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Nokia 4A0-100 Nokia Scalable IP Networks Exam Practice Test

Demo: 52 questions
Total 352 questions

Nokia Scalable IP Networks Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

Options:

A.

The host will retransmit the frame if it detects a collision during transmission.

B.

The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is connected.

C.

The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting.

D.

The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry.

E.

The host will only transmit when it receives the token.

Question 2

Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:

Options:

A.

Secure transmission of information.

B.

Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.

C.

Allowing remote logins.

D.

Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.

Question 3

Which of the following IP header fields contains information that indicates whether routers are allowed to fragment a packet?

Options:

A.

Header checksum.

B.

Fragmentation offset.

C.

Flags.

D.

Identification.

Question 4

Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?

Options:

A.

Provides an universal addressing scheme

B.

Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.

C.

Provides reliable data transfers.

D.

Provides a physical interface to the network.

Question 5

What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN tag.

B.

IP Header.

C.

FCS.

D.

Priority Value.

Question 6

What happens next after an incoming packet is de-encapsulated from the Layer 2 frame in an Nokia 7750 router?

Options:

A.

The IP datagram is encapsulated in the appropriate Layer 2 frame by the MDA.

B.

The IP datagram passes through the switch fabric to reach the egress IOM.

C.

The IP datagram is passed to the IOM.

D.

A lookup is performed in the FIB to determine the egress interface.

Question 7

Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?

Options:

A.

Same host numbers.

B.

Same IP address.

C.

First two bits of the IP address are set to 01.

D.

Same network prefix.

Question 8

Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Number of subnetworks currently required.

B.

Type of physical connectivity used by each segment.

C.

Future network growth requirements.

D.

Number of hosts each subnetwork will support.

E.

Class of the network address to be used for the network.

Question 9

Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Controls distribution of IP addresses.

B.

Simplifies protocol functionality.

C.

Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.

D.

Increases protocol operational efficiencies.

E.

Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

Question 10

A 24 port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100 on ports 1 - 8, VLAN 200 on ports 9 - 16 and VLAN 300 on ports 17 - 24. Which of the following describes the behavior of the switch when a broadcast frame is received on port 1?

Options:

A.

The switch will discard the broadcast frame because there is no specific destination address.

B.

The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all ports on which the switch has seen frames from attached devices

C.

The switch will flood the broadcast frame on ports 2 to 8.

D.

The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all 24 ports.

Question 11

What is the effective maximum rate of data transmission on a 10 Mbps full-duplex Ethernet link?

Options:

A.

5 Mbps.

B.

10 Mbps.

C.

15 Mbps.

D.

20 Mbps.

Question 12

Which of the following is a characteristic of the system address?

Options:

A.

A physical interface address.

B.

A logical address on the router not corresponding to any specific interface.

C.

May have any prefix value.

D.

A management IP address.

Question 13

A typical Nokia 7750 SR Media Dependent Adapter (MDA) interfaces with:

Options:

A.

A Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module.

B.

The Central Processing Unit (CPU).

C.

The Control Plane.

D.

The Switch Fabric.

Question 14

Which of the following best describes a repeater?

Options:

A.

A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.

C.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

Question 15

As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and Host B begin transmitting data at the same time?

Options:

A.

Host A and B will generate a jam signal.

B.

Listening hosts will request retransmission.

C.

Host A or B will retry the transmission.

D.

A back-off timer is started by Host A or B.

Question 16

How many of the front access card slots of the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router are dedicated for redundant common equipment?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

7

D.

10

Question 17

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of the OSI Reference Model?

Options:

A.

OSI was developed as an alternative, open standard to IBMs SNA model.

B.

OSI protocols were no longer used after TCP/IP was developed.

C.

OSI model is much simpler than TCP/IP.

D.

OSI model is maintained exclusively by the IETF.

Question 18

What is the sequence of events for a client to receive an IP address from the server in the DHCP?

Options:

A.

Discover, offer, request, acknowledgement.

B.

Request, offer, discover, acknowledgement.

C.

Discover, request, offer, acknowledgement.

D.

Request, acknowledgement, discover, offer.

Question 19

Which of the following statements is FALSE when describing a Virtual Private LAN Service?

Options:

A.

A VPLS emulates a virtual switch or bridge.

B.

The VPLS performs MAC learning on MAC addresses seen from SAPs and SDPs.

C.

When a VPLS receives a frame with an unknown MAC destination, the frame will be dropped.

D.

MAC addresses are maintained in a MAC address forwarding database (FDB).

Question 20

Which field in the Routing Information Base (RIB) determines the direction frames will egress the node?

Options:

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Dest prefix

D.

Next-hop

E.

Cost

Question 21

Which of the following mediums can be used in a VPWS when defining SAPs (Select three)?

Options:

A.

Ethernet.

B.

ATM.

C.

Frame Relay.

D.

Token Ring.

Question 22

Based on the network diagram (click on the exhibit), what is the command to use on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1

Options:

A.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 10.2.3.1 next-hop 192.168.2.0

C.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 192.168.2.0

Question 23

Based on the network diagram, (click on exhibit) what is the command to use on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1?

Options:

A.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.

config router default-route 10.2.3.2

E.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

Question 24

Which statement best describes a VPRN service?

Options:

A.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of dark fibers.

B.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched network administered by the service provider.

C.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed network administered by the service provider.

D.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access administered by the service provider.

Question 25

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

Options:

A.

Inability to perform switch to switch redundancy using multiple connections at Layer 2.

B.

Missing protocol field in Ethernet II required to identify redundancy protocols at Layer 2.

C.

Missing packet sequencing in Layer 2 Ethernet required to re-order packets on arrival.

D.

Inability to forward multicast frames without a routing protocol.

Question 26

Which of the following SAP types can be associated to a VPWS? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Ethernet

B.

ATM

C.

Token Ring

D.

Frame Relay

Question 27

Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events in the forming of an OSPF adjacency?

Options:

A.

Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates.

B.

DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange.

C.

Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange.

D.

Hello exchange, Link state requests and updates, DB descriptor exchange.

Question 28

What is the function of the Routing Table Manager?

Options:

A.

Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, find the best path to the destination network and install it in the routing table.

B.

Provide a CLI interface to allow the operator to configure the dynamic routing protocol on the router.

C.

Based on the routing protocol preference values, chose the route with the lowest preference and install it in the routing table.

D.

Provide a CLI interface to allow the network operator to install static routes in the routing table.

Question 29

Which of the following information can be seen within the FILE context of the SR 7x50? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

File sizes

B.

Port statistics

C.

Log-id 100 files

D.

TiMOS image files

Question 30

What must the sender do when it receives a window size of 0 from the receiver?

Options:

A.

Stop transmitting.

B.

Terminate the TCP session.

C.

Send the next segment.

D.

Retransmit the previous segment.

Question 31

The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will be obtained with this mask?

Options:

A.

4 subnets, 64 hosts

B.

64 subnets, 4 hosts

C.

4 subnets, 62 hosts

D.

64 subnets, 2 hosts

E.

6 subnets, 30 hosts

Question 32

What are the tasks of the Routing Table Manager (RTM)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RTM selects the best route from among multiple routing protocols.

B.

RTM selects the best route using the metric as criteria

C.

RTM sends its best route to all its directly connected neighbors.

D.

RTM installs its best route in the routing table.

Question 33

Which is the public AS in the diagram?

Options:

A.

65001

B.

65003

C.

2002

D.

All of the above.

E.

None of the above.

Question 34

A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers MPLS network?

Options:

A.

CE always connects to a PE router.

B.

CE always connects to a P router.

C.

CE always connects to another CE device.

D.

The CE does not connect to the service provider network.

Question 35

How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from different customers?

Options:

A.

You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. Customers must change their IP address assignment.

B.

Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information. This allows for overlapping addresses.

C.

A VPRN ignores IP addressing information and uses MAC addressing instead, which are always unique.

D.

A VPRN translates customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

Question 36

Why does UDP have less overhead than TCP?

Options:

A.

UDP has less overhead because it is only used for transmission of small amounts of data.

B.

UDP has less overhead then TCP because there is no checksum field in UDP.

C.

UDP overhead is the same as TCP because it uses the same fields in the header.

D.

UDP has less overhead because there is no requirement for acknowledgment or retransmission.

Question 37

Which of the following statements about route summarization is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It reduces the number of routes advertised by the router.

B.

It allows a single route table entry to represent multiple subnetworks

C.

It can reduce the size of the routing table in neighboring routers.

D.

It advertises more specific routes for routing advertisement stability.

Question 38

Which of the following statements best characterize Link State Routing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Question 39

Which of the following routing protocols provides routing between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

BGP

B.

RIPv2

C.

OSPF

D.

IS-IS

Question 40

What type of MAC address is ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff?

Options:

A.

Unicast

B.

Multicast

C.

Broadcast

D.

Anycast

Question 41

Which statement describes the primary purpose of TCP?

Options:

A.

To establish reliable communication for the application services layer.

B.

To provide low overhead communication for the application services layer.

C.

To route IP packets for the application services layer.

D.

To transmit packets over the physical infrastructure.

Question 42

Which of the following is a function of the Link layer?

Options:

A.

It is responsible for encapsulating packets into frames for transmission on physical media

B.

It is responsible for encapsulating packets into IP datagrams and routing them

C.

It is responsible for encapsulating application data into TCP/UDP messages

D.

It is responsible for the timing of the signals on physical media.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT an advantage pf TCP/IP layering?

Options:

A.

It provides a standardized method of communication.

B.

It simplifies complex procedures.

C.

It reduces protocol overhead.

D.

It isolates layers and defines how they should interact.

Question 44

Given network address 200.12.30.0 with network mask 255.255.255.0, which subnet mask can be used to create 12 subnetworks? Each subnetwork must support 10 host addresses.

Options:

A.

/25

B.

/26

C.

/28

D.

/30

Question 45

Which of the following protocols can be used to force traffic from router R2 to use the direct link to router R4?

Options:

A.

Static routing

B.

IS-IS

C.

OSPF

D.

eBGP

Question 46

How many subnets and host addresses are obtained by subnetting network 201.148.26.0/24 using a /26 subnet mask?

Options:

A.

4 subnets, 64 hosts per subnet

B.

8 subnets, 32 hosts per subnet

C.

4 subnets, 62 hosts per subnet

D.

8 subnets, 30 hosts per subnet

Question 47

On what type of device is a Service Access Point (SAP) defined?

Options:

A.

On the CE device.

B.

On the PE device.

C.

On the P device.

D.

On both CE and PE devices.

Question 48

Which Ethernet frame field allows the transmitter and receiver to synchronize communications?

Options:

A.

Preamble

B.

Start Frame Delimiter

C.

Length/Type

D.

Frame Check Sequence

Question 49

Which of the following ports can be used to access a Nokia 7750 SR that has not been configured?

Options:

A.

CPM management Ethernet port

B.

CPM console serial port

C.

Port 1/1/1

D.

Any port on an installed MDA

Question 50

Which of the following tasks can be performed in the boot options file (BOF)?

Options:

A.

Specifying authorization information to control access to the router.

B.

Defining an IP address for the management port.

C.

Provisioning the IOM cards.

D.

Setting the date and time for the system.

Question 51

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact flash?

Options:

A.

Console

B.

Session

C.

Memory

D.

File

Question 52

What happens when a switch receives an Ethernet frame with unknown source and destination MAC

addresses?

Options:

A.

The frame is silently discarded.

B.

The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is discarded.

C.

The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is flooded to all ports except the

receiving port.

D.

The source and destination MAC addresses are saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is flooded to all

ports.

Demo: 52 questions
Total 352 questions