Weekend Special Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70percent

Nokia 4A0-C02 Nokia SRA Composite Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 95 questions
Total 639 questions

Nokia SRA Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding the default scheduler in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

There are a maximum of 8 levels of priority serviced using a round-robin algorithm.

B.

The default scheduler will spend an equal amount of time in each queue, as long as there is traffic present

C.

The H1 internal forwarding class will receive its CIR before AF traffic.

D.

Orphaned queues will be scheduled out of the BE queue.

E.

A queue servicing EF and AF traffic will require explicit configuration to set the queue to expedited.

Question 2

In the context of hierarchical scheduling, a scheduler is configured with a CIR weight of 0. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth before all other children at the same level have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

B.

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth after all other children at the same level have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

C.

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth after all other children at all levels have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

D.

The scheduler will not be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth.

Question 3

In which of the following scenarios is self-generated traffic QoS (sgt-QoS) useful?

Options:

A.

EXP markings on transit control traffic are not set correctly.

B.

The priority of all self-generated traffic needs to be lowered to allow all other traffic to take precedence.

C.

The priority of various control packets requires special treatment throughout the network.

D.

The BGP process is consuming too many CPU cycles and is impacting OSPF performance.

Question 4

Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.

B.

DSCP is a 6-bit field.

C.

DSCP specifies eight different priorities.

D.

DSCP specifies four precedence levels.

E.

DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header

F.

DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.

Question 5

What is the purpose of the Nokia SR design that includes, for every ingress unicast queue, one hardware queue per destination forwarding complex (FFPC)?

Options:

A.

To utilize memory resources efficiently

B.

To avoid Head of Line blocking

C.

To achieve more granularity of QoS control

D.

To make hierarchical scheduling/policing possible

Question 6

Which of the following statements is considered best practice when changing a network policy that has been associated with an interface?

Options:

A.

The policy should be placed in a "shutdown" state before changes are made.

B.

A new network policy should be created and applied to the interface, overwriting the previous policy.

C.

The policy must first be removed from the interface, then modified and re-applied to the interface.

D.

Before the policy can be changed, it must be deleted with the no network qos command.

E.

Before any changes are made to the policy, all network interfaces where the policy is applied have to be shut down.

Question 7

Based upon the exhibit, which of the following statements about LAG 1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

PE1 is the master.

B.

The system-ID used by the CE device is 60:2c:ff:00:00:00.

C.

The Admin Key used by the CE device is 40000.

D.

There is a configuration error between the two MC peers.

Question 8

Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?

Options:

A.

A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its own queue.

B.

A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.

C.

A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.

D.

A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).

E.

A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on forwarding class.

Question 9

Without_______, a customer's high priority traffic can be dropped before its low priority traffic.

Options:

A.

packet filtering

B.

prioritization of traffic flows

C.

least cost routing

D.

OAM functionality

E.

separation between the data plane and the control plane

Question 10

Which of the following statements BEST describes an MBS parameter?

Options:

A.

It specifies the maximum rate at which a queue can be serviced.

B.

It specifies the maximum depth of a queue beyond which packets will be dropped.

C.

It specifies the portion of a queue that is taken from the reserved buffer pool.

D.

It specifies the threshold beyond which only in-profile packets will be queued.

E.

It specifies the peak bandwidth that can be attained by the incoming traffic.

Question 11

In which policies, on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. is classification performed? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

SAP-ingress policy

B.

SAP-egress policy

C.

IP-criteria policy

D.

Network-queue policy

E.

Slope policy

F.

Network policy

Question 12

To implement Hierarchical-QoS (Multi-tiered scheduling), which of the following actions must be undertaken? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

H-QoS capabilities must be enabled globally on the router

B.

A scheduler-policy must be configured.

C.

The queues in the SAP-ingress and SAP-egress policies do not require additional configuration attributes to make use of the hierarchical schedulers.

D.

The network queue policy must be configured to make use of the scheduler-policy.

E.

The scheduler-policy must be referenced in the SAP-ingress and SAP-egress policies.

F.

The scheduler-policy must be applied on the service SAP.

Question 13

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the building of a QoS-enabled network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It is important that all packets are classified in the same way at all SAP-ingress points.

B.

Once a packet is classified to a forwarding class, it cannot change across the network.

C.

Packet enters a node will be treated as per the local hop's configured policy.

D.

Native IP packets entering a network port will be marked at the first network egress by default

E.

Native IP packets entering a network port will not be marked at the first network egress by default.

F.

Native IP packets entering a network port will be marked at the first network egress, regardless of the re-marking configuration.

Question 14

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, where can network-queue policies be applied? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

On the network egress port.

B.

On the SDP.

C.

On the access ingress port.

D.

On the egress MDA.

E.

On the SAP.

F.

On the ingress MDA.

Question 15

Which of the following are trusted boundaries, by default? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

An IES SAP

B.

A VPLS SAP

C.

A network port

D.

AVPRN SAP

E.

An access port

Question 16

At which points can traffic be marked or remarked on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SAP-ingress only

B.

SAP-egress only

C.

SAP-ingress and SAP-egress

D.

Network ingress

E.

Network egress

Question 17

Traffic assigned to forwarding classes is placed into queues, while the contents of the queues are serviced in a controlled manner using____________.

Options:

A.

WRED

B.

shapers

C.

schedulers

D.

markers

E.

weighted fair queues (WFQ)

Question 18

Which of the following fields can be marked or remarked for frames belonging to a Layer 2 service?

Options:

A.

DSCP

B.

PREC

C.

Dot1p

D.

ToS

E.

Q-in-Q

Question 19

By default, how does a hybrid port on a Nokia 7750 SR share its allocated buffer space between access and network pools?

Options:

A.

All buffer space is initially allocated to access pools, and some of it is reallocated to network pools if network interfaces are configured on it.

B.

All buffer space is initially allocated to network pools, and some of it is reallocated to access pools if service SAPs are configured on it.

C.

Buffer space is allocated 50% for access pools and 50% for network pools.

D.

Buffer space is allocated 25% for access pools and 75% for network pools.

Question 20

Which of the following statements describe the operation of WRED on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

WRED monitors the shared buffer space utilization over a period of time.

B.

WRED disables the TCP slow-start congestion control mechanism.

C.

WRED uses two configurable slopes for each buffer pool: a high slope and a low slope.

D.

WRED uses the shared buffer utilization, instead of the individual queue depth, to get a better picture of the average resource utilization of the shared buffer space.

E.

WRED polices the shared buffer pool and marks all packets above a certain rate as "discard eligible."

Question 21

Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered macroflows.

Options:

A.

SAPs

B.

SDPs

C.

Services

D.

Queues

E.

Schedulers

F.

Forwarding classes

Question 22

Click the exhibit button below. Given that the slope-policy (below) has been enabled and applied on a network port, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before any in-profile is dropped.

B.

The time average factor of 0 will discard all packets arriving in the shared buffer pool.

C.

When the shared buffer utilization reaches 51%, in-profile packets might be dropped.

D.

The highest probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is 20%.

E.

When an in-profile packet arrives and the shared buffer utilization is at 69%, the packet will have approximately a 60% likelihood of being discarded.

Question 23

Given the scheduler-policy parameters shown, and assuming the offered rate of each queue is 10 Mbps, what are the operational PIR and CIR for queue 1?

Options:

A.

PIR = 4 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

B.

PIR = 1 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR = 10 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

D.

PIR = 5 Mbps, CIR = 5 Mbps

E.

PIR = 1.25 Mbps, CIR = 1.25 Mbps

Question 24

Click the exhibit button below. Given the output of the #show pools 1/2/2 network-egress command on a GigE port, what can the service provider deduce? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

QoS is not configured on the router.

B.

Packets in forwarding classes "be" and "12" are being queued.

C.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "ef" is not experiencing queuing delays.

D.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "11 "will never make use of the shared buffer pool.

E.

Out-of-profile traffic in the shared buffer pool is being dropped.

Question 25

Which of the following about VPRN Outbound Route Filtering (ORF) is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Resources consumed at the sender and receiver PEs can be reduced by using BGP ORF.

B.

BGP ORF allows a receiving PE to filter out unnecessary inbound routes.

C.

A PE indicates its ORF capabilities to its neighbor PE in a BGP Open message.

D.

BGP ORF is most effective when a large number of routes is being exchanged between two peers, and most routes are filtered out on arrival.

Question 26

The policies shown below from the configuration of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR have been created to implement an Extranet VPRN between the main sites of two separate VPRNs. How should these policies be applied?

Options:

A.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 1

B.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 2

C.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

D.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

E.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on all PEs connected to sites of Customer 1

Question 27

Which of the following is a characteristic of inter-AS model C VPRN?

Options:

A.

A data packet destined to a remote AS is encapsulated with three labels within the originating AS.

B.

The ASBR redistributes VPN-IPv4 updates to its ASBR eBGP peers.

C.

PE routers in different ASes exchange IPv4 routes directly between each other using eBGP.

D.

The advertising ASBR assigns a new label to the route before sending it via an MP-eBGP update to its ASBR peer.

Question 28

Which of the following statements best describes the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

The As-Path is not present as it was removed with the s-override configuration command

B.

The As-Path is not present as it was removed with the o-as-path configuration command

C.

The As-Path is not present as a policy was configured to set it to the null value

D.

The As-Path is not present as VPN-IPv4 routes do not propagate the IPv4 As-Path BGP attribute

Question 29

In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs

B.

A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE

C.

MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices

D.

MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices

E.

Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices

F.

A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices

Question 30

What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).

Options:

A.

Distributing customer routing information between sites

B.

Forwarding customer data packets

C.

Providing an integrated billing solution

D.

Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks

E.

Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core

Question 31

Where are VPN-IPv4 addresses used in a VPRN?

Options:

A.

In the routing updates exchanged from CE to PE

B.

In the routing updates exchanged from PE to PE

C.

In the routing updates exchanged from P to PE

D.

In customer packets as they traverse the provider core

E.

In all route tables of the VPRN control plane

Question 32

In a VPRN that uses MPLS transport tunnels, which of the following statements about P devices is TRUE?

Options:

A.

P devices participate in service provider core routing.

B.

P devices are not required to be MPLS-enabled.

C.

P devices must be aware of the VPRNs.

D.

P devices must support MP-BGP.

Question 33

If Route Reflector 1 (RR1) is used for Internet routes, and Route Reflector 2 (RR2) is used for VPN routes, which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

BGP sessions established between RR2 and the PEs support IPv4 and VPN-IPv4 address families.

B.

BGP sessions established between RR1 and the PEs support the IPv4 address family only.

C.

BGP sessions established between RR1 and the PEs support IPv4 and VPN-IPv4 address families.

D.

BGP sessions established between RR2 and the PEs support the IPv4 address family only.

Question 34

In a provider core consisting of 6 PE and 4 P routers, what is the minimum number of BGP sessions required in total for correct operation of VPRN services?

Options:

A.

0

B.

5

C.

10

D.

15

E.

45

Question 35

For a Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN where the customer carrier is an ISP that provides Internet connectivity to its end-customers, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Customer carrier PE routers residing in different sites must run iBGP between them to exchange customers' routes.

B.

MPLS can be used in the customer carrier network to improve scalability.

C.

The customer carrier network can be a pure IP network.

D.

A CSC VPRN is configured on the CSC-CE to forward data packets to the network provider.

Question 36

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model A VPRN, which of the following is FALSE when CE2 sends an IP packet to 192.168.1.1?

Options:

A.

CE2 forwards an unlabeled IP packet to PE2 via the VPRN interface.

B.

PE2 pushes two labels on the IP packet and label-switches the packet to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR2 pops one label from the IP packet and label-switches it to ASBR1.

D.

ASBR1 pushes two labels on the IP packet and label-switches the packet to PEL.

Question 37

Click the exhibit.

One Route Distinguisher is assigned per VRF. If CE1 and CE2 advertise prefix 10.1.1.0/24, which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 and PE2 advertise the same VPN route to the route reflector.

B.

The route reflector receives two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24; one from PE1 and one from PE2.

C.

The route reflector reflects two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24.

D.

PE3 receives two routes and is able to load balance traffic across PE1 and PE2.

Question 38

Which of the following about BGP loops in a VPRN environment is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traditional BGP loop detection mechanisms may detect a loop in the VPRN scenario, which in fact is not present.

B.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR accepts routes containing AS_PATH loops by default.

C.

When the CLI command "config>router>bgp# loop-detect discard-route" is used, the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR sends a notification to the remote peer and drops the BGP session.

D.

In VPRN implementations where the CE-PE protocol is BGP, it is possible for separate sites of the same customer to use the same BGP autonomous system number.

Question 39

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following is TRUE when CE2 sends an IP packet to 192.168.1.1?

Options:

A.

PE2 pushes one label on the IP packet and forwards it to ASBR2.

B.

ASBR2 sends the IP packet with one label to ASBR1.

C.

ASBR1 sends the IP packet with one label to PEL

D.

PE1 pops one label off the IP packet and forwards it to CE1.

Question 40

Which of the following about the configuration of VPRN Outbound Route Filtering (ORB on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The ORF configuration must be done under the BGP neighbor context only.

B.

When sending is enabled, the ORF function takes the route target list configured in all outbound policies and pushes this list to the peer by default.

C.

When configuring ORF, the session with the peer must be cleared/reset for the new capability negotiation to take place.

D.

When Outbound Route Filtering is configured, both the sending and acceptance of ORF are enabled by default.

Question 41

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model C VPRN, how many labels does PE1 push on a data packet received from CE1 and destined to CE2?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 42

What command is required to configure the PE devices for a VPRN service on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Family vpn-ipv4

B.

Family vprn-ipv4

C.

Family vprn

D.

Address-family vpn-ipv4

E.

Address-family vprn-ipv4

F.

Address-family vprn

Question 43

Which of the following protocols are supported by the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for the creation of transport tunnels within an autonomous system?

Options:

A.

MP-BGP, LDP, RSVP-TE

B.

LDP, RSVP-TE, GRE

C.

MP-BGP, RSVP-TE, GRE

D.

MP-BGP, LDP

E.

MP-BGP only

Question 44

VPN-IPv4 addressing is made unique by defining an address structure consisting of:

Options:

A.

A 32 bit IPv4 address followed by a 64 bit Route Target

B.

A 32 bit IPv4 address followed by a 64 bit Route Distinguisher

C.

A 64 bit Route Target followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address

D.

A 64 bit Route Distinguisher followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address

E.

A 32 bit Route Distinguisher followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address FA 32 bit Route Target followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address

Question 45

A service provider core consists of 6 PE and 4 P routers. Assuming route reflection is not used, how many internal BGP sessions are required in the service provider network for a correct operation of VPRN services?

Options:

A.

1

B.

5

C.

15

D.

30

E.

45

Question 46

When does a router add a Route Target to a route?

Options:

A.

When the P receives the route from the PE.

B.

When the PE populates the route received from the CE into the VRF.

C.

When the PE propagates the route to the CE.

D.

When the PE exports the route from the VRF into the MP-BGP table.

Question 47

When an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a BGP update containing an AS-Path loop, what is the default action?

Options:

A.

The update is accepted and the route installed in the route table.

B.

The update is accepted but the route will not be installed in the route table

C.

The update is rejected

D.

The peer session is dropped

Question 48

Click the exhibit.

For the Inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following about the inter-as-label output on ASBR1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

ASBR1 includes label 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

B.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to PEL

D.

ASBR1 includes labels 131068 and 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

Question 49

If the max remote-age timer of a B-VPLS is reached, what happens to the remotely learned MAC addresses in the l-VPLS service?

Options:

A.

There is no effect. The MAC addresses for the l-VPLS age out independently of the aging of B-VPLS addresses.

B.

The MAC addresses for the l-VPLS will age out immediately following the remote-age out of the backbone-macs of the B-VPLS.

C.

By default, the remote-age timer of the B-VPLS is configured to 0 and addresses do not age out. The l-VPLS uses its own timer.

D.

The same timer is used for B-VPLS and l-VPLS addresses on the node.

Question 50

What are the limitations of a traditional layer 2 switch? (Choose 3}

Options:

A.

Isolates collision domains.

B.

Requires layer 2 loop prevention.

C.

Slow response to topology changes.

D.

Limited to 4094 vlans per switch.

E.

Increased flooding.

Question 51

Which PDU type is sent periodically over a link in the IEEE 802.3ah EFM as a method of keepalive?

Options:

A.

Event notification.

B.

Loopback control.

C.

Information.

D.

Variable request.

E.

Variable response.

Question 52

What option is available when using PBB to reduce the amount of required VPLS services?

Options:

A.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports 1:1 mapping of I-VPLS services to B-VPLS services.

B.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports 1:1 andM:1 mapping of l-VPLS services to B- VPLS services.

C.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports the mapping of multiple, standard VPLS services to B-VPLS services.

D.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports the mapping of multiple, standard VPLS services to l-VPLS services.

Question 53

Which of the following statements about Spanning Tree Protocol is true?

Options:

A.

The switch with the lowest priority becomes the root.

B.

The switch with the highest priority becomes the root.

C.

The switch with the lowest MAC address always becomes the root.

D.

The switch with the highest MAC address always becomes the root.

Question 54

A customer has requested a VPLS service. The customer is using dot1q encapsulation and they have requested that all vlan tags be transparently passed. Which two SAP IDs will accept VLAN tags and pass them transparently? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1

B.

sap 1/1/1:0*

C.

sap 1/1/1:0

D.

sap 1/1/1:*

Question 55

Click on the exhibit below.

The following IP filter has been configured and applied to a SAP in a non-VPLS service. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

An error will be generated and the configuration will not be allowed.

B.

The filter entry will be ignored and traffic matching the criteria will be forwarded

C.

All traffic matching entry 20 will be dropped.

D.

Traffic matching entry 20 will be forwarded to sdp 100:1.

Question 56

Click on the exhibit below.

If the device connected to PE-A in Metro A sends a frame to PE-A that requires replication within the VPLS which devices is PE-A responsible for replicating the frame to?

Options:

A.

PE-A must replicate the frame to all devices participating in the VPLS

B.

PE-A must replicate the frame to all PEs within Metro A

C.

PE-A must replicate the frame to all devices in the Metro A

D.

All of the above

Question 57

Which of the following must be true in order to add a port to a LAG? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

ports must be on the same MDA

B.

ports must have the same speed and duplex settings

C.

auto negotiation must be on

D.

auto negotiation must be off or limited

E.

port must be in access mode only

Question 58

An l-VPLS is configured with a service id of 511. What will the value of the l-SID be assuming a default configuration?

Options:

A.

The 1-SID must be explicitly configured.

B.

The 1-SID only supports a range from 1 to 255.

C.

The 1-SID will default to 511 .the value of the service-id.

D.

Thel"SIDwilldefaultto131582, the value of the service-id + 131071.

Question 59

Click on the exhibit below.

Assume PE-B expects avian tag as part of the RFC 4762 (Martini) encapsulation. How must PE-A be configured?

Options:

A.

The port that the SAP belongs to must have the correct ether type configured.

B.

The SAP must be configured with the right VLAN tag.

C.

The SDP VC type must be configured as type VLAN and the correct vlan-vc-tag must be specified.

D.

All of the above.

Question 60

Click on the exhibit below.

Based on the following output what will the vc-id be of any mesh-sdp bound to this service?

Options:

A.

9000

B.

1514

C.

1000

D.

100

Question 61

Click on the exhibit below.

Based on the output below which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

This Bridge is furthest from the Root Bridge within the VPLS mesh.

B.

This Bridge is the Root Bridge.

C.

SAP 1/1/1 is an Edge Port.

D.

This Bridge is closest to the Root Bridge within the VPLS mesh.

Question 62

What of the following is a key benefit of Active/Standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

The MDU does not need to support MPLS.

B.

Can be used in ring networks of 4 or more nodes

C.

Does not require the use of a layer 2 loop prevention protocol such as RSTP

D.

The MDU does not have to be aware of the active/standby configuration

Question 63

Five VPLS services have been configured between two PE routers. What is the minimum amount of SDPs that must be configured?

Options:

A.

5-one for each service.

B.

2-one in each direction.

C.

10-five in each direction.

D.

None of the above.

Question 64

What scaling factors should a network engineer be aware of when designing VPLS networks? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Control plane scaling.

B.

Data plane scaling.

C.

Network touches.

D.

Route table reduction.

E.

OAM tools.

Question 65

A router has just learned the 10th MAC address while the FDB size is also set to 10. What is the likely outcome?

Options:

A.

The frame is dropped.

B.

The frame is always flooded

C.

The frame is forwarded and MAC learning is automatically disabled.

D.

The frame is discarded if the destination is unknown.

E.

More information is required to determine the fate of this new frame.

Question 66

Click on the exhibit below.

The VPLS service MTU on R2 is 1514 bytes. What must the service MTU be on all other routers participating in the VPLS?

Options:

A.

The service MTU must be equal to or smaller than 1514 bytes.

B.

The service MTU must be 1514 bytes.

C.

The service MTU must be equal to or greater than 1514 bytes.

D.

The service MTU can be any value.

Question 67

Click on the exhibit below.

CE-A sends frames with 2 tags. If the SAP on PE-A is "sap 1/1/1:1 .*" and the SAP on PE-B is "sap 1/1/1:100.200" how many tags will there be on the frame when it egresses from the SAP on PE-B?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

Question 68

Which failure scenario is NOT supported by IEEE 802.lag?

Options:

A.

Loss of connectivity.

B.

Unidirectional Loss.

C.

Loop detection.

D.

Merged Services.

E.

End-to-end bit error rates.

Question 69

Which of the following OAM tools can be used as a VPLS topology discovery mechanism (Choose 2)?

Options:

A.

oam mac-ping

B.

oam mac-populate

C.

oamsvc-ping

D.

oam mac-trace

Question 70

What is the default remote-age timer of a B-VPLS?

Options:

A.

The same timer is used in all VPLS types.

B.

Higher than the default timer of an I-VPLS.

C.

Lower than the default timer of an l-VPLS.

D.

The same timer as an l-VPLS.

Question 71

The command "send flush-on-failure" has been enabled within a VPLS instance. What does the PE do upon detection of a SAP failure within the VPLS?

Options:

A.

The PE sends an LDP control message that flushes all FDB entries in the VPLS instance.

B.

The PE sends an LDP control message that flushes all FDB entries in the VPLS instance that are associated with the PE that detected the failure.

C.

The PE flushes it's local FDB only.

D.

The PE sends an oam service message that flushes all FDB entries in the VPLS instance.

Question 72

The "discard-unknown" command has been enabled at the VPLS level. Which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Broadcast traffic will be flooded.

B.

If the unicastSA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

C.

If the unicast DA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

D.

All traffic will be dropped, including multicast and broadcast.

E.

Broadcast traffic will be dropped.

Question 73

Click the exhibit.

Routers RR1 are RR2 are redundant route reflectors for clients R3 and R4. Which of the following is a valid configuration on router RR1?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 74

What is the function of the Cluster_List attribute?

Options:

A.

It is used for loop detection within the same cluster.

B.

It is used for loop detection between clusters.

C.

It is used for loop detection in a confederation.

D.

It is used to identify the route reflectors within an AS.

Question 75

Click the exhibit.

Assume all router-IDs are properly configured, and link-local IPv6 addresses are used to establish the eBGP sessions. Which of the following is the MINIMAL configuration required on router A so that router B can exchange traffic with router D?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 76

Which of the following parameters does NOT have to match for an iBGP session to be successfully established?

Options:

A.

BGP version number.

B.

The local AS number.

C.

The Hold Time.

D.

Authentication.

Question 77

The user of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR wants to see the effect of changing an import policy immediately. What is the best command to force re-evaluation of the import policy with minimal impact?

Options:

A.

Configure router bgp shutdown

B.

Clear router bgp neighbor soft

C.

Clear router bgp neighbor soft-inbound

D.

Clear router bgp protocol

Question 78

Which of the following regarding the atomic aggregate attribute is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It is an optional transitive attribute.

B.

It is an optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the aggregator attribute is set.

D.

The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the AS Path information is lost due to aggregation.

Question 79

Which of the following is TRUE if a BGP session state is Connect?

Options:

A.

BGP is waiting for the TCP connection to be completed.

B.

BGP has established a TCP connection, and an Open message has been sent to that neighbor.

C.

The BGP session has been interrupted, and a TCP connection is being re-established.

D.

BGP has failed to establish a TCP connection to that neighbor, and ConnectRetry has been reset to zero.

Question 80

How is the aggregator attribute handled with 32-bit AS numbers?

Options:

A.

With the same method and attribute as 16-bit AS numbers.

B.

With the same method as 16-bit AS numbers, but using the AS4_Aggregator attribute.

C.

Aggregation is not yet supported with 32-bit AS numbers.

D.

By using a dummy value of 23456 in the 16-bit AS aggregator field. This value lets the router know it needs to read the 32-bit AS number that is contained in the nextTLV.

Question 81

When implementing a BGP policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following types of address space would a typical address plan need to cover?

Options:

A.

RIR assigned CIDR space.

B.

External client address space.

C.

Loopback or link addresses.

D.

External link addresses.

E.

All of the above.

Question 82

Which of the following regarding BGP confederations is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A confederation is a collection of Autonomous Systems advertised as a single AS number to BGP speakers outside the confederation.

B.

Each member AS must either maintain a full mesh of iBGP sessions, or use route reflection.

C.

Confederations can be used to subdivide ASs that have a large number of BGP speakers into smaller domains.

D.

A full mesh of intra-confederation eBGP sessions is required between the member ASs.

Question 83

Click the exhibit.

Which of the following statements best describes the BGP sessions within the given network?

Options:

A.

The session between AS 65202 and AS 65206 is an iBGP session.

B.

The session between AS 65204 and AS 65206 is an intra-confederation eBGP session.

C.

A BGP session is required between AS 65202 and AS 65204.

D.

The BGP sessions within the member ASs are known as inter-confederation BGP sessions.

Question 84

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an eBGP peer with a MED value of 500. What

MED value is sent to iBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

The IGP cost

C.

500

D.

None

Question 85

Click the exhibit.

Routers RR1 and RR2 are route reflectors with the same cluster-ID. How many updates for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 are received at router RR1?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 86

Click the exhibit.

AS 65550 owns the CIDR block 10.64.0.0/12. Router R4 advertises the aggregate 10.64.0.0/12 to AS65540. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the aggregate route advertisement?

Options:

A.

The aggregator attribute will not be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will not be set.

B.

The aggregator attribute will not be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will be set.

C.

The aggregator attribute will be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will not be set.

D.

The aggregator attribute will be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will be set.

Question 87

A router in AS 65100 receives two BGP routes. The first route is for 138.1.1.0/24 with an AS Path of 65200 65300, Local Preference of 100, MED of 100, and router ID 10.10.10.10. The second route is for 138.1.0.0/16 with an AS Path of 65500 65300, Local Preference of 150, MED of 100, and router ID 10.1.1.1. Assuming all other attributes are equal, which route would be used to forward an IP packet with destination IP address 138.1.1.1?

Options:

A.

The first BGP route.

B.

The second BGP route.

C.

Both routes are used.

D.

It is impossible to determine without the value of the origin code for both routes.

Question 88

Click the exhibit.

Router R6 is a route reflector for clients R1, R2 and R5 with local preferences 100, 200 and 500 respectively. Router R3 advertises prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R1, R2 and R5 which are configured with advertise-external. Routers R4 and R6 are both configured with "add-paths ipv4 send 2 receive". Which routes to 192.168.0.1/27 is router R4 expected to have in its BGP routing table?

Options:

A.

The routes from routers R1, R2 and R5.

B.

The routes from routers R1and R2.

C.

The routes from routers R2 and R5.

D.

Two routes are chosen at random and advertised to router R4.

Question 89

How are policy direction and data flow related on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Import policies affect ingress data flow.

B.

Export policies affect ingress data flow.

C.

Both import and export policies affect ingress data flow.

D.

Policy direction and data flow are independent.

Question 90

Click the exhibit.

If router A originates an update for prefix 192.168.0.1/27, what will the update contain when it reaches router B?

Options:

A.

AS Path of 65200, local-preference of 100.

B.

AS Path of 65200, local-preference of None.

C.

Null AS Path, local-preference of 100.

D.

Null AS Path, local-preference of None.

Question 91

Click the exhibit.

An update travels from AS 135000 to AS 137000, traversing both 32-bit and 16-bit AS paths.

What will the AS Path be when the update reaches AS 137000?

Options:

A.

140000 200 135000

B.

137000 140000 200 135000

C.

140000 23456 135000

D.

135000 200 140000

Question 92

What class of attribute is Originator_ID?

Options:

A.

Well-known mandatory.

B.

Well-known discretionary.

C.

Optional transitive.

D.

Optional non-transitive.

Question 93

Which of the following is NOT a goal of BGP routing policies?

Options:

A.

To protect external networks from instability.

B.

To communicate the architecture of an AS to external ASs.

C.

To protect the local AS and other external ASs from bad NLRI.

D.

To optimize ingress and egress traffic patterns to best serve the users of the AS.

Question 94

Which of the following statements regarding the Originator_ID attribute is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The BGP router that originates an update sets the Originator_ID.

B.

The Originator_IDis set to the ClusterJD of the advertising router reflector.

C.

Both confederation and route reflector topologies use the Originator_ID.

D.

A BGP router ignores an update that contains its own BGP router ID as Originator_ID.

Question 95

Click the exhibit.

Which of the following about the relationship between ISP 1 and ISP 3 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

ISP 1 is downstream from ISP 3 and is expected to push more traffic toward ISP 3 than it pulls from it.

B.

ISP 3 is downstream from ISP 1 and is expected to push more traffic toward ISP 1 than it pulls from it.

C.

ISP 1 is downstream from ISP 3 and is expected to pull more traffic from ISP 3 than it pushes toward it.

D.

ISP 3 is downstream from ISP1 and is expected to pull more traffic from ISP 1 than it pushes toward it.

Demo: 95 questions
Total 639 questions