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PMI CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 399 questions
Total 1250 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What benefit does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process offer?

Options:

A.

Allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders

B.

Maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environment changes

C.

Provides an actionable plan to interact effectively with stakeholders

D.

Enables the project team to identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder or group of stakeholders

Question 2

For a 10-day project, activity B ' s duration is three days, and activity C’s duration is two days What is the duration of activity A if activities B and C are performed in parallel?

Options:

A.

3 days

B.

5 days

C.

7 days

D .10 days

Question 3

After defining activities in project schedule management, which processes should a project manager follow?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Estimate Activity Durations and Control Schedule

C.

Develop Schedule and Control schedule

D.

Review Activities and Develop Schedule

Question 4

The handoff of the first version of a software application to the operational team has taken a month longer than anticipated. How could this extended transition time have been avoided?

Options:

A.

If the end-user documentation was more thorough

B.

If the operations manager was invited to all sprint reviews

C.

If the operation team members were trained externally

D.

If the transition process was agreed upon during the build

Question 5

Match the method for categorizing stakeholders with its corresponding description

Options:

Question 6

An executive sponsor wants to be briefed on how the product will change over time. Which document should the business analyst use to prepare their presentation?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product requirements

Question 7

When establishing a contingency reserve, including time, money and resources, how is the risk being handled?

Options:

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

Question 8

Perform Quantitative Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a lsit of known risks and preparing responses to them

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and impact for every risk in the risk register

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project's time and cost objectives

Question 9

A project receives budget approval, but the risk of extra costs is expected. Which of these inputs should the project manager check in order to make a qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

The risk management plan and the assumption log

B.

Costs estimates and cost forecast

C.

The risk management plan and the basis of estimates

D.

The assumption log and the project charter

Question 10

How does planning for prevention costs assist in meeting stakeholder needs and expectations, while still providing required performance and reliability?

Options:

A.

It details product or service failures experienced by the customer

B.

It clarifies the costs associated with assessing the quality of the product or service

C.

It accounts for costs used to avoid poor quality in the product or service

D.

It communicates product or service failures discovered by the project team

Question 11

A team has been tasked with designing a product to address a problem they have never faced before. The project team is struggling to get traction as the solutions are not clear. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Add the risk to the project risk register, as the lack of solutions could impact how the product is built.

B.

Add the issue to the project issue log, as it will impact the project performance.

C.

Facilitate a brainstorming session for the team to discuss ideas to solve the problem.

D.

Meet with the project sponsor to understand their vision on how to address the problem.

Question 12

All testing on a project has been performed successfully and all acceptance criteria have been met. What is the next step?

Options:

A.

Set up a meeting with the sponsor.

B.

Set up a go/no-go meeting.

C.

Wait for the next sprint.

D.

Deliver the product.

Question 13

Which three of the following are the most widely used techniques that a business analyst should implement to gather requirements? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Shop floor observation

B.

Scheduled interviews

C.

Facilitated workshops

D.

Brainstorming sessions

E.

Current state analysis

Question 14

A key stakeholder has left the project management team. The team now has a new key stakeholder who is requesting project reports from team members out of sequence. What should the project manager do first?

Options:

A.

Perform qualitative risk analysis.

B.

Allow team members to share project status reports.

C.

Engage with the new stakeholder.

D.

Extend an iteration review invite to the new stakeholder.

Question 15

What is the purpose of the Manage Quality process?

Options:

A.

To translate the quality management plan into executable quality activities

B.

To monitor and record the results of executed quality management activities

C.

To determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies.

D.

To identify project deliverables and quality requirements and/or standards

Question 16

A project manager is reviewing the change requests, deliverables, and the project plan in Which project management process does this review belong?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Closes Project or Phase

D.

Perform itegrated Change Control

Question 17

How can working in iterations increase the quality of the product being built?

Options:

A.

Teams have to do less planning and focus more on quality.

B.

The project manager has more time to document goals in advance.

C.

Less testing is required since it is done at the end of the project.

D.

Requirements are frequently clarified by users of the product.

Question 18

Why is a project undertaken?

Options:

A.

To create a unique product, service, or result

B.

To teach the discipline of program and portfolio management

C.

To increase the understanding of project management

D.

To achieve better management of resources

Question 19

Which of these statements is true of subsidiary management plans?

Options:

A.

Subsidiary management plans are mandatory for any project

B.

Subsidiary management plans use the project charier as input

C.

Subsidiary management plans can be independently managed

D.

Subsidiary management plans do not need regular updates

Question 20

A project manager is seeking assistance from the business analyst for an IT project. What assistance can the business analyst provide?

Options:

A.

Elicit product requirements.

B.

Verify product functionality.

C.

Allocate project resources.

D.

Manage the project schedule.

Question 21

A business analyst has encountered a conflict related to competing requirements on an existing project. What tool should the business analyst use to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Peer review

B.

Procurement management

C.

Weighted ranking

D.

Risk assessment

Question 22

The project manager needs to obtain proposals on costs of supplies purchased from an external source. In order to conduct this in a fair and unbiased way, what should the project manager conduct?

Options:

A.

Procurement conference

B.

Stakeholder conference

C.

Bidder conference

D.

Stakeholder meeting

Question 23

Which of the following tasks is related to the perform qualitative risk analysis process?

Options:

A.

Identify the project risks and assign a probability of occurrence

B.

Perform a sensitivity analysis to determine which risk has the most potential for impacting the project

C.

Analyze the effect of identified project risks as numerical data

D.

Prioritize each project risk and assign the probability of occurrence and impact for each one

Question 24

Which of the following is an example of tacit knowledge

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

Question 25

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure effective requirements elicitation. What should the business analyst do?

Options:

A.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

B.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

C.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

D.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

Question 26

A project team is evaluating criteria to determine project viability. Which of these activities will provide insight into making a go/no-go decision to start the project?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Cost of quality (COQ)

Question 27

Which sentence summarizes the salience model?

Options:

A.

Classifies stakeholders based on assessment ol Iheir power, urgency and legitimacy

B.

A chart in which the Stakeholders are ropiosented as dots according to then level ol power and influence

C.

A three-dimensional model that ran be useful to engage the stakeholder community

D.

Classifies stakeholders and the project toam by the impact of their work in the project

Question 28

Which three of the following are key traits of a project leader? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Focus on the horizon.

B.

Rely on control.

C.

Challenge the status quo and do things differently.

D.

Focus on near-team goals.

E.

Convey trust and inspire trust in other team members.

Question 29

Why is working in iterations usually more time-consuming than using a predictive life cycle?

Options:

A.

Timeboxing increases the time needed to accomplish tasks.

B.

Iterations are longer than the execution phase of a traditional project.

C.

Having a minimum viable product first can take more time.

D.

It takes time to understand what the project needs to deliver.

Question 30

What method for categorizing stakeholders is suitable for small projects with simple relationships among stakeholders'?

Options:

A.

Prioritization

B.

Directions of influence

C.

Salience model

D.

Power/influence grid

Question 31

In a demonstration meeting with a customer, the project team presented deliverables that were considered ready for customer use. The team based the results on a checklist of all the required criteria for the project. Which of the following elements is the team using?

Options:

A.

Burndown chart

B.

Definition of done (DoD)

C.

Backlog refinement

D.

Definition of ready (DoR)

Question 32

A software development team is pulling work from its backlog to be performed immediately as they become available. What emerging practice for project scheduling is the team using?

Options:

A.

Iterative

B.

On-demand

C.

Interactive

D.

Quality

Question 33

To ensure stakeholder satisfaction; identified stakeholder needs should all be

Options:

A.

Vetted

B.

Ranked from greatest to least

C.

Qualified

D.

Documented in the stakeholder engagement plan

Question 34

A project is delivering an integrated solution to an external client on a fixed-price contract. The project has a significant technical component and has a dedicated technical project manager working with a business program manager and the client's project manager. The technical lead is requesting two new developers.

Which plan should the project manager use to identify who is responsible for finding the budget for additional developers?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Business management plan

C.

Stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question 35

A recently hired project manager is looking for templates to use for projects on which they will work. To what category of enterprise environmental factors should the project manager refer?

Options:

A.

Resource availability

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Academic research

D.

Corporate knowledge base

Question 36

What are the two most common contract types used in a project?

Options:

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract and fixed price contract

B.

Fixed price contract and cost-reimbursable contract

C.

Cost-reimbursable contract and time and material (T&M) contract

D.

Time and material (T&M) contract and cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract

Question 37

Which are the competing constrains that project manager should address when tailoring a project?

Options:

A.

Cost, scope, schedule

B.

Sponsorship, risk, quality

C.

Schedule, sponsorship, scope

D.

Resources, Quality, Communication

Question 38

The handoff of the first version of a software application to the operational team has taken a month longer than anticipated. How could this extended transition time have been avoided?

Options:

A.

If the operation team members were trained externally

B.

If the transition process was agreed upon during the build

C.

If the end-user documentation was more thorough

D.

If the operations manager was invited to all sprint reviews

Question 39

During project execution, a key resource leaves the team for another job. What should the project manager do in this situation?

Options:

A.

Submit a change request for additional budget to secure a project resource.

B.

Consult with the functional manager for a replacement resource.

C.

Distribute work to other team members to reduce impact to the project schedule.

D.

Consult the risk register for an appropriate risk response.

Question 40

What does ’verified’ in verified deliverable represent?

Options:

A.

The correctness of a deliverable

B.

The completeness of a deliverable

C.

The deliverable requirements

D.

The customer acceptance of a deliverable

Question 41

Which of the following is used as input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Question 42

What can a requirements traceability matrix enable regardless of the project methodology being used?

Options:

A.

Identification of missing and superfluous requirements

B.

Evaluation of solution and system performance

C.

Investigation of the viability of a new product

D.

Creation of a solid business case

Question 43

What three strategies are used to respond to threats?

Options:

A.

Escalate, accept, and mitigate

B.

Accept share, and avoid

C.

Escalate, transfer, and exploit

D.

Mitigate, accept, and prioritize

Question 44

The project manager is new to the company in order to effectively manage the project, which components of the organizational governance framework does the project manager need to take into account?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure type, Key stakeholders, and protect funds

B.

Rules. policies and norms

C.

Project management software, resources availability and risk checklist

D.

Governance elements, team policies, and organizational goals

Question 45

A project manager was assigned to a project with high uncertainty. What is the recommended method to calculate the project budget?

Options:

A.

Detailed estimation

B.

Lightweight estimation

C.

Parametric estimation

D.

A mix of them

Question 46

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

Options:

A.

Contingency analysis

B.

Actual cost

C.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

D.

Expert judgment

Question 47

What communications management process enables an effective information flow among project stakeholders'?

Options:

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question 48

What is the purpose of the protect management process groups?

Options:

A.

To define a new project

B.

To track and monitor processes easily

C.

To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

D.

To link specific process inputs and outputs

Question 49

A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.

Which strategies should the project manager take to account for risk management n this environment’

Options:

A.

Occasionally identify evaluate, and classify risks

B.

Review requirements and cross-functional project teams.

C.

Include contingency reserves and update the project management plan frequently.

D.

Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization.

Question 50

Which behavior relates to team leadership'?

Options:

A.

Centering on systems and structure

B.

Providing guidance using the power of relationships

C.

Accepting the status quo

D.

Focusing on operational issues and problem solving

Question 51

A project manager is performing the procurement management process with three vendors The project team is reviewing the requests for proposal (RFPs).

What type of procurement document is the RFP?

Options:

A.

Bid document

B.

Statement of work (SOW)

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Independent cost estimate

Question 52

In the last two iterations, a project team failed to deliver all of the stories on time. What should the project manager do first in order to prevent this from recurring?

Options:

A.

Extend the delivery time for the product since the management reserve allows it.

B.

Temporarily use another team for the next iteration and evaluate their performance.

C.

Observe the project team's performance for the next two iterations before taking any action.

D.

Identify possible reasons for the delay and consult the risk register for corrective actions.

Question 53

During a project team meeting, one of the team members suggested a product functionality that would immensely benefit the customer. The project manager documents the request for later analysis. What is this an example of?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the traceability matrix

B.

Managing the scope

C.

Maintaining the product backlog

D.

Managing the cost benefit

Question 54

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram.... the duration of this task?

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram and needs to report back about the project status The total duration of the task is ten days, and both Activity A and B need be completed. Activity A has a duration of six days, and activity B has a duration of four days Activity B has a finish-to-start relationship with activity A Under current circumstances, activity A will take about seven days to complete.

What is the outcome of the duration of this task'?

Options:

A.

The task will be completed on time.

B.

The task will not be completed on time.

C.

Activity A is not a critical path task

D.

The precedence diagram cannot be used to provide answers for duration calculations

Question 55

A project manager needs to request outside support......manager need to create

A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement ot work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?

Options:

A.

Time and material (T&M)

B.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

C.

Fixed price

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Question 56

Which of the following does a portfolio combine?

Options:

A.

Projects, change management, and operations

B.

Projects, programs, and operations

C.

Projects, programs, and risks

D.

Operations, strategies, and business continuity

Question 57

What can a project manager review to understand the status of a project?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) status

B.

Quality and technical performance measures

C.

Cost and scope baselines

D.

Business case completeness

Question 58

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Question 59

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

Options:

Question 60

During the execution phase of a project a detect is found. The project manager takes responsibility and with the correct documentation, begins the task necessary to repair the defect. What process was applied?

Options:

A.

Change request

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Lessons learned

Question 61

What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Responsibility

D.

Monitor Stakeholder Activity

Question 62

A firm contracted an event management company to conduct the annual sales day event. The agreement states that the event management company will charge the firm for the actuals and receive 8% of the total cost. What type of contract Is this?

Options:

A.

Time and material (T8M)

B.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Question 63

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?

Options:

A.

Produce team performance assessments.

B.

Hold weekly meetings to engage every member

C.

Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member

D.

Provide recognition awards to team members

Question 64

In a functional organization, the director of an important stakeholder business group expressed concern to a line manager about the progress of the project. What should the line manager do next?

Options:

A.

Hold a face-to-face meeting with the project manager and warn them.

B.

Point the director to a link where they can take a look at the reports.

C.

Invite stakeholders to attend monthly progress review meetings.

D.

Ask the project manager to update the monthly status report distribution list.

Question 65

In which type of organization does the project manager have the maximum influence

Options:

A.

Centralized

B.

Composite

C.

Simple Organic

D.

Multi-divisional

Question 66

A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?

Options:

A.

USS-30,000

B.

US$120,000

C.

US$370,000

D.

US$400,000

Question 67

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

Question 68

What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment and data gathering

B.

Networking and storytelling

C.

Data analysis and decision making

D.

Prototypes and product analysis

Question 69

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

Options:

A.

Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.

B.

Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.

C.

Estimates are created by analyzing data.

D.

Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

Question 70

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

Options:

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

Question 71

Why is tailoring required in a project?

Options:

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required.

Question 72

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question 73

What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

B.

Project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, basis of estimates, and organizational process assets

Question 74

A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change. Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?

Options:

A.

Discussing with management

B.

Escalating to the sponsors

C.

Engaging regularly with stakeholders

D.

Engaging only with decision makers

Question 75

A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Change management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question 76

A project manager is monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. Which output is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Verified deliverables

C.

Lessons learned

D.

Work performance data

Question 77

What is a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Validation and control

B.

Benefits

C.

Technology support

D.

Physical location

Question 78

Which conflict resolution technique produces the most lasting results?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth/accommodate

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Question 79

Which tools and techniques will a project manager use to develop a project charter?

Options:

A.

Project manager experience, expert judgment, scope statement, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned database. Interpersonal and team skills, cost baseline, and meetings

C.

Expert judgment, data gathering. scope statement, schedule baseline, and meetings

D.

Expert judgment, data gathering. interpersonal and team skills, and meetings

Question 80

Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks

B.

Avoid all kind of risks

C.

Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks

D.

Identify positive and negative risks

Question 81

Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

Question 82

A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:

Options:

A.

create the project management plan.

B.

identify the project objectives.

C.

review and update stakeholder engagement.

D.

create the schedule baseline.

Question 83

Stakeholder identification and engagement should begin during what phase of the project?

Options:

A.

After the project management plan is completed

B.

After the stakeholder engagement plan is completed

C.

As soon as the project charter has been approved

D.

After the communications management plan is completed

Question 84

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

Options:

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

Question 85

The project manager is working in the processes of Project Resource Management. Which process is the project manager developing if they are using parametric estimation?

Options:

A.

Plan Resource Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Acquire Resources

Question 86

A project manager called for a team meeting...................method did the team use

A project manager called for a team meeting to estimate the project effort. During the session, the team went on to identify all the deliverables and analyzed the related work. Each of the analyzed deliverables were estimated. Which estimation method did the team use?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Expert Judgement

C.

Decomposition

D.

Data analysis

Question 87

What does expert judgment provide as an input to the resource management plan?

Options:

A.

Geographic distribution of facilities and resources

B.

Physical resource management policies and procedures

C.

Estimated lead times based on lessons learned

D.

Templates for the resource management plan

Question 88

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 89

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Interpersonal skills

C.

Team agreements

D.

Communication skills

Question 90

Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Hybrid methodologies

B.

Risk register updates

C.

Outsourced project resources

D.

Reliance on lessons learned documents

Question 91

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

Question 92

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

Options:

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

Question 93

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

Options:

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.

B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.

C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.

D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.

Question 94

In order to detect quality Issues earlier in the project life cycle, the project manager is using an agile/adaptive environment. What is the main difference between waterfall and agile/adaptive development approaches tor Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

The frequency of the quality and review steps

B.

The number of deliverables

C.

The duration of each of the quality and review steps

D.

The tools used in the quality and review steps

Question 95

Which of the following is used to classify stakeholders based on their assessments of power, urgency, and legitimacy?

Options:

A.

Power interest grid

B.

Stakeholder cube

C.

Salience model

D.

Directions of influence

Question 96

Which tool should a project manager consider to deal with multiple sources of risk?

Options:

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Issue log

D.

Stakeholder register

Question 97

Directing another person to get from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors and the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well is related to?

Options:

A.

Influence and challenge

B.

Innovation and administration

C.

Leadership and management

D.

Engagement and guidance

Question 98

Which role does the project manager resemble best?

Options:

A.

Orchestra conductor

B.

Facilities supervisor

C.

Functional manager

D.

School principal

Question 99

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

Options:

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

Question 100

A project manager is formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. What is an input to this process?

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables

B.

Validated deliverables

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Completed change requests

Question 101

What type of change requires the submission of a change request?

Options:

A.

Changes in assigned resources

B.

Changes in a technical solution

C.

Changes in status reporting

D.

Changes in the project's scope

Question 102

A project manager is launching an information system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for recipients to access content at their own discretion. Which communication method is described?

Options:

A.

Push communication

B.

Pull communication

C.

Interactive communication

D.

Stakeholder communication

Question 103

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources

B.

Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system

C.

Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements

D.

Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

Question 104

What is an output of the plan resource management process

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Risk register

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Stakeholder register

Question 105

Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

Predictive

C.

Waterfall

D.

Product

Question 106

It you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?

Options:

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

Question 107

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

Options:

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

Question 108

A team receives four different requests from separate stakeholders related to one application Match each requirement with its corresponding type of change request.

Options:

Question 109

With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?

Options:

A.

Suppliers

B.

Customers

C.

Governing bodies

D.

Project team

Question 110

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

Question 111

What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication

B.

Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication

C.

Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication

D.

Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication

Question 112

A project manager is working on an estimate. The project team is estimating each work package and then finding the total of all the work packages.

Which technique is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Data analysis

Question 113

A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on. What type of communication is this?

Options:

A.

Informal

B.

Unofficial

C.

Formal

D.

Hierarchical

Question 114

Match the project manager's sphere of influence with the associated primary role.

Options:

Question 115

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

Options:

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Question 116

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

Question 117

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

7

D.

9

Question 118

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

Question 119

A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Stakeholder participation.

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Question 120

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 121

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Question 122

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Question 123

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

Options:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

Question 124

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

Options:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

Question 125

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

Question 126

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Inspection

C.

Project analysis

D.

Document analysis

Question 127

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Update

B.

Preventive action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective action

Question 128

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

Question 129

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

Question 130

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 131

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

Options:

A.

Estimating

B.

Scheduling

C.

Controlling

D.

Communicating

Question 132

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

Question 133

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 134

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

Options:

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

Question 135

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

Options:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

Question 136

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Question 137

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

Question 138

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

Question 139

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

Question 140

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

Question 141

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

Question 142

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

Options:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

Question 143

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Question 144

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

Question 145

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Options:

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

Question 146

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

Options:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

Question 147

Which item is a cost of conformance?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

Question 148

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

Question 149

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

Question 150

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 151

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

Options:

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

Question 152

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Options:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

Question 153

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

Options:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

Question 154

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

Question 155

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Question 156

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

Question 157

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

Options:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

Question 158

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

Options:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

Question 159

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Question 160

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

Options:

A.

Balanced matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

Question 161

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

Question 162

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

Question 163

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

Options:

A.

tangible

B.

targeted

C.

organized

D.

variable

Question 164

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

Question 165

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Question 166

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

Options:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

Question 167

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 168

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

Options:

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

Question 169

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

Question 170

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

Question 171

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

Options:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

Question 172

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

Question 173

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

Question 174

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

Question 175

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Question 176

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

Options:

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

Question 177

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Options:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

Question 178

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 179

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

Question 180

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

Question 181

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

Question 182

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 183

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

Question 184

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Question 185

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

Question 186

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

Question 187

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

Question 188

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

Question 189

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Forecasting methods

C.

Earned value management

D.

Analytical techniques

Question 190

A regression line is used to estimate:

Options:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

Question 191

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Options:

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

Question 192

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

Question 193

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 194

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

Question 195

In a project, total float measures the:

Options:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

Question 196

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:

Options:

A.

Benchmarking.

B.

Context diagrams.

C.

Brainstorming.

D.

Prototyping.

Question 197

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question 198

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 199

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

Options:

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Question 200

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Question 201

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

Options:

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Question 202

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Question 203

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Question 204

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Question 205

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

Question 206

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

Question 207

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

Question 208

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

Options:

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

Question 209

Typical outcomes of a project include:

Options:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

Question 210

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Options:

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

Question 211

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

Question 212

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

Question 213

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question 214

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

Options:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

Question 215

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question 216

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Question 217

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

Options:

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

Question 218

The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

Question 219

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

Options:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

Question 220

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

Options:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

Question 221

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

Question 222

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Efficient

B.

Effective

C.

Push

D.

Pull

Question 223

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

Question 224

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Question 225

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Question 226

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Question 227

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

Question 228

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

Options:

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

Question 229

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

Question 230

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

Options:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

Question 231

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question 232

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Question 233

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

Options:

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

Question 234

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

Options:

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

Question 235

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Options:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Question 236

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Question 237

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

Options:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

Question 238

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 239

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

Question 240

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

Options:

A.

It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

B.

It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.

C.

It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.

D.

It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

Question 241

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

Question 242

The stakeholder register is an output of:

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Question 243

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

Question 244

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Question 245

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

Options:

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

Question 246

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

Options:

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

Question 247

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Question 248

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

Question 249

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

Options:

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

Question 250

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

Question 251

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Question 252

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

Question 253

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Question 254

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

Question 255

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

Options:

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

Question 256

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

Question 257

What is the total float of the critical path?

Options:

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

Question 258

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Question 259

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

Question 260

The product scope description is used to:

Options:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.

Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

Question 261

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

Question 262

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

Options:

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

Question 263

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 264

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Project scope statement.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Requirements traceability matrix.

Question 265

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

Options:

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

Question 266

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question 267

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

Options:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

Question 268

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 269

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

Question 270

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

Question 271

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Question 272

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 273

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

Options:

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

Question 274

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

Question 275

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

Question 276

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

Question 277

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

Question 278

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Question 279

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Options:

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

Question 280

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

Options:

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

Question 281

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question 282

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Question 283

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

Question 284

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Question 285

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

Options:

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

Question 286

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 287

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Question 288

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Question 289

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Question 290

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 291

The diagram below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question 292

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

Question 293

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

Options:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

Question 294

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Question 295

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Question 296

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

Question 297

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

Question 298

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Question 299

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Question 300

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Question 301

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Question 302

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Question 303

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

Question 304

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question 305

Resource calendars are included in the:

Options:

A.

staffing management plan.

B.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.

project communications plan.

D.

project charter.

Question 306

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

Question 307

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Question 308

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

Question 309

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

Question 310

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

Question 311

A project lifecycle is defined as:

Options:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

Question 312

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

Question 313

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

Question 314

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

Question 315

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

Question 316

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

Question 317

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 318

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Question 319

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Question 320

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Options:

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

Question 321

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Question 322

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Question 323

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

Question 324

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

Options:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

Question 325

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

Question 326

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Question 327

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Question 328

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

Question 329

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

Question 330

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

Question 331

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

Options:

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

Question 332

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

Question 333

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Question 334

What is project management?

Options:

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Question 335

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

Question 336

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Question 337

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Question 338

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Question 339

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Question 340

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

Question 341

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Question 342

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Question 343

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

Options:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

Question 344

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Question 345

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.

Teaming agreements

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

Question 346

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

Question 347

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

Question 348

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

Question 349

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

Question 350

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

Question 351

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Question 352

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 353

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Question 354

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 355

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Updated project charter

C.

Approved change request

D.

Multicriteria decision analysis

Question 356

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

Options:

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

Question 357

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

Question 358

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

Question 359

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

Question 360

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question 361

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

Question 362

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

Question 363

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

Question 364

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

Question 365

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 366

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Resource calendars

C.

Procurement document

D.

Independent estimates

Question 367

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Question 368

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

Question 369

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

Options:

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

Question 370

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 371

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

Question 372

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Options:

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

Question 373

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

Question 374

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

Options:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Question 375

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Question 376

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Question 377

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

Options:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

Question 378

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

Question 379

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

Question 380

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

Question 381

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

Options:

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

Question 382

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Question 383

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

Question 384

The definition of operations is a/an:

Options:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

Question 385

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

Question 386

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Question 387

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 388

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Question 389

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Question 390

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

Options:

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Question 391

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 392

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Options:

A.

divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B.

repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.

C.

linked to specific phases or subprojects.

D.

integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

Question 393

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

Options:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

Question 394

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Question 395

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

Question 396

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

Options:

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

Question 397

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

Options:

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

Question 398

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

Question 399

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

Demo: 399 questions
Total 1250 questions