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Paloalto Networks Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 68 questions
Total 227 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

Options:

A.

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

B.

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

C.

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

D.

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

Question 2

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Question 3

Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?

Options:

A.

DLP

B.

CASB

C.

DNS Security

D.

URL filtering

Question 4

Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?

Options:

A.

Statistical-based

B.

Knowledge-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Anomaly-based

Question 5

Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

Options:

A.

Advanced malware

B.

Smishing

C.

Reconnaissance

D.

Denial of service

Question 6

Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?

Options:

A.

Virtual

B.

Container

C.

Physical

D.

SASE

Question 7

What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Completely isolated system

B.

Scripting of manual tasks

C.

Consistent incident handling

D.

Long-term retention of logs

Question 8

Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

Options:

A.

DNS Security

B.

URL Filtering

C.

WildFire

D.

Threat Prevention

Question 9

What is the purpose of SIEM?

Options:

A.

Securing cloud-based applications

B.

Automating the security team’s incident response

C.

Real-time monitoring and analysis of security events

D.

Filtering webpages employees are allowed to access

Question 10

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

Question 11

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

Options:

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

Question 12

Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

FWaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 13

What are two characteristics of an advanced persistent threat (APT)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Multiple attack vectors

B.

Repeated pursuit of objective

C.

Reduced interaction time

D.

Tendency to isolate hosts

Question 14

When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

decrypt the infected file using base64

B.

alert system administrators

C.

quarantine the infected file

D.

delete the infected file

E.

remove the infected file’s extension

Question 15

The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

physical

B.

platform

C.

data

D.

infrastructure

Question 16

Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Device-ID

C.

App-ID

D.

Content-ID

Question 17

Which key component is used to configure a static route?

Options:

A.

router ID

B.

enable setting

C.

routing protocol

D.

next hop IP address

Question 18

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

Options:

Question 19

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

Options:

A.

To provide consistency in response to security issues

B.

To give only administrators the ability to view logs

C.

To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates

D.

To complicate programming for system administration -

Question 20

Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

Command-and-control (C2)

D.

Port evasion

Question 21

Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Detection of threats using data analysis

B.

Automation of security deployments

C.

Ingestion of log data

D.

Prevention of cvbersecurity attacks

Question 22

Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

Options:

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Stateless packet inspection

C.

Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

D.

Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)

Question 23

Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?

Options:

A.

Service connection

B.

Prisma Access

C.

Prisma Cloud

D.

Digital experience management

Question 24

Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

Options:

A.

Global Protect

B.

WildFire

C.

AutoFocus

D.

STIX

Question 25

Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

Options:

A.

Star Topology

B.

Spine Leaf Topology

C.

Mesh Topology

D.

Bus Topology

Question 26

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

Options:

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

Question 27

Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?

Options:

A.

Cyber threat protection

B.

Inspection of all traffic

C.

Least privileges access control

D.

Network segmentation

Question 28

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

Question 29

Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world’s most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?

Options:

A.

Prisma SAAS

B.

WildFire

C.

Cortex XDR

D.

Cortex XSOAR

Question 30

Which type of attack includes exfiltration of data as a primary objective?

Options:

A.

Advanced persistent threat

B.

Denial-of-service (DoS)

C.

Watering hole attack

D.

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

Question 31

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

Options:

A.

It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.

B.

It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.

C.

It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.

D.

It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.

Question 32

A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL website link in the email, the connection is blocked by her office firewall because it's a known malware website. Which type of attack includes a link to a malware website in an email?

Options:

A.

whaling

B.

phishing

C.

pharming

D.

spam

Question 33

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

Question 34

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

Question 35

Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Data exfiltration

D.

Persistence

Question 36

Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

Options:

A.

Cortex XSOAR

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

AutoFocus

D.

Cortex XDR

Question 37

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

Options:

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

Question 38

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

Question 39

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Options:

A.

Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand

B.

Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components

C.

Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code

D.

Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.

Question 40

What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

Options:

A.

SOAR platforms focus on analyzing network traffic.

B.

SOAR platforms integrate automated response into the investigation process.

C.

SOAR platforms collect data and send alerts.

D.

SOAR platforms filter alerts with their broader coverage of security incidents.

Question 41

On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?

Options:

A.

endpoint-based firewall

B.

strong user passwords

C.

full-disk encryption

D.

software patches

Question 42

What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is unable to detect polymorphic malware.

B.

It requires samples lo be buffered

C.

It uses a static file for comparing potential threats.

D.

It only uses packet header information.

Question 43

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

Question 44

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

Options:

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

Question 45

Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.

Options:

Question 46

Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

Options:

Question 47

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Options:

A.

Threat Prevention

B.

DNS Security

C.

WildFire

D.

URL Filtering

Question 48

At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Physical

C.

Transport

D.

Data Link

Question 49

What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?

Options:

A.

Frequent database updates

B.

Support of a DLP device

C.

API integration with a sandbox

D.

Enabling quality of service

Question 50

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

Question 51

Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?

Options:

A.

O Multicloud

B.

O 5G -

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

DevOps

Question 52

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

Options:

A.

Smart IP Scanner

B.

Wireshark

C.

Angry IP Scanner

D.

Netman

Question 53

What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?

Options:

A.

Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.

B.

Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.

C.

Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.

D.

Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.

Question 54

Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Serverless

C.

Docker

D.

Host-based

Question 55

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

Question 56

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

Question 57

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Options:

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

Question 58

What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?

Options:

A.

Behavior-based systems find the data that knowledge-based systems store.

B.

Knowledge-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”. C. Knowledge-based systems try to find new, distinct traits to find “bad” things.

C.

Behavior-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”.

Question 59

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

Options:

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

Question 60

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

Options:

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

Question 61

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

Question 62

In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

reconnaissance

C.

exploitation

D.

delivery

Question 63

An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.

What can be created to dynamically block these websites?

Options:

A.

URL category

B.

Custom signatures

C.

Decryption policy

D.

Application group

Question 64

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Initial Research

B.

Change Control

C.

Content Engineering

D.

Breach Response

Question 65

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

Options:

A.

the network is large

B.

the network is small

C.

the network has low bandwidth requirements

D.

the network needs backup routes

Question 66

A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.

Which technology meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

MDM

C.

EDR

D.

ADEM

Question 67

The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.

What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Agreement

B.

FAO Incident Site —

C.

Corporate Executive Listserv

D.

Security Breach Blog

Question 68

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

Demo: 68 questions
Total 227 questions