form of expert judgment

D.

A form of historical information

Question 60

A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Autocratic

B.

Consultation In a group

C.

Consensus

D.

One-to-one consultation

Question 61

Which of the following is not a process of project human resource management?

Options:

A.

Organizational Planning

B.

staff Acquisition

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Team Development

Question 62

Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection?

Options:

A.

Weighting system

B.

Screening system

C.

Selecting system

D.

None of the above

Question 63

Which of the following is not an input into organizational planning?

Options:

A.

Recruitment practices

B.

Project interfaces

C.

Staffing requirements

D.

Constraints

Question 64

Which of the following is true regarding NPV?

Options:

A.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.

B.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.

C.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.

D.

NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.

Question 65

Which of the following statements is false?

Options:

A.

Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end.

B.

The amount at stake Is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start.

C.

Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the risk event value.

D.

Opportunities are positive outcomes of risk.

Question 66

Which of the following statements concerning bottom-up estimating is true?

Options:

A.

The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work items.

B.

Smaller work items increase both cost and accuracy.

C.

Larger work items increase both cost and accuracy.

D.

Both A and B are true

Question 67

Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes except ______________.

Options:

A.

Risk Quantification

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Risk Analysis

D.

Risk Response Development

Question 68

A schedule activity may start 5 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of ______________.

Options:

A.

Finish-to-Start

B.

Finish-to-Finish

C.

Start-to-Start

D.

Start-to-Finish

Question 69

Which of the following statements concerning acceptance sampling is false?

Options:

A.

Used when expensive and time-consuming to test the product 100%.

B.

The number of allowable defects before lot is rejected is predetermined.

C.

Inspection and test standards must be established to ensure that procedures can adequately determine conformance and non-conformance.

D.

All of the above are true.

Question 70

During the execution phase, a resource is added to the project team. What effect will this have on the project?

Options:

A.

The effect cannot be determined

B.

The project duration will be shortened

C.

A scope change will be required

D.

The quality of the project will be increased

Question 71

Who is the person responsible for obtaining funding for a new project's conceptual study?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

President

C.

Chief financial officer

D.

Project sponsor

Question 72

___________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Project performance

C.

Schedule progress

D.

Cost and schedule

Question 73

The communications management plan is primarily dependent on the ____________.

Options:

A.

Length of the project

B.

Physical location of team members

C.

Specific needs of the project

D.

Project deliverables

Question 74

Techniques for conducting product analysis include:

Options:

A.

Technical benefit analysis

B.

Value engineering

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Alternatives identification

Question 75

Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection?

Options:

A.

Weighting System

B.

Screening System

C.

Selecting System

D.

None of the above

Question 76

Which of the following are not functions of the project kick off meeting?

Options:

A.

Identifying project goals

B.

Obtaining commitment

C.

Presenting the project cost

D.

Introducing the stakeholders

Question 77

A Strong Matrix is _____.

Options:

A.

A balanced matrix organization

B.

Where all team members are brought together in one location

C.

Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own departments and to the project manager

D.

Power reset with Functional Manager

Question 78

The principle states that "Employees who believe that their efforts will lead to effective performance and who anticipate important rewards for their accomplishments become productive stay productive." This principle illustrates which of the following theory?

Options:

A.

Expectancy theory

B.

Maslow theory

C.

Herzberg theory

D.

None

Question 79

Which of the following is not a process of Project Communications Management?

Options:

A.

Identify stakeholders

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Conflict Management

Question 80

Which of the following is not an input into organizational planning?

Options:

A.

Recruitment practices

B.

Project interfaces

C.

Staffing requirements

D.

Constraints

Question 81

Decomposition is ___________.

Options:

A.

What happens when changes to the project scope are ignore

B.

Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components

C.

Defining a general product description into more discrete definitions of individual components

D.

Subdividing the project into logical divisions of effort aligned within the performing organization's functional areas

Question 82

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the _______.

Options:

A.

Owner

B.

Sponsor

C.

Customer

D.

client

Question 83

Which of the following is part of the expectancy theory of motivation?

Options:

A.

Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members

B.

Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills and the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and achieving a sense

of competence

C.

People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to successful results and that success will lead to personal rewards

D.

None of the above

Question 84

A cost management plan is ______________.

Options:

A.

A plan for describing how cost variances will be managed

B.

A subsidiary element of the project charter

C.

An input to the Estimate Costs process

D.

Both A and C

Question 85

What impact does a matrix organization have on project team development?

Options:

A.

No impact at all

B.

It complicates team development

C.

It simplifies team development

D.

It hinders team development completely

Question 86

80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of ___________.

Options:

A.

Edward Deming

B.

PhiliP Crosby

C.

Juran

D.

Pareto

Question 87

Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be prepared and distributed during which of the following process?

Options:

A.

Distribute Information

B.

Administrative Closure

C.

Organizational Planning

D.

Report Performance

Question 88

Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out plan?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

Question 89

A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Run Chart

B.

Trend Analysis

C.

Outliers

D.

Cycle

Question 90

Estimated at Completion is determined by ___________.

Options:

A.

ETC + ACWP

B.

BAC - ETC

C.

BAC/CPI

D.

Both A and C

Question 91

The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence of the other is called _______.

Options:

A.

Event phenomenon

B.

Independent probability

C.

Statistical independence

D.

Statistical probability

Question 92

The most effective method in developing a project team within a matrix organization is to follow the ________.

Options:

A.

Communications plan

B.

Control Scope plan

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Training development plan

Question 93

Which process is not included in the Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Develop Schedule and Control Schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 94

Inputs of Develop Project Team include all EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Project staff

B.

Reward and recognition systems

C.

Resource calendars

D.

Project plan

Question 95

Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect project objectives.

Options:

A.

Likely events

B.

Complex activities

C.

Complex schedules

D.

Uncertain occurrences

Question 96

A Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs process

B.

Determine Budget process

C.

Control Costs process

D.

None

Question 97

In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Balanced Matrix organization

C.

Strong Matrix

D.

Weak Matrix organization

Question 98

Which of the following is NOT output of Qualitative Risk Analysis ?

Options:

A.

R'sk Register updates

B.

Root Cause Analysis

C.

R'sk Urgency Assessment

D.

Risk Categorization

Question 99

Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which Sequence Activities technique ?

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]

B.

Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

C.

Fragment Network

D.

All of the above

Question 100

A Trend Analysis is best described as:

Options:

A.

Examining project performance over time

B.

Calculating Earned Value

C.

Calculating Cost Variance

D.

Analyzing performance of similar projects over time

Question 101

The process that is not a part of time management is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Resource Planning

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Sequence Activities

Question 102

Change requests should be ______ ?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Interesting

C.

Short

D.

None

Question 103

The process of identifying and defining a product or a service is called:

Options:

A.

Procurement planning

B.

Source selection

C.

Contract administration

D.

Contract closeout

Question 104

Risk event is the description of what may happen to the _____ of the project.

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

harm

C.

Schedul

D.

Budget

Question 105

What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no slack?

Options:

A.

Lots of free float

B.

Idle resources

C.

Negative float

D.

Positive float

Question 106

Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?

Options:

A.

Contract negotiation

B.

Weighting system

C.

Payment system

D.

Screening system

Question 107

Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :

Options:

A.

Start-to-Finish

B.

Finish-to-Start

C.

Start-to-Start

D.

Finish-to-Finish

Question 108

A Reserve Analysis involves:

Options:

A.

Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate

B.

Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates

C.

Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk

D.

Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates

Question 109

A RAM is:

Options:

A.

Random access memory

B.

Rapid and movement

C.

Responsibilities and methods

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix

Question 110

Contract close out contains:

Options:

A.

Contract documentation

B.

Procurement audits

C.

Formal acceptance and closure

D.

All of the above

Question 111

You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?

Options:

A.

$600

B.

$1200

C.

$3000

D.

$100

Question 112

Another term for top down estimating is:.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

Demo: 112 questions
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