Weekend Sale Special Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70percent

ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB-Foundation Level Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 51 questions
Total 170 questions

ISTQB-Foundation Level Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following software development models BEST exemplifies a model that does NOT support the principle of early testing?

Options:

A.

The iterative development model

B.

The V-model

C.

The Waterfall model

D.

The incremental development model

Question 2

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

Options:

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

Question 3

A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

Options:

A.

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

B.

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C.

Train all testers on using the tool

D.

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

Question 4

Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about how a tester should communicate about defects, test results, and other test information?

Options:

A.

Testers should include personal opinions and judgements in defect reports and review findings

B.

Testers should emphasize the benefits of testing, such as increased quality and reduced risk

C.

Testers should reject all questions about their test findings and information

D.

Testers should take a command-and-control approach with the project team

Question 5

For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

- The bank card is valid

- The PIN code is correct

- Money is available in the user's account

The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

Options:

A.

Use case based testing

B.

Decision table

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Equivalence class partitioning

Question 6

The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

Options:

A.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int y = 3.

X = y=z;

B.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int z = 3.

X = z-y

C.

int x = 1.

Int y = 2.

Int z = 3.

Z = x +y

D.

int y = 2

Int z = 3.

Y = z+y

Question 7

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Options:

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

Question 8

A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

Options:

A.

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B.

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C.

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D.

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

Question 9

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The lest cases are designed to find defects in the data flew.

B.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

C.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

D.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

Question 10

Which ONE of the following statements about state transition testing is correct?

Options:

A.

The state transition diagram explicitly shows all invalid transitions.

B.

The size of the state table depends on the number of possible transitions between the states

C.

Usually it is not possible to create tests to cover ell transitions and all stales

D.

All transitions between states are explicitly shown in the state table.

Question 11

Your manager asked you when testing will be complete. In order to answer this question, you'll most likely use:

Options:

A.

Test progress reports

B.

Your colleagues advice

C.

A conversion spreadsheet

D.

A Test Oracle

Question 12

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I. Ill

B.

I, IV

C.

II. IV

D.

II. Ill

Question 13

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Options:

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

Question 14

Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

Options:

A.

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

B.

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

C.

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

D.

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

Question 15

Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees

Options:

A.

The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

B.

The report is detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends

C.

The report is high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

D.

The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends

Question 16

Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

SEE ATTACHMENT

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST takes into account the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

Options:

A.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC6 - TC5

B.

TC3 - TC4 - TC2 - TC6 - TC1 - TC5

C.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC5 - TC6

D.

TC2 - TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6

Question 17

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Options:

A.

configuration management tool

B.

unit test framework tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

Question 18

A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.

B.

The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.

C.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.

D.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.

Question 19

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

Question 20

A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.

Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

Options:

A.

Pesticide Paradox

B.

Early testing

C.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

D.

Defect clustering

Question 21

Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

I. Stubs and drivers are often used

II The lest environment should correspond to the production environment

III Finding defects is not the main focus

IV Testing can be based on use cases

V Testing is normally performed by testers

VI Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

Options:

A.

Component - VI

Integration - IV

System -1

Acceptance - 111

B.

Component - IV

Integration -1

System - VI

Acceptance - V

C.

Component-I

Integration - V

System - II

Acceptance - IV

D.

Component - V

Integration - II

System - IV

Acceptance - VI

Question 22

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

Options:

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

Question 23

Consider the following code

int premium=2500;

if (age<30)

{

premium = premium +1500:

}

Which options suits for a correct combination of Boundary value and expected result. Assume first number as boundary followed by expected result.

Options:

A.

29, 1500

30. 2500

B.

29. 4000

30. 2500

C.

29, 2500

30. 1500

D.

30, 1500

31,2500

Question 24

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

Options:

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

Question 25

In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement of the software or system

B.

Modifications to a released software or system

C.

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

D.

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

Question 26

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

Question 27

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

B.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

C.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

D.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

Question 28

Which of the following are valid testing principles?

I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible.

II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused.

III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct.

IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct.

V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product.

Options:

A.

I, IV, V

B.

II, Iv

C.

I, V

D.

I, Ill

Question 29

When should component integration tests be carried out?

Options:

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

Question 30

Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?

Options:

A.

The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved

B.

The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects

C.

For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards

D.

The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing

Question 31

The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: "Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?

Options:

A.

Requirements elicitation

B.

Defect analysis

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Performance Testing

Question 32

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

Options:

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

Question 33

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the risk-based approach

B.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

C.

Bumdown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach

D.

Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach

Question 34

Why it is essential that defects found in a review be reported objectively?

Options:

A.

In order to facilitate easy entry of detected defects in a OTS (Defect Tracking System)

B.

In order to allow the author of reviewed work product(S) to take the feedback positively as an effort at improving the product (S) and not as a personal assault

C.

In order to allow the review moderator to easily understand them, and assign them to the right developer for fixing

D.

In order to allow augmentation of existing checklists used for reviewing the work product (S)

Question 35

In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

B.

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

C.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

D.

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

Question 36

Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

B.

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

C.

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

D.

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

Question 37

Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?

Options:

A.

Boundary value analysis.

B.

Error guessing

C.

Exploratory testing

D.

Fault attack

Question 38

For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

IF Gender = Boy

If Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 1

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 2

ENDIF

ELSE

IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 0

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 1

ENDIF

ENDIF

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

2

D.

6

Question 39

A software calculates the annual car tax using three inputs:

- E; the emission level of the vehicle

- P: the power of the vehicle

-T the type of the vehicle

The input value for P can be integer positive values between 15 and 350.

Which of the following answers contains a correct list of a boundary values for the P input?

Options:

A.

14,351

B.

14,15,350,351

C.

15,350

D.

5.175.500

Question 40

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

Options:

A.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

Question 41

Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

Options:

A.

The project manager's preference

B.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

Question 42

Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?

Options:

A.

Most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules.

B.

If new defects are to be found we should run the same test set more often.

C.

Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.

D.

How testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project.

Question 43

In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

Options:

A.

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

B.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

C.

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

D.

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

Question 44

Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

Options:

A.

I. IV

B.

I. III

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

Question 45

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

Question 46

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

Question 47

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3.Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4.These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5.Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques

White * White-box test techniques

Experience - Experience-based test techniques

Options:

A.

Black -1,3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

B.

Black - 2, 3 White -1 Experience - 4, 5

C.

Black -1,2 White - 3, 4 Experience - 5

D.

Black - 2, 3 White -1,5 Experience - 4

Question 48

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15 8.2010

Defect detected by: Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case: Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen 2 Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Options:

A.

Add information about which web browser was used

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add an impact analysis

Question 49

Which of the following BEST describes exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is a suitable test technique which may replace both black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Exploratory testing is a valid and useful black-box test technique since it focuses on test cases related to the architecture and design of a system

C.

Exploratory testing requires both solid specifications and much project time available for test execution

D.

Exploratory testing may be used within defined time periods, during which the tester may follow a test charter as a guide

Question 50

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

Question 51

For a mandatory input field "ZIP code" the following rules are given:

1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits.

2 - The code has to exist in the post office's official ZIP code list

Using equivalence classes partitioning, how many test cases are required to test this field?

Options:

A.

8

B.

3

C.

6

D.

4

Demo: 51 questions
Total 170 questions