Independence Day Special Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: netdisc

PMI PMI-001 Project Management Professional v5 Exam Practice Test

Demo: 137 questions
Total 919 questions

Project Management Professional v5 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following tools and techniques are utilized in the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Product analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Inspection

Question 2

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Question 3

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 4

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Question 5

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

Question 6

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

Question 7

During which process would you obtain stakeholders’ formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Quality control

B.

Scope verification

C.

Scope control

D.

Close project

Question 8

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

Question 9

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

Question 10

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Question 11

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Question 12

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

Question 13

Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Question 14

When is a project finished?

Options:

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

Question 15

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

Question 16

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

Options:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

Question 17

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 18

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Question 19

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

Question 20

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

Options:

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

Question 21

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

Question 22

What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question 23

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question 24

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Question 25

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Question 26

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

Question 27

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

Question 28

The person assigned by the performing organization to be responsible for achieving the project objectives is the:

Options:

A.

functional manager

B.

program manager

C.

project manager

D.

portfolio manager

Question 29

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Question 30

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

Options:

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

Question 31

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Question 32

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

Options:

A.

Change control plan

B.

Stakeholder register

C.

Risk log

D.

Communications management plan

Question 33

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

Options:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Question 34

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

Options:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

Question 35

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

Options:

A.

Issue log

B.

Change log

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Change requests

Question 36

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question 37

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

Options:

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

Question 38

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Question 39

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

Question 40

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Cost forecasting

C.

Cost variance

D.

Cost budgeting

Question 41

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

Question 42

What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers become more involved.

Question 43

What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Question 44

Which of the following are the components of the scope baseline?

Options:

A.

Project charter, project scope statement, and work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Project charter, project management plan, and plan procurement

C.

Project scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and WBS dictionary

D.

Project management plan, plan procurement, and contract administration

Question 45

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

Question 46

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Question 47

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

Question 48

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

Question 49

Which standard examines an enterprise’s project management process capabilities?

Options:

A.

PMBOK Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model “OPMJ

D.

The Standard for Portfolio Management

Question 50

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Question 51

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

Question 52

Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?

Options:

A.

Project managers

B.

Stakeholders

C.

Functional managers

D.

Sponsors

Question 53

Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question 54

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Question 55

One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is:

Options:

A.

planned, designed, and built in.

B.

planned, designed, and inspected in.

C.

built in, created, and reviewed.

D.

built in, created, and standardized.

Question 56

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Question 57

Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk’s probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?

Options:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

B.

Risk probability and impact

C.

Qualitative risk analysis

D.

Risk response planning

Question 58

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

Options:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

Question 59

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

Question 60

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Question 61

Who is responsible for reviewing change requests and approving or rejecting the change requests?

Options:

A.

Change control board

B.

Project manager

C.

Project management office

D.

Project sponsor

Question 62

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

Options:

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

Question 63

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

Options:

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Question 64

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.

Teaming agreements

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

Question 65

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

Question 66

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Efficient

B.

Effective

C.

Push

D.

Pull

Question 67

Which of the following will provide the basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, and monitoring and controlling project work?

Options:

A.

Activities

B.

Milestone list

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Work packages

Question 68

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Administer Procurements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 69

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

Options:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

Question 70

Which of the following is an example of push communication?

Options:

A.

Intranet sites

B.

Video conferencing

C.

Knowledge repositories

D.

Press releases

Question 71

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

Question 72

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 73

The traditional organization chart structure that can be used to show positions and relationships in a graphic top-down format is called a:

Options:

A.

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) chart.

B.

Matrix-based chart.

C.

Human resource chart.

D.

Hierarchical-type chart.

Question 74

Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?

Options:

A.

Recommended corrective actions

B.

Recommended preventive actions

C.

Risk audits

D.

Risk reassessments

Question 75

Which of the following is a component of three-point estimates?

Options:

A.

Probabilistic

B.

Most likely

C.

Expected

D.

Anticipated

Question 76

Which document describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results?

Options:

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Request for proposal

D.

Request for quote

Question 77

Issue change requests and adapt approved changes into the project’s scope, plans, and environment is an activity included in which of the following project management processes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

Question 78

Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work days. What should be your concern?

Options:

A.

There is a cost under run.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

May not meet deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Question 79

What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

Question 80

A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

Options:

A.

Risk monitoring and controlling

B.

Risk response planning

C.

Qualitative risk analysis

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

Question 81

What’s budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring & Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Question 82

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

Question 83

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

Question 84

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

Options:

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Question 85

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 86

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

Options:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Question 87

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Question 88

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Question 89

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

Options:

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

Question 90

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

Question 91

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

16

Question 92

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Question 93

Which items are components of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Question 94

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

Options:

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

Question 95

Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Plan

B.

Project Schedule Network

C.

Project Management Software

D.

Project Scope Management Plan

Question 96

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 97

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

Options:

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

Question 98

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Question 99

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question 100

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

Question 101

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 102

At which stage of the project should certain factors such as the unavailability of human resources due to constraint be considered?

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Execution

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 103

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

Question 104

Which quality planning tools and techniques are used to visually identify logical groupings based on natural relationships?

Options:

A.

Force field diagrams

B.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

C.

Affinity diagrams

D.

Nominal group techniques

Question 105

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Question 106

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

Options:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

Question 107

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

Question 108

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

Options:

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

Question 109

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

Question 110

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

Question 111

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

Options:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

Question 112

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

Question 113

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

Question 114

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question 115

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question 116

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

Question 117

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

Options:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

Question 118

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

Question 119

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

Question 120

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Options:

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

Question 121

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Question 122

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

Options:

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

Question 123

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 124

Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?

Options:

A.

Schedule Analysis

B.

Checklist Analysis

C.

Assumption Analysis

D.

Cost-Benefit Analysis

Question 125

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

Options:

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

Question 126

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

Question 127

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Question 128

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 129

Stakeholder management strategy is an output of:

Options:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Distribute Information.

C.

Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

Question 130

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 131

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

Question 132

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

Question 133

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

Question 134

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Question 135

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

Options:

A.

project staff assignments

B.

project tea m acquisition

C.

managing conflicting interests

D.

communication methods

Question 136

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

Options:

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

Question 137

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Options:

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

Demo: 137 questions
Total 919 questions