Weekend Sale Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70percent

PeopleCert MSP-Foundation MSP Foundation, 5th editionExam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 35 questions
Total 117 questions

MSP Foundation, 5th editionExam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which document is MOST LIKELY to describe the required levels of privacy?

Options:

A.

Information approach

B.

Delivery approach

C.

Governance approach

D.

Design approach

Question 2

Which provides a detailed description of the intended future state of the investing organization?

Options:

A.

Benefits map

B.

Vision statement

C.

Target operating model

D.

Financial plan

Question 3

Which is a result of the ‘structure’ theme applying the ‘collaborate across boundaries’ principle?

Options:

A.

Programme resources are used effectively and efficiently

B.

Safe landing points are offered giving opportunities to adjust to new information

C.

Focus on achieving the programme's goals is maintained

D.

Progress towards the future state is both achieved and managed

Question 4

Which would be the BEST way to pass on tacit knowledge?

Options:

A.

Store the knowledge in a structured knowledge database

B.

Capture and write down the knowledge so that people can read it

C.

Ensure the knowledge database is accessible to stakeholders

D.

Get the individual who needs the knowledge to talk to the person who has it

Question 5

Which describes the ‘plan’ phase of the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Options:

A.

It includes steps such as prioritizing an issue or risk

B.

It understands the current programme environment

C.

It validates results and identifies any further actions required

D.

It applies revised actions to reflect changing priorities

Question 6

Identify the missing word in the following sentence:

“Assurance provides transparency and confidence to the sponsoring group that the programme will meet its objectives by focusing activities on the most [?] aspects of the programme.”

Options:

A.

Important

B.

Risky

C.

Beneficial

D.

Expensive

Question 7

Which project delivery mode aims to complete the delivery of outputs within a single pass through sequential phases?

Options:

A.

Continual improvement

B.

Hybrid project lifecycle

C.

Linear project

D.

Iterative project

Question 8

Which contributes MOST to achieving the ‘collaborate across boundaries’ principle?

Options:

A.

Adopting a risk‑based approach to assurance that focuses resources to bring greater certainty

B.

Supporting stakeholders in accessing the knowledge and information they need to do their work

C.

Planning delivery of capabilities to deliver the outcomes of benefit at the pace required by the business case

D.

Ensuring that decision‑making approaches work effectively across multi‑organizational governance

Question 9

Which document defines the organizations that are investing in the programme?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Financial plan

C.

Funding approach

D.

Programme mandate

Question 10

Which TWO are objectives of the ‘embed the outcomes’ process?

    To ensure that programme progress is monitored and reported.

    To ensure that risks and issues are kept under control.

    To ensure that benefits start to be realized and measured.

    To ensure that controls are put in place to ensure benefit realization continues in BAU.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 11

Which section of the programme strategy defines the organization structure?

Options:

A.

Assurance approach

B.

Design approach

C.

Governance approach

D.

Delivery approach

Question 12

Which is a key consideration that should be reviewed, as part of the business case, on an ongoing basis throughout the programme lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Does the programme continue to demonstrate value for money?

B.

Do business operations have sufficient resource?

C.

Is the governance approach sufficient?

D.

Is the programme vision compelling?

Question 13

Which document answers the questions of ‘who’, ‘when’, and ‘how’ to deliver the outcomes of benefit?

Options:

A.

Programme strategy

B.

Programme plan

C.

Programme registers

D.

Programme organization structure

Question 14

Which role/group is responsible for implementing the programme strategy?

Options:

A.

Programme office

B.

Programme board

C.

Programme manager

D.

Business change manager

Question 15

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence:

The definition of [?] is a control point, following delivery of a step-change in capability and benefits realization (tranche), at which a programme can be re-directed or closed.

Options:

A.

a project

B.

a landing point

C.

a

D.

an incremental progression

Question 16

Which is a reason to initiate the ‘close the programme’ process?

Options:

A.

The transition plans are being implemented

B.

Benefits are being realized and measured

C.

Programme resources are deemed to be better used elsewhere

D.

Stakeholders are adopting new ways of workings

Question 17

Which process produces an understanding of the gap between the current state and future state of the organization before detailed structuring of the programme is started?

Options:

A.

Plan progressive delivery

B.

Design the outcomes

C.

Identify the programme

D.

Deliver the capabilities

Question 18

Which is a purpose of the ‘close the programme’ process?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the investing organization(s) make the required changes to adopt new ways of working and realize benefits

B.

To ensure that the investing organization(s) are ready to maximize the benefits to be realized from the programme work

C.

To ensure the programme is justified before deciding whether or not to proceed

D.

To ensure the organization(s) involved understand the programme vision, benefits, risks and the target operating model

Question 19

How does the ‘organization’ theme apply the ‘deal with ambiguity’ principle?

Options:

A.

By adapting structures and roles over time to align with business operations

B.

By defining the risk appetite and enabling transparency of risks being taken

C.

By overseeing the development of the required number of resources and their skills

D.

By facilitating interactions between organizational units and stakeholders

Question 20

Which action MOST LIKELY implements the share risk response?

Options:

A.

Producing a plan in case the situation changes

B.

Changing the way future work is planned

C.

Collaborating with suppliers on risk management activities

D.

Mitigating the impact or likelihood of a threat

Question 21

How does the ‘knowledge’ theme apply the ‘deal with ambiguity’ principle?

Options:

A.

By encouraging a culture of continual improvement to demonstrate the value added by programme management

B.

By ensuring stakeholders understand how benefits will be measured so they can focus on the programme's purpose

C.

By ensuring stakeholders have the knowledge they need to understand the programme's current priorities

D.

By making knowledge as accessible as possible so that teams can adapt to and learn from new knowledge

Question 22

Which BEST describes the ‘bring pace and value’ principle?

Options:

A.

It enables governance across multiple organizations to be established

B.

It ensures that work is planned to align with key organizational events

C.

It ensures that the programme's importance to the organization is understood

D.

It accepts that programmes are fundamentally volatile, uncertain and complex

Question 23

Identify the missing word in the following sentence:

Principles are built into programme governance through the [?] and enacted through the processes in the programme lifecycle.

Options:

A.

stakeholders

B.

capabilities

C.

themes

D.

vision

Question 24

Which is a key consideration when reviewing and validating a business case?

Options:

A.

Whether the programme outcomes remain achievable and affordable

B.

How the benefits for the programme will be agreed and approved

C.

What delivery standards apply and how they are relevant to the programme

D.

What infrastructure and technology is required for the programme

Question 25

Which is a purpose of the vision statement?

Options:

A.

To describe the attributes and interdependences involved in delivering an operational improvement

B.

To describe the detailed future state of the investing organization(s) after the programme has finished

C.

To define how the vision, benefits and target operating model will be defined and approved

D.

To describe a clear picture of the future state in a way that engages and motivates stakeholders

Question 26

Which is a financial measure that can be used when calculating internal rate of return?

Options:

A.

Staff satisfaction

B.

Asset utilization

C.

Safety performance

D.

Sales growth

Question 27

Which factor often results in an organization choosing to manage a change investment as a programme?

Options:

A.

The governance applied to ensure that the organization's individual investments offer strategic value

B.

The need to change embedded ways of working and culture in order to implement strategy effectively

C.

The need to comply with the organization's standards and procedures for the management of risks

D.

The number of internal and external stakeholders that the organization needs to engage with

Question 28

Which process allows the organization to understand the improvements they seek from the programme?

Options:

A.

Identify the programme

B.

Plan progressive delivery

C.

Design the outcomes

D.

Deliver the capabilities

Question 29

Which TWO are objectives of the ‘deliver the capabilities’ process?

    To ensure benefits start to be realized and measured.

    To ensure corrective action is taken where necessary.

    To ensure programme progress is monitored and reported.

    To ensure controls are put in place to ensure benefit realization continues in BAU.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 30

Which statement BEST describes the purpose of the stakeholder engagement and communications plan?

Options:

A.

It defines the investors in the programme and how funds will be raised and made available to the programme

B.

It describes the risk appetite for the programme and governance regime including terms of reference and delegated limits of authority

C.

It defines the stakeholder context and the controls for ensuring stakeholders are engaged throughout the lifecycle

D.

It describes how stakeholders are identified, prioritized and engaged over the life of the programme, including two-way communication

Question 31

During which process would you manage the transition from old to new ways of working?

Options:

A.

Identify the programme

B.

Design the outcomes

C.

Plan progressive delivery

D.

Embed the outcomes

Question 32

Which activity occurs during the ‘design the outcomes’ process?

Options:

A.

A plan is developed to ensure that capability is delivered at an appropriate pace

B.

Each individual benefit is described in a detailed benefits profile

C.

The programme mandate is developed into a coherent programme brief

D.

A plan is designed of how the outcomes will be achieved through delivery of projects

Question 33

Which governance board does a risk owner’s response need to satisfy?

Options:

A.

Corporate

B.

Business as usual

C.

Programme

D.

Portfolio

Question 34

During which process would corrective action be taken to keep the programme on track?

Options:

A.

Deliver the capabilities

B.

Evaluate new information

C.

Plan progressive delivery

D.

Embed the outcomes

Question 35

Which TWO are objectives of the ‘evaluate new information’ process?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the gap between the current state and the target operating model is understood and clearly documented.

B.

To ensure that explicit knowledge is presented to programme boards in an appropriate way.

C.

To ensure that emerging facts are collected efficiently and at pace.

D.

To ensure that knowledge acquired during the programme is retained and lessons learned are put in place for subsequent programmes.A. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 3 and 4D. 1 and 4

Demo: 35 questions
Total 117 questions