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Nokia 4A0-C01 Nokia NRS II Composite Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 127 questions
Total 852 questions

Nokia NRS II Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

A network technician needs to set up a local mirror to replicate traffic for examination with a protocol analyzer. The analyzer is on port 1/1/4 of his service router. Which of the following configuration steps is required?

Options:

A.

A mirror source listing port 1/1/4.

B.

A mirror destination listing port 1/1/4.

C.

A remote source command indicating the IP address of the service router he is configuring a local mirror on.

D.

Verification that his IP/MPLS infrastructure is in place

E.

None of the above.

Question 2

Once a service has been created with a customer association, it is possible to change the customer association.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 3

By default, what happens when a packet with a VLAN tag is received on a SAP provisioned with null encapsulation?

Options:

A.

The original VLAN tag is removed.

B.

The original VLAN tag is kept.

C.

The VLAN tag is replaced by a provider tag.

D.

The VLAN tag is kept and a provider tag is added.

Question 4

Click the exhibit.

The output is from PE router R4 about VPRN service 100. How many prefixes have been learned from the MP-BGP protocol?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

3

D.

6

Question 5

Which of the following about route distinguishes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishes are used to ensure that VPRN IP prefixes are globally unique.

B.

Route distinguishes are appended to IPv4 prefixes to form IPv6 prefixes.

C.

Route distinguishes are used to determine which routes a VPRN should import.

D.

CE routes use a route distinguisher to indicate which VPRN they are associated to.

Question 6

If the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is rebooted after an "admin save'' has been performed, which of the following about mirror services is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Only the mirror source must be re-configured.

B.

Only the mirror destination must be re-configured.

C.

Both the mirror destination and mirror source must be re-configured.

D.

Neither the mirror destination nor the mirror source must be re-configured.

Question 7

Click the exhibit.

This PE is connected to an IPv4 core and is being configured to support 6VPE for a VPRN. Which of the following completes this section of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Family ipv4

B.

Family ipv6

C.

Family ipv4 ipv6

D.

Family vpn-ipv4

E.

Family vpn-ipv4 vpn-ipv6

Question 8

Click the exhibit.

The operator at PE1 wants to analyze the traffic between CE4 and PE2. On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following is required as part of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Both PE1 and PE2 need a mirror source.

B.

PE2 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.

C.

PE1 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.

D.

Both PE1 and PE2 need a mirror destination.

E.

PE2 needs a mirror destination that specifies a SAP.

Question 9

When configuring distributed services across a network, it is considered best practice to configure which of the following parameters as globally significant?

Options:

A.

Customer ID and SAP ID.

B.

Customer ID and Service ID.

C.

SAP ID and Service ID.

D.

SDP ID and Service ID.

E.

SDP ID and SAP ID.

F.

SDP ID and VC ID.

Question 10

What needs to be configured before a SAP appears? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Configuring the physical port in access mode.

B.

Configuring the physical port in network mode.

C.

Enabling the port using the no shutdown command.

D.

Ports are enabled by default, thus no need to use the no shutdown command.

Question 11

Click the exhibit.

This is output from router R4. Service 333 is a VPLS. Why does peer 10.10.10.1 not have an EgrLbl?

Options:

A.

The SDP to 10.10.10.1 on router R4 is shutdown.

B.

Router R4 has not sent a label to router R1 (10.10.10.1) yet.

C.

10.10.10.1 has a different service MTU set.

D.

10.10.10.1 has not sent a label to router R4 yet.

Question 12

An E-pipe is configured with a service MTU of 5000. What is the minimum MTU value that should be set on an access port for a dot1q encapsulated SAP on this service?

Options:

A.

5000

B.

5004

C.

5008

D.

5014

Question 13

Click the exhibit.

This output is from PE router R1. Based on the output about VPRN 100, how many prefixes has router R1 learned from CE router R5?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

3

D.

6

Question 14

What is the minimum Ethernet physical network MTU required for a Layer 2 service on an MPLS encapsulated SDP with a service MTU of 1518?

Options:

A.

1520

B.

1540

C.

1548

D.

1556

Question 15

In a Layer 2 VPN service, the FCS is stripped when a customer packet arrives at the ingress PE and regenerated on egress.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 16

Which of the following about SDPs is FALSE?

Options:

A.

All services bound to the same SDP must be the same service type.

B.

All services bound to the same SDP will have the same transport encapsulation.

C.

Any operation on an SDP will affect all services bound to that SDP.

D.

An SDP is used to direct traffic for a service from one router to another.

Question 17

What is the best approach of making MTUs match between a VPLS and a spoke IES in order to bring up the service?

Options:

A.

Change the service MTU of the VPLS to match the IES.

B.

Set the ip-mtu of the IES service to match the service MTU of the VPLS service.

C.

Change the MTU of the SDP attached to the VPLS to match the service MTU of the VPLS.

D.

Set the DNF flag on the IES service.

Question 18

Which of the following about configuring a distributed E-pipe service is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The VC ID on the mesh SDP must be explicitly configured.

B.

The VC ID on the spoke SDP must be explicitly configured.

C.

The VC ID on the mesh SDP does not have to be explicitly configured and it will use the service id.

D.

The VC ID on the spoke SDP does not have to be explicitly configured and it will use the service id.

Question 19

Click the exhibit.

The CEs use BGP and export policies to advertise their local prefixes with the VPRN on their PEs. If the VPRN is functioning properly, which of the following commands will succeed when performed on router R1?

Options:

A.

"ping 192.168.20.1"

B.

"oam vprn-ping 100 source 192.168.10.1 destination 192.168.20.1"

C.

"oam vprn-ping 100 source 192.168.20.1 destination 192.168.10.1"

D.

"ping 10.10.10.6" (router R6's system IP)

Question 20

What command syntax would be used to create a new routed interface on an existing IES service?

Options:

A.

config>service>ies# interface "to-CE" customer customer-id create

B.

config>service>ies# interface to CE create

C.

config>service>ies# interface to CE

D.

config>service>ies# interface "to-CE" create

Question 21

Click the exhibit.

Routes are exchanged between CE1 and PE1 using BGP. CE2 and PE2 use static routes to forward traffic to and from the VPRN. Which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

An export policy is required on PE1 to advertise routes to CE1.

B.

An export policy is required on CE1 to advertise local routes to PEL

C.

An export policy is required to advertise routes between the PE routers.

D.

No export policy is required on PE2 or CE2 due to the static routes.

Question 22

How many service labels must be signaled to bring up a fully-meshed VPLS among five PE routers?

Options:

A.

1

B.

5

C.

10

D.

20

Question 23

An SDP using MPLS encapsulation is configured for an E-pipe service. The network port on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR used by the SDP has an MTU of 8000. What is the SDP path MTU?

Options:

A.

7958

B.

7978

C.

8022

D.

8042

Question 24

Click the exhibit.

This output is from a router that is part of a 6VPE deployment using a VPRN. Which type of router would this configuration be found on?

Options:

A.

A CE router.

B.

A P router.

C.

A PE router.

D.

Both P and PE routers.

Question 25

Which service type is needed to bridge an ATM-attached user and an Ethernet-attached user?

Options:

A.

A-pipe

B.

F-pipe

C.

C-pipe

D.

E-pipe

Question 26

Which of the following about route distinguishes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishes are contained in VPN-IPv4 prefixes.

B.

Route distinguishes allow the same IP prefix to be used for more than one destination in a single VPRN.

C.

Route distinguishes allow MP-BGP to manage multiple routes for the same IP prefix.

D.

Route distinguishes are only used by the PE routes.

Question 27

By default, what does a PE do to support VPLS services for different customers? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

MAC learning.

B.

Maintain a different Forwarding Data Base for each service

C.

ARP mediation.

D.

Maintain a different Routing Information Base for each service.

Question 28

Which of the following can be used to detect the smallest path MTU in an RSVP signaled MPLS tunnel?

Options:

A.

ADSPEC

B.

CSPF

C.

Service ping

D.

LSP trace

Question 29

Which of the following about ADSPEC is FALSE?

Options:

A.

ADSPEC sets an SDP's MTU to the smallest MTU value found along the LSP path.

B.

RSVP must be enabled on all MPLS routers of a path to use ADSPEC.

C.

ADSPEC can automatically adjust the service MTU.

D.

ADSPEC can be enabled on individual LSPs.

Question 30

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which vc-type will forward service delimiting tags at the ingress PE?

Options:

A.

vc-type ether

B.

vc-type vlan

C.

vc-type dot1q

D.

vc-type null

Question 31

Which one of the following items CANNOT be used as a mirror source on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

IP filter

B.

MAC filter

C.

Egress label

D.

Ingress label

Question 32

On a dot1Q encapsulated port, frames with a VLAN tag of 0 and untagged frames are forwarded to the null SAP

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 33

In an OSPF environment, what must a router receive after it sends out an update?

Options:

A.

The router must receive an acknowledgment

B.

The router must receive a Hello

C.

The router must receive a new sequence number

D.

The router must receive a Link State Packet

Question 34

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route via an IS-IS LSP with internal reach ability, and receives the same route via an OSPF type 5 LSA. If al protocol preferences are default, which route will be installed in the route table?

Options:

A.

The route learned via IS-IS will be installed.

B.

The route learned via the OSPF type 5 LSA will be installed.

C.

Both routes will be installed, if ECMP is enabled.

D.

Both routes will be installed, regardless of whether ECMP is enabled.

Question 35

A default route for a client is also known as the:

Options:

A.

Default path

B.

Default gateway

C.

Gateway path

D.

Proxy ARP

Question 36

Click the exhibit button.

Assuming that the router ID of the router shown is 10.10.10.4, which of the following statements regarding the CLI output is true?

Options:

A.

The router with router ID 10.10.10.5 is an ASBR.

B.

The router with router ID 10.10.10.3 is an ASBR.

C.

The router with router ID 10.10.10.5 originated the AS summary LSA in its own area.

D.

The router with router ID 10.10.10.4 is in the same area as the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.

Question 37

There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the "configure router static-route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1" command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

traceroute 10.2.3.1

B.

traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1

C.

traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1

D.

traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

E.

traceroute 10.1.2.1

Question 38

Click the exhibit button.

For the IS-IS network shown, and assuming point-to-point links, what adjacencies will router R1 establish?

Options:

A.

L1/L2 adjacency with router R2.

L1 adjacency with router R3

B.

L2 adjacency with router R2

L1 adjacency with router R3

C.

L1/L2 adjacency with router R2

L1/L2 adjacency with router R3

D.

L1/L2 adjacency with router R2.

L1 adjacency with router R4

L1 adjacency with router R3

Question 39

What command will show the OSPF neighbors, and their status on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Show ospf neighbors

B.

Show router ospf neighbors

C.

Show router ospf adjacency

D.

Show ospf adjacency

Question 40

Refer to the exhibit below. IS-IS IPv6 routing is configured in the network with globally routed addresses as shown. How many routes will R4 have in its IPv6 route table?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

6

F.

7

Question 41

Graceful Restart is supported by what IGPs?

Options:

A.

RIPv1 and RIPv2

B.

OSPF

C.

IS-IS

D.

BGP

Question 42

Click the exhibit button.

In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation is true?

Options:

A.

Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.

B.

Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.

C.

Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.

D.

Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 2.

Question 43

Which of the following statements regarding OSPF routing updates on a multi-access network segment is true?

Options:

A.

In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected only if there are more than two routers connected to the network segment.

B.

In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected only if the subnet masks on the router interfaces are less than /30

C.

In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected. To ensure resiliency, both the DR and BDR send link-state advertisements describing the network.

D.

In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected. The DR sends link-state advertisements describing the network.

Question 44

What are the types of networks supported on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for OSPF? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Broadcast

B.

Non-Broadcast Multi-Access

C.

Point-to-Point

D.

Point-to-Multipoint

Question 45

What command is used on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to define the default action to be taken if a packet does not match any entry in an IP filter?

Options:

A.

config>filter# default-action XXX

B.

config>filter>ip-filter# default-action XXX

C.

config>filter# default-mode XXX

D.

config>filter>ip-filter# default-mode XXX

Question 46

What is wrong with the following filter configuration from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

RTR-B# configure filter

RTR-B>config>filter# ip-filter 1 create

RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter$ entry 1 create

RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter>entry$ match src-ip 172.2.0.0/16

RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter>entry# action drop

RTR-B# configure router interface toRTR-A

RTR-B>config>router>if# egress

RTR-B>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

Options:

A.

There is nothing wrong with this filter

B.

The filter should be applied to the ingress and not the egress.

C.

The mask cannot be a "/" value, it must be in dotted decimal.

D.

All traffic is being blocked

Question 47

Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many connected networks, and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following best describes the likely configuration?

Options:

A.

The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more specific static route.

B.

The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.

C.

The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.

D.

The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office router will have a default route.

Question 48

Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.

B.

Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.

C.

An adjacency database is maintained by each router.

D.

The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.

E.

The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.

Question 49

Click the exhibit button

The 192 168 3.0/24 network is learned on router R1 via IS-IS Given the OSPF configuration shown, and assuming that the OSPF adjacency between routers R1 and R3 is up, why is the 192 168.3.0/24 route not in router R3's route table? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The route policy should be applied as in import policy

B.

The no-redistribute-external command is used on router R1

C.

The route policy is incorrect. It should say "from protocol ISIS" rather than "from protocol direct".

D.

It is not possible to be an ASBR and an NSSA. The ASBR configuration should be removed.

E.

The interface between routers R1 and R3 needs to be in OSPF area 0 rather than OSPF area 1 because a backbone area must always exist.

Question 50

What is the CIDR summary for the block of networks from 193.4532.0/24 to 193.45.47.0/24?

Options:

A.

193.45 32 0/20

B.

193.45.0.0/21

C.

192.45.32.0/21

D.

192.45.0.0/20

Question 51

Click the exhibit button.

Router R2 advertises the network 192.168.3.0/24 to router R1 via RIP.

How can router R1 ensure that it discards the route?

Options:

A.

Use an import policy and a prefix list on router R1 to reject this route.

B.

Use a prefix list on router R1 to discard all ingress IS-IS routes.

C.

Use an export policy and prefix list on router R1 to reject this route.

D.

This is not possible because RIP cannot use import policies.

Question 52

Which of the following features are supported by IS-IS? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

PDU authentication.

B.

The ability to customize the link cost metric.

C.

Use of Bellman-Ford routing algorithm.

D.

Classless routing.

E.

Updates sent as layer 3 multicast.

Question 53

From the list below identify two matching criteria supported for IP filters on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR: (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DSCP marking

B.

Class of Service Marking

C.

DSAP marking

D.

ICMP type

Question 54

What is the source IP address in an OSPF update?

Options:

A.

224.0.0.5

B.

224.0.0.6

C.

The unicast IP address of the interface the update is being sent on.

D.

The system address of the router

Question 55

Which of the following conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the full state? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

MTU mismatch

B.

Incorrect subnet mask

C.

System interface not included in OSPF

D.

Area ID not the same

E.

Different metric set on each end of the link

F.

Router ID not defined

Question 56

Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true?

(Choose two answers).

Options:

A.

RIPv1, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.

B.

OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.

C.

Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted beyond the immediate neighbor.

D.

Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.

E.

Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect

Question 57

Which one of the commands below will create a static route to network 2.3.4.0/24 on the AlcatelLucent 7750 SR router?

Options:

A.

Static route 2.3.4.0 255.255.255.0 next hop 3.4.5.6

B.

Static-route next-hop 3.4.5.6 2.3.4.0/24

C.

Static route 2.3.4.0/24 next hop 3.4.5.6

D.

Static-route 2.3.4.0/24 next-hop 3.4.5.6

Question 58

Which of the following statements regarding link state protocols are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

When a router receives updates from its neighbors, it adds them to its link state database, performs an SPF computation, and sends the results to its neighbors.

B.

An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be seen in the route table.

C.

Each router constructs its own link state database with updates received from neighbors.

D.

An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be offered to the route table manager.

Question 59

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of RIPv1?:

Options:

A.

30 second network updates

B.

Classless routing

C.

Broadcast advertisement

D.

Poison Reverse

Question 60

Which of the following LSA types stay within an OSPF area, and are not flooded outside of the area? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

Router LSA

B.

Network LSA

C Summary network LSA

C.

Summary router LSA

D.

Type 5 (AS external) LSAs

Question 61

In IS-IS, which of the following statements regarding an L1/L2 router is false?

Options:

A.

An L1/L2 router can have neighbors in different areas.

B.

An L1/L2 router calculates separate SPF trees for the Level 1 and Level 2 topology.

C.

An L1/L2 router advertises its L2 routes to its L1 neighbors.

D.

An L1/L2 router sets the ATT bit in L1 LSPs to identify itself as an L1 router.

Question 62

Which of the following statements regarding IS-IS DIS is false?

Options:

A.

L1 and L2 routers elect separate DIS's.

B.

DIS uses multicast address 0180x200:0015 to communicate with other routers on the broadcast network.

C.

If a new router starts up in a LAN and has a higher interface priority, the new router preempts the original DIS and becomes the DIS.

D.

In broadcast multi-access networks, such as Ethernet, a single router is elected as the DIS. There is no backup DIS

Question 63

What is the metric and maximum routable value for RIP?

Options:

A.

Hop count and 16

B.

Hop count and 15

C.

Link cost and 15

D.

Link cost and 16

Question 64

Click the exhibit button.

A static route has been configured on router R1 to reach the PC at 139.120.121.2. However, as shown in the exhibit, the ping fails. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

Options:

A.

Router R2 does not have a route to the system address of router R1 and therefore cannot respond to the ping.

B.

There is no default route configured on the PC.

C.

Router R2 does not have a route configured to the PC.

D.

Router R1 needs to be configured with a default route.

Question 65

Which of the following about Fast Reroute link protection tunnels is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Link protection tunnels are established if a router is unable to establish node protection tunnels.

B.

Link protection tunnels are only requested for a primary LSP path.

C.

Link protection tunnels can be created for both one-to-one or facility Fast Reroute.

D.

Link protection tunnels detour around a failed next downstream router.

Question 66

Click on the exhibit.

This policy is applied as an LDP export policy. In addition to the FECs learned from its neighbors, which FECs now appear in the router's LIB?

Options:

A.

Local FECs not included in the 192.168.1.0/24 address space and the system IP FEC.

B.

Only the system IP FEC appears in the LIB.

C.

Any local FECs, except those with a 24-bit mask.

D.

Local FECs in the 192.168.1.0/24 address space.

Question 67

What is the purpose of a T-LDP session?

Options:

A.

It allows link LDP to be configured on the edge devices only.

B.

It is used to signal the transport labels in the provider core.

C.

It allows selective control over which devices are configured for LDP.

D.

It is used to signal the service labels in the provider core.

Question 68

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding sdp-ping? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Provides a mechanism to determine the hops an SDP traverses.

B.

Provides in-band uni-directional connectivity tests.

C.

Provides in-band round-trip connectivity tests.

D.

Tests ability of reaching the far-end IP address of an SDP ID within the SDP encapsulation.

E.

Provides information regarding the exact MTU supported between service ingress and service termination.

Question 69

Which of the following about RSVP-TE is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It supports traffic protection using IGP equal cost paths.

B.

It supports CAC to prevent resource overbooking.

C.

It supports LSPs with traffic engineering constraints.

D.

It supports LSPs that follow the IGP best path.

Question 70

Which of the following commands is used to enable an Epipe service?

Options:

A.

config>service# epipe service-id enable

B.

config>service# vpws service-id enable

C.

config>service# service-id no shutdown

D.

config>port# port-id no shutdown

E.

config>service# epipe service-id no shutdown

Question 71

A network consists of 4 PE routers. A customer requires a VPLS service and has sites connected to each PE. Each site must have direct connectivity with all other sites. How many SDPs must be configured on each PE?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 72

Which of the following regarding MPLS label value assignment is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Label values may be dynamically assigned by LDP.

B.

Label values may be dynamically assigned by RSVP-TE.

C.

Label values may be reserved for special uses.

D.

Label values may be dynamically assigned by IGP.

Question 73

Click on the exhibit.

If the primary path fails, which backup LSP path will the head-end router pick first?

Options:

A.

The Standby with the highest next-hop IP.

B.

The first Standby in the list.

C.

The Standby with the longest uptime.

D.

The Standby with the lowest next-hop IP.

Question 74

Which of the following about configuring an LSP path definition on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A path definition can have both loose and strict hops.

B.

A path definition can be configured with loose hops only.

C.

A path definition is configured on the head-end router only,

D.

A path definition is not required if CSPF is enabled on an LSP.

Question 75

Which of the following messages is NOT used in T-LDP operation?

Options:

A.

Hello message

B.

Init message

C.

Keepalive message

D.

Label Mapping message

E.

ACK message

Question 76

Which of the following modes are used by RSVP-TE on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Independent control mode, downstream on demand

B.

Independent control mode, downstream unsolicited

C.

Ordered control mode, downstream on demand

D.

Ordered control mode, downstream unsolicited

Question 77

Which of the following best describes downstream unsolicited label distribution?

Options:

A.

An LSR may answer requests for label mappings immediately, without waiting for a label mapping from the next-hop.

B.

An LSR may advertise label mappings to all peers for which it might be a next-hop for a given FEC.

C.

An LSR propagates a label mapping downstream for a FEC, only if it has a label mapping for the FEC next-hop.

D.

An LSR will only distribute a label for a FEC when it has been requested to do so.

Question 78

Which of the following about the use of RRO in fast reroute is FALSE?

Options:

A.

RRO is used to report the protection tunnel status to the head-end router.

B.

RRO contains the MP information that is required by a PLR for facility protection.

C.

RRO contains the label information that is expected by an MP for facility protection.

D.

RRO is used to inform downstream routers about the protection type requested.

Question 79

Using facility mode fast reroute, how does the PLR learn the address of the MP?

Options:

A.

The PLR issues an RSVP PATH message to the tail-end requesting the address of the MP.

B.

The PLR learns the address of the MP from the ERO.

C.

The PLR learns the address of the MP from the RRO.

D.

The PLR learns the address of the MP from the targeted RSVP Hello message.

E.

The PLR knows the address of the MP is the same as the tail-end router.

Question 80

Which of the following best describes downstream on demand label distribution?

Options:

A.

An LSR answers requests for label mappings immediately, without waiting for a label mapping from the next-hop.

B.

An LSR advertises label mappings to all peers for which it might be a next-hop for a given FEC.

C.

An LSR distributes a label mapping for a FEC when it has been requested to do so.

D.

An LSR propagates a label mapping downstream for a FEC. only if it has a label mapping for the FEC's next-hop.

Question 81

Click on the exhibit.

Under which condition might the peer entry with an LDP ID of 10.10.10.2:0 show the state "Nonexistent"?

Options:

A.

When the interface to the peer router is down.

B.

When router R1 has no route to the peer address 10.10.10.2.

C.

When LDP is not configured on the peer router's interface.

D.

When the targeted session is not configured.

Question 82

Which of the following most accurately describes the default behavior of a VPLS regarding the handling of a tagged frame at the ingress of SAP 1/1/1:100?

Options:

A.

The FCS is verified and the customer frame is transported intact over the service provider network.

B.

The FCS is verified and kept in the customer frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over the network.

C.

The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is kept for transport over the network.

D.

The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over the network.

Question 83

Click on the exhibit.

A fully loose LSP "toR6" is configured. All links have the same cost and all routers are Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs. The LSP currently traverses the path R1-R2-R7-R8-R4-R6 and the resignal timer is enabled. Which of the following about this LSP is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The LSP will switchover to another path if a failure occurs.

B.

The LSP will switchover to a better path as soon as it is available.

C.

CSPF must be enabled for this LSP to attempt to find a better path.

D.

The LSP will switchover to a better path in a MBB fashion.

Question 84

Which of the following devices assumes the active role during the establishment of an LDP session?

Options:

A.

The peer with the higher physical address.

B.

The peer with the higher transport address.

C.

The peer with the lower physical address.

D.

The peer with the lower transport address.

E.

The peer that generated the first Hello message.

Question 85

What is the default vc-type for an SDP on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

vc-type null

B.

vc-type ether

C.

vc-type vlan

D.

vc-type none

Question 86

Which of the following commands would be used to show the operational state of all IES services?

Options:

A.

show service id 5

B.

show service ies

C.

show service service-using ies

D.

show service id 5 base

Question 87

Which of the following best completes the sentence: "An Internet Enhanced Service is a_____________ service where the CE communicates with a ________________interface to send and receive traffic.

Options:

A.

distributed/virtual

B.

local/sub

C.

routed/Layer 3

D.

distributed/routed

E.

Layer 2/loopback

Question 88

Which of the following about an ERO in an RSVP PATH message is FALSE?

Options:

A.

ERO is used by downstream routers to determine the next-hop for the LSP.

B.

ERO contains label information used to signal an LSP path.

C.

ERO is not always present in the PATH message.

D.

Each downstream router updates information inside the ERO.

Question 89

Click on the exhibit.

Two LSPs traverse the path R1-R2-R3. Both LSPs are configured with facility fast reroute and link protection. When router R1 is the PLR, which router becomes the Merge Point (MP) for this LSP?

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

E.

Router R5

Question 90

What action does a router perform when it looks up the label of an incoming packet in its LFIB and sees that the LFIB maps to an egress label of 3?

Options:

A.

It requests a new label from the peer that provided this label.

B.

It pops the label.

C.

It pushes an additional label onto the label stack.

D.

It signals a new label to the peer that sent the packet.

Question 91

Click on the exhibit.

Which of the following about the bypass tunnel is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The router 10.10.10.1 is a PLR providing node protection for the router 10.10.10.3.

B.

One-to-one fast reroute protection is requested by an LSP.

C.

The bypass-link tunnel is used to avoid the link with the egress interface address 10.3.4.4.

D.

The bypass-node tunnel is used to avoid the next-hop downstream router 10.10.10.3.

Question 92

Click on the exhibit button below.

Assuming the customer only needs to monitor traffic from PE3 to the customer site, what three items are missing from PE3's configuration? (Assume that the IP/MPLS network structure between the local and remote PEsis in place.)

Options:

A.

The mirror destination configuration on PE5 is missing the "remote-source" command,

B.

The mirror destination on PE3 needs a "remote-source" command.

C.

The mirror service IDs on the local and remote destinations must match.

D.

The mirror source on PE3 needs a "remote-source" command.

E.

The mirror source command on the remote PE3 needs a command that tells it to monitor port 1/1/2.

Question 93

Fragmentation is supported on a Layer 2 service

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 94

Which tree in the CLI would you need to be in to add a QoS policy to a SAP?

Options:

A.

config>router#

B.

config>qos#

C.

config>port#

D.

config>service#

Question 95

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?

Options:

A.

Multiple MP-BGP sessions are required to carry VPN-IPv4 and VPN-IPv6 routes.

B.

PE routers must support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses; customer routers can use either one

C.

In 6VPE, MP-BGP is used to advertise IPv6 prefixes and the associated VPRN label.

D.

In 6VPE, the provider core routers are IPv6-unaware.

E.

All of the above statements are true.

F.

All of the above statements are false.

Question 96

VPWS allows carriers to offer services such as point-to-point frame-relay, ATM, and Ethernet on a single platform without the need for multiple overlay networks.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 97

Click on the exhibit.

The numbers beside the links are the metrics for that link.

Given the diagram, what path will traffic follow from router R2 to router R8, and from router R8 to router R2, if IS-IS is the routing protocol?

Options:

A.

Router R2 to router R8 will follow (R2-R3-R5-R7-R8). Router R8 to R2 will follow (R8-R7-R5-R3-R2)

B.

Router R2 to router R8 will follow (R2-R3-R4-R6-R7-R8). Router R8 to R2 will follow (R8-R7-R6-R4-R3-R2)

C.

Router R2 to router R8 will follow (R2-R3-R5-R7-R8). Router R8 to R2 will follow (R8-R7-R6-R4-R3-R2)

D.

Router R2 to router R8 will follow (R2-R3-R4-R6-R7-R8) Router R8 to R2 will follow (R8-R7-R5-R3-R2)

Question 98

In an OSPF network, which of the following is NOT a result of manual summarization on an ABR?

Options:

A.

It can reduce the topological database size.

B.

It can reduce the size of the route table.

C.

It can reduce the number of Summary LSAs.

D.

It can reduce the number of Router LSAs.

Question 99

What is the primary purpose of variable length subnet masks (VLSM)?

Options:

A.

To reduce the size of each routing update.

B.

To allow interoperability between routing protocols.

C.

To allow different subnet masks for different subnets.

D.

To reduce the size of the routing table.

Question 100

Click on the exhibit.

All ports in the network are operationally up and have a speed of 1Gbps.

Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Data traffic from network 192.168.1.0/24 to 192.168.3.0/24 will be forwarded through router R2.

B.

Data traffic from network 192.168.3.0/24 to 192.168.1.0/24 will be forwarded through router R2.

C.

The system interface of routers R1 and R3 must be included into OSPF for traffic to flow between the 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.3.0/24 networks.

D.

The OSPF adjacency between router R1 and router R3 is operationally down.

Question 101

Which of the following LDP messages are used in the successful establishment of LDP sessions? Choose three answers

Options:

A.

Label request message

B.

Notification message

C.

Address message

D.

Keepalive message

E.

Initialization message

F.

Hello message

Question 102

Which OSPFv3 LSA is similar to the OSPFv2 Type 5 LSA?

Options:

A.

AS External

B.

Inter-Area Prefix

C.

Inter-Area Router

D.

Intra-Area Prefix

Question 103

Click on the exhibit button below.

Consider the output shown; why is the label in bold font not in use?

Options:

A.

The router cannot do a SWAP of this label.

B.

The label does not match the egress label for the same FEC.

C.

The label is for a FEC for which the next-hop is the peer router

D.

The label was signaled in error.

Question 104

Which of the following is described by the following statement? An LSR propagates a label mapping only for a FEC for which it has a label mapping for the FEC next-hop.

Options:

A.

Independent control mode

B.

Ordered control mode

C.

Liberal label retention

D.

Conservative label retention

E.

Downstream on demand.

Question 105

Which is the OSPFv3 equivalent to the OSPFv2 Type 7 LSA?

Options:

A.

Intra-Area Prefix LSA

B.

Router LSA

C.

AS External LSA

D.

NSSA LSA

Question 106

Which of the following conditions must a router meet for an LSP path's RSVP session to exist? Choose two answers

Options:

A.

The router must build the Path State Block (PSB).

B.

The router must build the Reservation State Block (RSB).

C.

The router must build the Session State Block (SSB)

D.

The router must send the second RESV refresh message.

E.

The router must receive the second PATH refresh message.

Question 107

Which type of OSPF LSA lists the routers attached to a broadcast network?

Options:

A.

Type 1

B.

Type 2

C.

Type 3

D.

Type 4

E.

Type 5

Question 108

Which field of an IPv6 header indicates an upper layer protocol carried in the packet?

Options:

A.

Next Header

B.

Traffic Class

C.

Flow Label

D.

Payload Length

E.

Options

Question 109

Which of the following prerequisites must you configure on a router to enable LDP-over-RSVP support? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Configure the T-LDP peers for tunneling.

B.

Configure tunneled T-LDP sessions between PE routers.

C.

Enable Idp-over-rsvp in the IGP configuration on the PEs and ABRs

D.

Enable LSP stitching on the RSVP LSPs

Question 110

Click on the exhibit.

Which router is the designated router for the broadcast network?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.2

B.

10.10.10.3

C.

10.10.10.6

D.

There is not enough information given to determine the designated router.

Question 111

Click on the exhibit.

What does the field "2001:DB8:111::/64" represent?

Options:

A.

The router's system address.

B.

The next-hop prefix.

C.

The interface's global prefix.

D.

The next-hop system address.

Question 112

Which part of the NSAP address is used to indicate to the end system that a packet is to be processed by the router itself?

Options:

A.

AFI

B.

IDI

C.

HO-DSP

D.

NSEL

Question 113

Which of the following devices receives labeled packets from the MPLS domain, removes the MPLS header, and forwards unlabeled packets outside the MPLS domain?

Options:

A.

P router

B.

LSR

C.

eLER

D.

iLER

Question 114

Click on the exhibit.

Given the contents of the Router LSA, which of the following best describes the local topology of the router?

Options:

A.

The router has a system interface, two point-to-point interfaces and one broadcast interface.

B.

The router has a system interface, two passive interfaces, two point-to-point interfaces and one broadcast interface.

C.

The router has a system interface, two point-to-point interfaces and one virtual link.

D.

The router has a system interface, two passive interfaces, two point-to-point interfaces and one virtual link.

Question 115

In OSPFv3, which of the following LSA types carries prefixes and is only flooded in the area where it is generated?

Options:

A.

Link

B.

AS External

C.

Router

D.

Intra-Area Prefix

Question 116

An Alcatel - Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an IS-IS LSP with internal reachability, and receives the same route from an OSPF Type 5 LSA. If all protocol preferences are default, which route will be installed in the route table?

Options:

A.

The route learned from IS-IS will be installed.

B.

The route learned from OSPF will be installed.

C.

Both routes will be installed.

D.

There is not enough information to answer the question

Question 117

Which of the following best describes distance vector protocols?

Options:

A.

They periodically exchange copies of routing tables between adjacent routers and do not maintain any knowledge of links on non adjacent routers.

B.

They use shortest path first algorithms, do not exchange copies of routing tables between routers and do maintain knowledge of links on non adjacent routers.

C.

They periodically exchange copies of routing tables between adjacent routers and maintain knowledge of links on non adjacent routers.

D.

They use shortest path first algorithms, exchange copies of routing tables between routers and maintain knowledge of links on non adjacent routers.

Question 118

Click on the exhibit.

Router R2 has a directly connected interface to network 192.168.3.0/24 that is included in IS-IS.

If router R4 redistributes the IS-IS route to 192.168.3.0/24 into OSPF, router R3 will receive two routes to 192.168.3.0/24. Assume that all IS-IS routers are L1/L2 capable and are in the same area.

Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R3 will install the IS-IS route in it's routing table.

B.

Router R3 will install the OSPF route in it's routing table.

C.

Router R3 will install an OSPF route and an IS-IS route in it's route table.

D.

There is not enough information to answer the question.

Question 119

Click on the exhibit.

Router R2 uses IS-IS to advertise the network 192.168.3.0/24 to R1. How can router R1 discard the route?

Options:

A.

Use an import policy and a prefix list on router R2.

B.

Use an export policy and a prefix list on router R1.

C.

Use an import policy and a prefix list on router R1.

D.

Router R1 cannot discard the route because IS-IS does not support import policies.

Question 120

When configuring an LSP for fast reroute one-to-one protection, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The LSP can also use facility backup.

B.

The LSP is limited to node protection.

C.

You cannot request bandwidth on the protected LSP.

D.

Node protection can be disabled.

Question 121

Which of the following can be used for label signaling and distribution on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? Choose two answers

Options:

A.

RSVP-TE

B.

TDP

C.

LDP

D.

ADP

E.

MPLS-TE

Question 122

Which of the following are features of RSVP-TE? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

It supports IGP-based LSPs.

B.

It supports constrained path LSPs.

C.

It does not support loose explicit path LSPs.

D.

It is recommended for use in Traffic Engineering applications.

E.

It cannot be used with facility backup fast reroute.

Question 123

An IS-IS router receives a CSNP that references an older LSP than the one in its database. What action is taken?

Options:

A.

The router sends a copy of the LSP from its database to its neighbor.

B.

The router sends a PSNP to its neighbor describing the LSP in its database.

C.

The router updates its database with the LSP and floods a copy to its other neighbors.

D.

The router sends a PSNP to its neighbor to request the LSP.

Question 124

A targeted-LDP session may exist between directly connected or non-directly connected devices

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 125

Which of the following best describes the function of an OSPF Type 4 LSA?

Options:

A.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ABR to describe a route to an ASBR to routers outside the area.

B.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ASBR to describe a route to itself to routers outside the area.

C.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ABR that is connected to a stub area. The LSA is injected into the backbone area to provide routing information.

D.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ABR that is connected to a stub area. The LSA is injected into the stub area to provide routing information.

Question 126

Which OSPFv3 LSA type is similar in function to the OSPFv2 Type 4 LSA?

Options:

A.

Link

B.

Intra-Area Prefix

C.

Inter-Area Prefix

D.

Inter-Area Router

Question 127

Which LSA type is not found in point-to-point only OSPF networks?

Options:

A.

Type 1 Router LSA

B.

Type 2 Network LS A

C.

Type 3 Summary LSA

D.

Type 5 External LSA

Demo: 127 questions
Total 852 questions