Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?
In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?
Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?
Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?
Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?
Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?
What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)
Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?
What is the purpose of SIEM?
What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)
An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses
Subnet 2: 25 host addresses
Subnet 3: 120 host addresses
Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?
What are two characteristics of an advanced persistent threat (APT)? (Choose two.)
When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)
The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?
Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?
Which key component is used to configure a static route?
Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.
What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?
Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?
Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)
Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?
Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?
Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?
Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?
What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?
Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?
What is the definition of a zero-day threat?
Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world’s most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?
Which type of attack includes exfiltration of data as a primary objective?
Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?
A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL website link in the email, the connection is blocked by her office firewall because it's a known malware website. Which type of attack includes a link to a malware website in an email?
Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?
Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?
Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?
Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?
On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?
Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)
Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?
What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?
On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?
What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)
Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?
With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?
Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.
Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.
Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?
At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?
What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?
How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?
Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?
Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?
What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?
Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?
Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?
Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?
In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?
What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?
Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?
Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)
In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?
An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.
What can be created to dynamically block these websites?
In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)
In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?
A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.
Which technology meets this requirement?
The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.
What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?
In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?