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PeopleCert MSP-Foundation MSP Foundation, 5th editionExam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 35 questions
Total 117 questions

MSP Foundation, 5th editionExam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which is a characteristic of continual improvement?

Options:

A.

Agile ways of working are used in some phases of a linear

B.

Scope and requirements are delivered through sequential phases

C.

Waste in a process is identified and systematically eliminated

D.

Scope and quality emerge over time within defined timeboxes

Question 2

Which describes an external factor that influences a programme?

Options:

A.

The lifecycle and delivery mode selected for each project

B.

The defined strategy for capturing and sharing knowledge

C.

Changes in the behaviours of an organization's competitors

D.

Existing ways of working embedded in business as usual activities

Question 3

Which document answers the questions of ‘who’, ‘when’, and ‘how’ to deliver the outcomes of benefit?

Options:

A.

Programme strategy

B.

Programme plan

C.

Programme registers

D.

Programme organization structure

Question 4

What is the purpose of programme governance?

Options:

A.

To ensure the internal controls to protect assets, earning capacity, and the reputation of the organization

B.

To enable the organization to do the 'right' projects and programmes, and to do them 'correctly'

C.

To control the work, ensuring transparency and creation of value by the programme

D.

To recognize uncertainty and a diverse range of risk types within a programme

Question 5

Which document defines how to decide whether to invest in proactive responses to opportunities?

Options:

A.

Issue resolution approach

B.

Risk response approach

C.

Governance approach

D.

Delivery approach

Question 6

Which should the senior responsible owner focus on?

Options:

A.

Leading the programme on a day-to-day basis

B.

Managing change across the organization

C.

Engaging stakeholders with a strategic interest in the programme

D.

Supporting the programme board with programme delivery

Question 7

Which would be the BEST way to pass on tacit knowledge?

Options:

A.

Store the knowledge in a structured knowledge database

B.

Capture and write down the knowledge so that people can read it

C.

Ensure the knowledge database is accessible to stakeholders

D.

Get the individual who needs the knowledge to talk to the person who has it

Question 8

Which is a purpose of the dependency network diagram?

Options:

A.

To show how a programme depends on a specific risk impact occurring

B.

To show how dependent the programme is on the support from a specific stakeholder

C.

To show how the start of transition depends on the completion of several project outputs

D.

To show what reports the programme will depend on to make key decisions

Question 9

Which process ensures that all facts are available when they are required by the programme board?

Options:

A.

Design the outcomes

B.

Plan progressive delivery

C.

Evaluate new information

D.

Close the programme

Question 10

Which document identifies activities to give confidence to stakeholders about how programme risks are managed?

Options:

A.

Assurance plan

B.

Financial plan

C.

Benefits realization plan

D.

Stakeholder engagement and communications plan

Question 11

What is the result of the ‘decisions’ theme applying the ‘collaborate across boundaries’ principle?

Options:

A.

It will provide comprehensive data that decision-makers can use to justify actions

B.

It will support prompt resolution from decision-makers across participating organizations

C.

It will stop the decision-makers from micro-managing the programme and its outcomes

D.

It will enable the whole team to make decisions in a swift and empowered manner

Question 12

What do the three lines of defence provide, in line with the levels of delegated authority, within the programme organization?

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Assurance

C.

Risk prioritization

D.

Enterprise agility

Question 13

Identify the missing word in the following sentence:

Stakeholder engagement is defined as a way of exercising influence and achieving positive [?] through effective management of relationships.

Options:

A.

responses

B.

outcomes

C.

benefits

D.

engagements

Question 14

Which is a COMMON challenge encountered by organizations that MSP is designed to address?

Options:

A.

An organization's failure to manage the delivery of its projects effectively

B.

An organization's failure to influence the prevailing culture during previous attempts to lead change

C.

An organization's failure to have the same benefits management practices across the organization

D.

An organization's failure to change the external drivers that influence a programme's objectives

Question 15

What is a benefit of the ‘evaluate new information’ process?

Options:

A.

It is possible to identify when the work of the programme has been completed

B.

It helps to improve understanding and accelerate action-taking

C.

It ensures that the projects are started correctly and remain aligned with the target operating model

D.

It ensures that the capabilities delivered by the programme are fully integrated into BAU

Question 16

Which role/group is responsible for implementing the programme strategy?

Options:

A.

Programme office

B.

Programme board

C.

Programme manager

D.

Business change manager

Question 17

Which action contributes MOST to achieving the ‘lead with purpose’ principle?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a compelling vision and design of the target operating model

B.

Providing everyone in the programme with access to knowledge and information

C.

Working within clear delegated limits of authority and only escalating decisions when needed

D.

Providing manageable tranches of delivery contributing to clear intermediate landing points

Question 18

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence:

The definition of [?] is a control point, following delivery of a step-change in capability and benefits realization (tranche), at which a programme can be re-directed or closed.

Options:

A.

a project

B.

a landing point

C.

a

D.

an incremental progression

Question 19

Identify the missing word in the following sentence:

Principles are built into programme governance through the [?] and enacted through the processes in the programme lifecycle.

Options:

A.

stakeholders

B.

capabilities

C.

themes

D.

vision

Question 20

Which BEST describes the ‘deal with ambiguity’ principle?

Options:

A.

It drives the design and delivery of coherent organizational capabilities

B.

It focuses on the timing of the work aligned with other key events

C.

It reinforces the need for the programme's vision to be clear

D.

It embraces the volatile, uncertain and complex nature of programmes

Question 21

Which provides a detailed description of the intended future state of the investing organization?

Options:

A.

Benefits map

B.

Vision statement

C.

Target operating model

D.

Financial plan

Question 22

Which describes the ‘plan’ phase of the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Options:

A.

It includes steps such as prioritizing an issue or risk

B.

It understands the current programme environment

C.

It validates results and identifies any further actions required

D.

It applies revised actions to reflect changing priorities

Question 23

Which statement about knowledge is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It provides confidence to the sponsoring group that the programme will meet its objectives

B.

It is a delivery mode that enables identification of waste and the work to eliminate this

C.

It usually only becomes explicit when there is an investment of effort

D.

It is an activity that is required to achieve some aspect of the programme

Question 24

Which is a financial measure that can be used when calculating internal rate of return?

Options:

A.

Staff satisfaction

B.

Asset utilization

C.

Safety performance

D.

Sales growth

Question 25

Which is a purpose of the vision statement?

Options:

A.

To describe the attributes and interdependences involved in delivering an operational improvement

B.

To describe the detailed future state of the investing organization(s) after the programme has finished

C.

To define how the vision, benefits and target operating model will be defined and approved

D.

To describe a clear picture of the future state in a way that engages and motivates stakeholders

Question 26

Which action MOST LIKELY implements the share risk response?

Options:

A.

Producing a plan in case the situation changes

B.

Changing the way future work is planned

C.

Collaborating with suppliers on risk management activities

D.

Mitigating the impact or likelihood of a threat

Question 27

Which statement BEST describes the purpose of the stakeholder engagement and communications plan?

Options:

A.

It defines the investors in the programme and how funds will be raised and made available to the programme

B.

It describes the risk appetite for the programme and governance regime including terms of reference and delegated limits of authority

C.

It defines the stakeholder context and the controls for ensuring stakeholders are engaged throughout the lifecycle

D.

It describes how stakeholders are identified, prioritized and engaged over the life of the programme, including two-way communication

Question 28

Which document, produced during the ‘identify the programme’ process, describes high-level costs, benefits and risks?

Options:

A.

Vision statement

B.

Programme brief

C.

Programme mandate

D.

Business case

Question 29

Which BEST describes a programme?

Options:

A.

A programme’s governance should be permanent and continue as part of business as usual

B.

A programme should specify a linear project lifecycle for its constituent projects

C.

A programme should consist of inter-related projects instead of process-related work

D.

A programme should respond to changes and new insights that emerge in its environment

Question 30

Which document describes how the programme will encourage a culture of reflecting on experience?

Options:

A.

Assurance approach

B.

Information approach

C.

Decision-making approach

D.

Knowledge and learning approach

Question 31

How does the ‘organization’ theme apply the ‘deal with ambiguity’ principle?

Options:

A.

By adapting structures and roles over time to align with business operations

B.

By defining the risk appetite and enabling transparency of risks being taken

C.

By overseeing the development of the required number of resources and their skills

D.

By facilitating interactions between organizational units and stakeholders

Question 32

Which is a purpose of the ‘evaluate new information’ process?

Options:

A.

To ensure the organization(s) involved understand the programme vision, benefits, risks, and the target operating model

B.

To ensure that up-to-date information is considered as the programme progresses, taking into account each theme and principle

C.

To analyse the drivers and initial justification to ensure they align to the organization's strategy, and that the investment is likely to be worthwhile

D.

To ensure that the investing organization(s) are ready to maximize the benefits to be realized

Question 33

Which of these is a focus of the ‘embed the outcomes’ process?

Options:

A.

To control the work required to manage each tranche of delivery

B.

To maintain an acceptable balance between delivery, transition, realization of benefits, and affordability

C.

To identify when the work has been completed as planned

D.

To realize and measure benefits

Question 34

Which process allows the organization to understand the improvements they seek from the programme?

Options:

A.

Identify the programme

B.

Plan progressive delivery

C.

Design the outcomes

D.

Deliver the capabilities

Question 35

Which TWO are objectives of the ‘design the outcomes’ process?

    To ensure that there is a clear, compelling vision, set out in the vision statement.

    To ensure high-level costs, funding and cash-flow implications have been considered.

    To ensure the delivery approach and ways of working are defined.

    To ensure the target operating model is in place, along with key performance measures.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Demo: 35 questions
Total 117 questions