Winter Sale Flat 65% Limited Time Discount offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: suredis

Paloalto Networks Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 68 questions
Total 227 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?

Options:

A.

use of non-standard ports

B.

port hopping

C.

hiding within SSL encryption

D.

tunneling within commonly used services

Question 2

Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Improved application development

B.

Incident impact analysis

C.

Periodic firewall updates

D.

Proactive threat hunting

Question 3

How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?

Options:

A.

It creates an encrypted connection to the company's data center.

B.

It performs SSL decryption to give visibility into user traffic.

C.

II prevents sensitive data from leaving the network.

D.

II automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators.

Question 4

What is the purpose of SIEM?

Options:

A.

Securing cloud-based applications

B.

Automating the security team’s incident response

C.

Real-time monitoring and analysis of security events

D.

Filtering webpages employees are allowed to access

Question 5

Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Serverless

C.

Docker

D.

Host-based

Question 6

Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

Options:

Question 7

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

Options:

A.

Lateral movement within a cloud or data center

B.

An internal three-tier application

C.

Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter

D.

Traffic between an internal server and internal user

Question 8

Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?

Options:

A.

Correlating

B.

Active monitoring

C.

Archiving

D.

sandboxing

Question 9

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

Question 10

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

Options:

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

Question 11

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

Options:

Question 12

Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.

Options:

Question 13

When does a TLS handshake occur?

Options:

A.

Before establishing a TCP connection

B.

Only during DNS over HTTPS queries

C.

After a TCP handshake has been established

D.

Independently of HTTPS communications

Question 14

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

Question 15

Which of these ports is normally associated with HTTPS?

Options:

A.

443

B.

5050

C.

25

D.

80

Question 16

Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?

Options:

A.

EDR

B.

IDS

C.

SIEM

D.

DLP

Question 17

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

Options:

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

Question 18

Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

Options:

A.

Case management

B.

Integrations

C.

Ticketing system

D.

Playbooks

Question 19

Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?

Options:

A.

Cyber threat protection

B.

Inspection of all traffic

C.

Least privileges access control

D.

Network segmentation

Question 20

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

Options:

A.

Types of physical storage media used

B.

Data-at-rest encryption standards

C.

Acceptable use of the SaaS application

D.

Vulnerability scanning and management

Question 21

What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

Options:

A.

It applies to unknown threat detection only.

B.

It reveals malware within web-based traffic.

C.

It protects users from social engineering.

D.

It identifies loT devices on the internet.

Question 22

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

Question 23

An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.

What can be created to dynamically block these websites?

Options:

A.

URL category

B.

Custom signatures

C.

Decryption policy

D.

Application group

Question 24

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Question 25

What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Convincing an employee that they are also an employee

B.

Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive

C.

Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call

D.

Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page

Question 26

SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

People

B.

Accessibility

C.

Processes

D.

Understanding

E.

Business

Question 27

Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.

Options:

Question 28

Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

Options:

A.

Document, monitor, and track the incident.

B.

Limit the scope of who knows about the incident.

C.

Increase the granularity of the application firewall.

D.

Disclose details of lhe attack in accordance with regulatory standards.

Question 29

What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

B.

Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure

C.

Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments

D.

Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS

E.

Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location

Question 30

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

Options:

A.

Department of Homeland Security

B.

MITRE

C.

Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

D.

Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

Question 31

Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

Options:

A.

It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.

B.

It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.

C.

It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.

D.

It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.

Question 32

Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?

Options:

A.

O Multicloud

B.

O 5G -

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

DevOps

Question 33

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

Options:

A.

It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.

B.

It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.

C.

It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.

D.

It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.

Question 34

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

Question 35

A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.

Which technology meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

MDM

C.

EDR

D.

ADEM

Question 36

The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.

What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Agreement

B.

FAO Incident Site —

C.

Corporate Executive Listserv

D.

Security Breach Blog

Question 37

From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?

Options:

A.

Unit 52

B.

PAN-DB

C.

BrightCloud

D.

MineMeld

Question 38

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Options:

Question 39

What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?

Options:

A.

Behavior-based systems find the data that knowledge-based systems store.

B.

Knowledge-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”. C. Knowledge-based systems try to find new, distinct traits to find “bad” things.

C.

Behavior-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”.

Question 40

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

Question 41

Which tool automates remediation of a confirmed cybersecurity breach?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

EDR

C.

SOAR

D.

ISIM

Question 42

Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

Options:

A.

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

B.

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

C.

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

D.

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

Question 43

Which feature is part of an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

Options:

A.

API-based coverage of apps

B.

Automated security actions

C.

Protection of data at rest

D.

Real-time web filtering

Question 44

Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Allowance

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

Question 45

Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

Options:

A.

Evil twin

B.

Jasager

C.

Parager

D.

Mirai

Question 46

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

Question 47

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

Options:

A.

To provide consistency in response to security issues

B.

To give only administrators the ability to view logs

C.

To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates

D.

To complicate programming for system administration -

Question 48

Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?

Options:

A.

Allowance

B.

Authorization

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

Question 49

Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?

Options:

A.

Cloud

B.

Physical

C.

Virtual

D.

Containerized

Question 50

Which service is encompassed by serverless architecture?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

Security as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Authentication as a Service

Question 51

What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Manual reconfiguration

B.

Requirement for additional computational resources

C.

Single point of failure

D.

Less security

Question 52

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

Question 53

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

Question 54

What type of DNS record maps an IPV6 address to a domain or subdomain to another hostname?

Options:

A.

SOA

B.

NS

C.

AAAA

D.

MX

Question 55

What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

Options:

A.

SOAR platforms focus on analyzing network traffic.

B.

SOAR platforms integrate automated response into the investigation process.

C.

SOAR platforms collect data and send alerts.

D.

SOAR platforms filter alerts with their broader coverage of security incidents.

Question 56

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

Options:

A.

Personal endpoint firewall

B.

Port-based firewall

C.

Next-generation firewall

D.

Stateless firewall

Question 57

A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

Options:

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

Question 58

Which Palo Alto Networks tool is used to prevent endpoint systems from running malware executables such as viruses, trojans, and rootkits?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

AutoFocus

D.

App-ID

Question 59

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

Options:

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

Question 60

Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast to deploy, requires minimal cost and is infinitely scalable?

Options:

A.

Benign

B.

Tolerated

C.

Sanctioned

D.

Secure

Question 61

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

Question 62

Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

Options:

Question 63

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

Options:

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

Question 64

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.

Split horizon

Question 65

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Options:

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

Question 66

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Options:

A.

Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand

B.

Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components

C.

Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code

D.

Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.

Question 67

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

Question 68

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

Options:

A.

NetOps

B.

SecOps

C.

SecDevOps

D.

DevOps

Demo: 68 questions
Total 227 questions