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Juniper JN0-351 Enterprise Routing and Switching Specialist (JNCIS-ENT) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 32 questions
Total 107 questions

Enterprise Routing and Switching Specialist (JNCIS-ENT) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which two statements about BGP facilitate the prevention of routing loops within an autonomous system? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

IBGP sessions must be configured as a logical full mesh.

B.

Routes learned from IBGP neighbors are not readvertised to other IBGP neighbors.

C.

Routes learned from IBGP neighbors are only advertised to other IBGP neighbors.

D.

IBGP sessions must be configured as a physical full mesh.

Question 2

Which two statements are correct about IS-IS? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

IS-IS uses IPv6 as its transport protocol in the Junos OS Implementation.

B.

IS-IS has two metric types and Junos sends both by default.

C.

IS-IS sends a maximum metric value of 63 by default.

D.

IS-IS only allows you to configure two areas.

Question 3

After receiving a BGP route, which two conditions are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received route is valid? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The AS-path length is greater than 0.

B.

The loops do not exist.

C.

The next hop is reachable.

D.

The local preference is greater than 0.

Question 4

Exhibit.

What is the management IP address of the device shown in the exhibit?

Options:

A.

10.210.20.233

B.

172.23.12.100

C.

128.0.0.1

D.

172.23.11.10

Question 5

Click the Exhibit button.

R1 was started at 4:00 PM. R2 and R3 were started at 6:00 PM. R4 was started at 10:00 PM. All routers are in Area 0 and there are no point-to-point links.

Referring to the exhibit, which router is the designated router?

Options:

A.

R4

B.

R1

C.

R2

D.

R3

Question 6

Two routers share the same highest priority and start time.

Options:

A.

In this situation, what is evaluated next when determining the designated router? The router with the lowest router ID become the DR.

B.

The router with the highest router ID becomes the DR

C.

The routers perform another DR election.

D.

The router with the highest MAC address become the DR

Question 7

You have two OSPF routers that will not form an adjacency. You enter the show log trace-ospf command.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?

Options:

A.

The physical connection has been disconnected.

B.

There is a mismatched subnet.

C.

The wrong OSPF area has been configured.

D.

You are stuck in the ExStart state.

Question 8

Click the Exhibit button.

Which two statements about the firewall filter terms shown in the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Traffic that matches the from statement in term one is discarded.

B.

Traffic matching the from statement in term two is logged.

C.

Traffic that matches the from statement in term one is accepted.

D.

All traffic not matching the from statement in term one is accepted by term two.

Question 9

Which two types of tunnels are able to be created on all Junos devices? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

STP

B.

GRE

C.

IP-IP

D.

IPsec

Question 10

You are an operator for a network running 1S-IS. Two routers are failing to form an adjacency. What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

There are mismatched router IDs on the L2 routers.

B.

There is no configured ISO address on any IS-IS interface.

C.

There is a mismatched area ID between the L2 routers.

D.

The family iso configuration is missing from the adjacency interface.

Question 11

Click the Exhibit button.

You want to redistribute the static routes into BGP, but they do not show as BGP routes.

What causes this result to occur?

Options:

A.

The static routes do not have a valid next hop.

B.

The as-path parameter must be specified.

C.

A community string must be configured.

D.

The no-readvertise feature is specified.

Question 12

You need to configure a LAG between your switches. In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Duplex and speed settings are not required to match on both participating devices.

B.

Duplex and speed settings are required to match on both participating devices.

C.

Member links are not required to be contiguous ports.

D.

Member links are required to be contiguous ports.

Question 13

What are two reasons for creating multiple areas in OSPF? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

to reduce the convergence time

B.

to increase the number of adjacencies in the backbone

C.

to increase the size of the LSDB

D.

to reduce LSA flooding across the network

Question 14

Which two statements are correct about using firewall filters on EX Series switches? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

You can deploy only stateless firewall filters on an EX Series switch.

B.

You can only apply firewall filters to Layer 2 traffic on an EX Series switch.

C.

You can apply firewall filters to both Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic on an EX Series switch.

D.

You can deploy both stateless and stateful firewall filters on an EX Series switch.

Question 15

What is the default keepalive time for BGP?

Options:

A.

10 seconds

B.

60 seconds

C.

30 seconds

D.

90 seconds

Question 16

Exhibit.

Why is this OSPF adjacency remaining in this state?

Options:

A.

A subnet mask mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.

B.

An MTU mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.

C.

A hello interval mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.

D.

An area ID mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors

Question 17

Which three actions are required for filter-based forwarding? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Create a firewall filter to match desired traffic.

B.

Create routing policies for source addresses.

C.

Create a RIB group for next-hop entries.

D.

Create a forwarding option for load balancing.

E.

Create routing instances for individual destinations.

Question 18

Exhibit.

You want to verify prefix information being sent from 10.36.1.4.

Which two statements are correct about the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The routes displayed have traversed one or more autonomous systems.

B.

The output shows routes that were received prior to the application of any BGP import policies.

C.

The output shows routes that are active and rejected by an import policy.

D.

The routes displayed are being learned from an I BGP peer.

Question 19

You are asked to connect an IP phone and a user computer using the same interface on an EX Series switch. The traffic from the computer does not use a VLAN tag, whereas the traffic from the IP phone uses a VLAN tag.

Which feature enables the interface to receive both types of traffic?

Options:

A.

native VLAN

B.

DHCP snooping

C.

MAC limiting

D.

voice VLAN

Question 20

You are deploying a trunk port with multiple VLANs.

In this scenario, which statement is true about the native VLAN?

Options:

A.

The native VLAN must be the default VLAN on the port.

B.

The native VLAN is automatically configured through DHCP.

C.

The native VLAN is an untagged VLAN ID on the port.

D.

The native VLAN is the highest tagged VLAN ID on the port.

Question 21

You want to use filter-based forwarding (FBF) on your Internet peering router to load-balance traffic to two directly connected ISPs based on the source address.

Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

FBF uses the no-forwarding routing instance type.

B.

FBF uses the forwarding routing instance type.

C.

RIB groups are used to copy routes from the inet. o routing table.

D.

RIB groups are used to hide routes in the inet. 0 routing table.

Question 22

Referring to the exhibit, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

The IP source guard is enabled.

B.

Dynamic ARP inspection is enabled.

C.

DHCP snooping is enabled.

D.

The DHCP snooping database is protected.

E.

DHCP snooping is enabled for IPv6 traffic.

Question 23

You are asked to configure a redundant trunk group (RTG). Which two requirements would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The RTG must be participating in a Spanning Tree topology.

B.

Interfaces within an RTG can be configured as access ports.

C.

Interfaces within an RTG must be configured as trunk ports.

D.

Both interfaces of an RTG must be configured to service the same VLANS

Question 24

Which statement is correct about the IS-IS ISO NET address?

Options:

A.

An ISO NET address defined with a system ID of 0000.0000.0000 must be selected as the DIS.

B.

An ISO NET address must be unique for each device in the network.

C.

You can only define a single ISO NET address per device.

D.

The Area ID must match on all devices within a L2 area.

Question 25

Exhibit.

You have configured the four EX Series switches with RSTP, as shown in the exhibit. You discover that whenever a link between switches goes up or down, the switches take longer than expected for RSTP to converge, using the default settings.

In this scenario, which action would solve the delay in RSTP convergence?

Options:

A.

The hello-time must be increased.

B.

The force-version must be removed.

C.

The bridge priority for EX-4 must be set at 4000.

D.

The max-age must be increased to 20

Question 26

You implemented the MAC address limit feature with the shutdown action on all interfaces on your switch.

In this scenario, which statement is correct when a violation occurs?

Options:

A.

By default, you must manually clear the violation for the interface to send and receive traffic again.

B.

By default, the violation will automatically be cleared after 300 seconds and the interface will resume sending and receiving traffic for all learned devices.

C.

By default, devices that are learned before the violation occurs are still allowed to send and receive traffic through the specific interface.

D.

By default, the interface will continue to send and receive traffic for all connected devices after a violation has occurred.

Question 27

What does the MAC limiting feature do on EX Series switches?

Options:

A.

It limits the number of MAC addresses learned on an access port.

B.

It limits the number of MAC addresses learned on a trunk port.

C.

It limits the acceptable values for a MAC address to a specified range.

D.

It limits the time a learned MAC address stays in the MAC routing table.

Question 28

What is the maximum allowable MTU size for a default GRE tunnel without IPv4 traffic fragmentation?

Options:

A.

1496 bytes

B.

1480 bytes

C.

1500 bytes

D.

1476 bytes

Question 29

What is a purpose of using a spanning tree protocol?

Options:

A.

to look up MAC addresses

B.

to eliminate broadcast storms

C.

to route IP packets

D.

to tunnel Ethernet frames

Question 30

In a LAN segment, which tie-breaker would spanning tree consider if equal-cost paths exist between two or more switches to the root bridge?

Options:

A.

port priority

B.

bridge ID

C.

port ID

D.

interface number

Question 31

You want to ensure traffic is routed through a GRE tunnel.

In this scenario, which two statements will satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tunnel endpoints must have a route that directs traffic into the tunnel.

B.

All intermediary devices must have a route to the tunnel endpoints.

C.

Keepalives must be used on stateless tunneling protocols.

D.

BFD must be used on the stateless tunneling protocols.

Question 32

Click the Exhibit button.

You have configured a GRE interface, but no traffic will flow.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?

Options:

A.

The IP subnet mask cannot be a /32.

B.

The gr-1/2/0 interface is an invalid GRE interface.

C.

The unit number cannot be 0.

D.

The source and destination addresses cannot have the same third octet.

Demo: 32 questions
Total 107 questions