Summer Special Flat 65% Limited Time Discount offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: suredis

ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 108 questions
Total 361 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Fixing the cause

B.

Reproducing the failure

C.

Diagnosing the root cause

D.

Adding new test cases

Question 2

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?

Options:

A.

It identifies defects in modules and classes.

B.

Simulators and stubs may be required.

C.

It mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components.

D.

It may be applied using a test-first approach.

Question 3

Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Options:

A.

Planning the review

B.

Determines if the review objectives have been met

C.

Decide on the execution of reviews

D.

Allocate time for review

Question 4

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing during exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

Question 5

The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: "Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?

Options:

A.

Requirements elicitation

B.

Defect analysis

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Performance Testing

Question 6

Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). From the specifications you know that:

• I n < 0. a message "Value out of range" must be issued.

• If 0 < n < 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number

• If 100 < n < 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued

Options:

A.

There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200

B.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers close to 200 will be very large

C.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for two partitions is exactly same

D.

The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping

Question 7

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

Options:

A.

Facilitator - Fixes defects in the work product under review

B.

Scribe - Collates potential defects found during the individual review activity

C.

Review Leader - Creates the work product under review

D.

Author - Identify potential defects in the work product under review

Question 8

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes branch testing?

Options:

A.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In branch testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between decisions, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise flow transfers in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

C.

In branch testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

D.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable decisions. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is expressed as a percentage.

Question 9

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

Options:

A.

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

B.

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

C.

(0.12.13.18.19)

D.

(4.5.15.20)

Question 10

You are working on creating test cases for a user story -

As a customer, I want to be able to book an ISTQB exam for a particular date, so that I can find choose my time slot and pay the correct amount, including discounts, if any.

The acceptance criteria for this :

1. The dates shown should be from the current date to 2 years in future

2. Initially there should be 10 timeslots available for each day, 1 hour each, starting at 8 AM GMT

3. Maximum 5 persons should be able to select a time slot after which that time slot should become unavailable

4. First timeslot should have a 10% discount

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

Options:

A.

Logon to the site. Book an exam for the current date. Expected result: timeslots should be shown. Change the time to any other date prior to the selected date. Expected result: New slot should become visible.

B.

Logon to the site. Expected result: Default 8 AM (GMT) timeslot should be selected Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: New slot should be booked

C.

Logon to the site. Book 5 exams for the current date. Expected result: Exams should be booked. Book 6th timeslot for the same date. Expected result: The exam should be booked but no discount should be given.

D.

Logon to the site and book an exam for the 8 AM (GMT) timeslot Expected result: You should get 10% discounted price. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: Discount should be removed

Question 11

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

Options:

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

Question 12

Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability between the test basis and test work products?

I. Analyzing the impact of changes.

ii. A measure of code quality.

iii. Accurate test estimation.

iv. Making testing auditable.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i and ii

B.

i and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

ii and iii

Question 13

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

Options:

A.

The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect

B.

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

C.

The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

D.

A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

Question 14

Which of the following provides the BEST description of statement coverage?

Options:

A.

A white-box test technique which covers the decision results which determine the next statement to be executed

B.

A black-box test technique which uses a state table to derive test cases

C.

A white-box test technique which focuses on the percentage of executable statements that has been executed by a test suite

D.

An experience-based test technique in which test cases are based on the tester's knowledge of past failures

Question 15

Which of the following statements about static analysis are FALSE?

I. Static analysis can be used Instead of dynamic testing.

II. Stalk: analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities.

III. Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and standards.

IV Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing.

Options:

A.

I. II

B.

II. Ill

C.

III. IV

D.

I, IV

Question 16

Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?

Options:

A.

Tools to assess data quality

B.

Tools to support usability testing

C.

Tools to support specialized testing needs

D.

Tools to support static testing

Question 17

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?

Options:

A.

DT1, DT4

B.

DT3, DT4

C.

DT2, DT3

D.

DT1.DT2

Question 18

4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:

0 < x <100

100<= x <= 200

200 < x < 500

x >= 500

Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

Options:

A.

50; 100; 200. 1000

B.

0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;

C.

0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;

D.

50; 100; 250; 1000

Question 19

Atypical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to

Options:

A.

Take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.

Assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team.

C.

Use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient.

D.

Determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

Question 20

Which of the following best describes the way in which statement coverage is measured?

Options:

A.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

B.

It is not possible to accurately measure statement coverage.

C.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

D.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the test, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

Question 21

Which of the following software development models BEST exemplifies a model that does NOT support the principle of early testing?

Options:

A.

The iterative development model

B.

The V-model

C.

The Waterfall model

D.

The incremental development model

Question 22

A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.

B.

The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.

C.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.

D.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.

Question 23

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

Options:

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

Question 24

Consider the following testing levels:

1) Component Testing

2) Integration Testing

3) System Testing

4) Acceptance Testing

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used.

Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.

B.

All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development.

Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models.

C.

Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models.

Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model.

D.

All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.

Question 25

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

Options:

A.

Test design

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test implementation

D.

Test execution

Question 26

As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some character. (A, X and Z) sent via a serial port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the "bit parity" parameter.

Which of the following items of an incident report would you be UNABLE to write down based on this information?

Options:

A.

Expected result

B.

Test case identifier

C.

Test setup details

D.

Actual result

Question 27

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies to checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

Question 28

Which ONE of the following is a GOOD testing practice that is INDEPENDENT of the chosen SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle) model?

Options:

A.

Testers are involved in reviewing work products as soon as the final version of this documentation is available so that this earlier testing and defect detection can support the “shift-left" strategy.

B.

Test analysis and design for a specific test level begin during the corresponding development phase of the SDLC, allowing testing to follow the principle of late testing.

C.

For every software development activity, there is a corresponding testing activity, ensuring that all development activities are subject to quality assurance.

D.

Different test levels have specific and overlapping test objectives, allowing tests to be appropriate to specific test object types while managing redundancy.

Question 29

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews.

B.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects.

Question 30

The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

Options:

A.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int y = 3.

X = y=z;

B.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int z = 3.

X = z-y

C.

int x = 1.

Int y = 2.

Int z = 3.

Z = x +y

D.

int y = 2

Int z = 3.

Y = z+y

Question 31

Why should you choose a test technique?

Options:

A.

Because you need to match the way you test to the content of the product under test

B.

Because of the time constraints that usually accompany a test project

C.

Because this way you cover the full scope of the product's functionality

D.

Because choosing a test technique is a common practice in software testing

Question 32

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

Question 33

You are performing the role of tester on an Agile project. Which of the following tasks would be your responsibility?

i. Understanding, implementing, and updating the test strategy.

II. Ensuring the proper use of testing tools.

Hi. Coaching other team members in the relevant aspects of testing.

iv. Actively collaborating with developers and business stakeholders to clarify requirements, especially in terms of testability, consistency, and completeness.

v. Participating proactively in team retrospective meeting, suggesting and implementing improvements.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv and v

B.

i, ii and iii

C.

i, iii and v

D.

iii. iv and v

Question 34

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Functional Testing

B.

Code inspection

C.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

D.

Coverage analysis

Question 35

Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

Options:

A.

Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications, design specifications and code.

B.

Static tests should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the end user.

C.

Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are reviewed, but not by static testing.

D.

Static testing is done only on the requirements You need to execute the software in order to find defects in the code.

Question 36

In which one of the following test techniques are test cases derived from the analysis of the software architecture?

Options:

A.

Black-box test techniques.

B.

Experience-based test techniques.

C.

Checklist-based test techniques.

D.

White-box test techniques.

Question 37

Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole-team approach?

Options:

A.

Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.

B.

Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.

C.

Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.

D.

Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.

Question 38

Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

Test environment details

B.

How to reproduce the defect

C.

How to fix the defect

D.

Seventy and priority

Question 39

To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the correct description (the right column)

TopicDescription

Options:

A.

How the system performs the specific behaviour.

8: Quality characteristicsB: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task.

B.

ScenariosC: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations.

C.

Business rulesD; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world.

D.

External interfacesE: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.

E.

A to C, B to A, C to B. D to E and E to D

F.

A to E, B to A, C to B, D to C and E to D

G.

A to C, B to A, C to B, D to D and E to E

Question 40

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term 'debugging'?

Options:

A.

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

B.

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

C.

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

D.

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

Question 41

Which of the following statements are true?

1. Early and frequent feedback helps to avoid requirements misunderstanding.

2. Early feedback allows teams to do more with less.

3. Early feedback allows the team to focus on the most Important features.

4. Early and frequent feedback clarifies customer feedback by applying static testing techniques

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

Question 42

The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean conditions and six actions

Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted

B.

Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column

C.

Columns 2, 4, 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column

D.

Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column

Question 43

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

Options:

A.

Test cases are derived based on non-functional requirements such as usability

B.

Test cases are created using white-box test techniques to execute scenarios of use cases

C.

Test cases are derived based on pair testing between a user and a tester to find defects

D.

Test cases are designed to cover various user behaviors, including basic, exceptional or alternative and error behaviors associated with human users or systems

Question 44

A typical objective of testing is to

Options:

A.

Determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases.

B.

Verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements.

C.

Plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy

D.

Verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

Question 45

Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?

Options:

A.

The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.

B.

Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.

C.

Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.

D.

Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.

Question 46

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Specification Based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Experience based testing

D.

Structured based testing

Question 47

Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?

Options:

A.

Code is refactored first then tests are written and run

B.

Application behaviour is written in Given/When/then format and tests are then written and run

C.

Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests

D.

First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated

Question 48

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

Question 49

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

Question 50

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[ii]. Expected result

[iii]. Actual result.

[IV] Test level.

[V]. Root cause.

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[l] and [IV]

B.

[ii] and [III].

C.

[ii], [iii] and [v]

D.

[ii], [IV] and [V].

Question 51

Your organization's test strategy states that it is desirable to use more than one method for estimating test effort. You are responsible for estimating test effort for the next project. Based on historical data, the development-to-test effort ratio is 5:3.

The initial estimate for the development effort is 450 person-days.

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to the estimated test effort using the ratio-based method?

Options:

A.

750 person-days

B.

180 person-days

C.

720 person-days

D.

270 person-days

Question 52

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 53

Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.

B.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.

Question 54

Consider the following list of activities (I to V):

I. Test design

II. Test planning

III. Review test basis

IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review

V. Test monitoring and control

Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

Options:

A.

Activities III, IV, and V

B.

Activities II and V

C.

Activities I and V

D.

Activities I, III, and IV

Question 55

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

Reduced test execution times

B.

More objective assessment

C.

Prevention of simple human errors

D.

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

Question 56

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

Options:

A.

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

Question 57

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15 8.2010

Defect detected by: Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case: Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen 2 Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Options:

A.

Add information about which web browser was used

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add an impact analysis

Question 58

Which of the following is not an example of a typical content of a test completion report for a test project?

Options:

A.

The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B.

The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C.

The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D.

The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

Question 59

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.

Finding errors

D.

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

Question 60

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

Options:

A.

9.5001

B.

10.5000

C.

10, 11.4999, 5000r 5001

D.

9. 10.5000,5001

Question 61

Given the following review types and review characteristics:

a.Pair review

b.Walkthrough

c.Technical review

d.Inspection

1.Formal

2.Informal

3.Purposes include evaluating the quality of the work product under review and generating new ideas (e.g., brainstorming solutions)

4.Purposes include Improving the software product and training the review participants

Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review characteristic?

Options:

A.

a-1. b-4, c-3. d-2

B.

a-4, b-3. c-2. d-1

C.

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

D.

a-2, b-4, c-3. d-1

Question 62

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY NOT part of a test progress report?

Options:

A.

Obstacles and their workarounds

B.

A detailed assessment of product quality

C.

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

D.

New or changed risks

Question 63

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using the Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

Question 64

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300,000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300.000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299,999 TC2=300,000 TC=300,001

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault.

Question 65

Which of the following project scenario gives the BEST example where maintenance testing should be triggered?

Options:

A.

Completion of architecture of the bank system

B.

Release of the early draft of the low level project design of an loT application

C.

Defect was found in a pre-released version of the customer service application

D.

Delivery of the hot fix to mobile operating system and ensuring that it still works

Question 66

Which of the following is an example of the absence-of-errors fallacy?

Options:

A.

Repeating the same test cases will continue to find new defects, even after dozens of executions

B.

A small number of modules contains the most defects

C.

Since testing found very few defects, the system certainly will be successful

D.

Other than trivial cases, it is not feasible to test all combinations of inputs and preconditions

Question 67

A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

Options:

A.

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B.

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C.

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D.

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

Question 68

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is “NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers an INVALID sequence?

Options:

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

Question 69

Which of the following BEST describes exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is a suitable test technique which may replace both black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Exploratory testing is a valid and useful black-box test technique since it focuses on test cases related to the architecture and design of a system

C.

Exploratory testing requires both solid specifications and much project time available for test execution

D.

Exploratory testing may be used within defined time periods, during which the tester may follow a test charter as a guide

Question 70

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

Question 71

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3.Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4.These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5.Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques

White * White-box test techniques

Experience - Experience-based test techniques

Options:

A.

Black -1,3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

B.

Black - 2, 3 White -1 Experience - 4, 5

C.

Black -1,2 White - 3, 4 Experience - 5

D.

Black - 2, 3 White -1,5 Experience - 4

Question 72

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?

Options:

A.

A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations

B.

A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements

C.

Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work

D.

Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user

Question 73

Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I.Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii.Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii.Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

I, ii and v

B.

iv

C.

i and iii

D.

v

Question 74

A financial institution is to implement a system that calculates the interest rates paid on investment accounts based on the sum invested.

You are responsible for testing the system and decide to use equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to design test cases. The requirements describe the following expectations:

Investment range| Interest rate

R500 to RIO 00010%

RIO 001 to R50 00011%

R50 001 to RlOOOOO12%

RIOOOOl to R500 000| 13%

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest?

Options:

A.

5

B.

4

C.

8

D.

16

Question 75

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Options:

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

Question 76

Which of the following is the main benefit of a configuration management of testware?

Options:

A.

All testware is backed up with restore option, including incident reports and change requests. B. The testware can be traced to information in requirements tools and to the bug tracking system.

B.

All testware items are identified, version controlled, tracked tor changes with relation to each other

C.

There is an easy way to assess the level to test coverage provided by the existing tests

Question 77

A possible risk of introducing test automation is:

Options:

A.

the tool may not be fit-for-purpose.

B.

the tool may create additional development dependencies.

C.

the tool may not be compatible with the development platform.

D.

the tool will be owned and maintained by developers and replace testers.

Question 78

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

Options:

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

D.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

Question 79

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

Question 80

You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which deals with software in the healthcare domain. You are writing a handbook of various product risk mitigation options. Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation options?

Options:

A.

Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

B.

Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

C.

Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

D.

Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

Question 81

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

Question 82

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Options:

A.

configuration management tool

B.

unit test framework tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

Question 83

Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Requirements based testing

C.

Metric based approach

D.

Regression testing

Question 84

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

Options:

A.

Decision-based testing.

B.

Checklist-based testing.

C.

Error guessing.

D.

Exploratory testing.

Question 85

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard.

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning.

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

Question 86

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

B.

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

C.

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

Question 87

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

Question 88

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the risk-based approach

B.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

C.

Bumdown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach

D.

Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach

Question 89

Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?

Options:

A.

Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed

B.

Defect reports should be created for every review found

C.

Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews

D.

Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments

Question 90

Which of the following is a possible reason for introducing a defect in software code?

Options:

A.

Rushing to meet a tight deadline to turn code over for testing

B.

Improper unit testing

C.

Improper system testing

D.

Focus on static testing over dynamic testing

Question 91

You are responsible for applying the correct technique for a review of the requirements document for a project to develop a new software application. You identify the reviewers and the required roles, including the meeting leader, who is the requirements document author, and a separate role for a scribe. Additionally, you decide to take a relatively informal approach to the requirements review. The goal of the review is to find defects in the requirements document, such as omissions, Inconsistencies, and duplications. Another goal of the review is to improve the software application's usability and accessibility by considering the various stakeholders' viewpoints.

Which of the following statements BEST describes this scenario?

Options:

A.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a perspective-based review technique

B.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a checklist-based review technique

C.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a perspective-based review technique

D.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a checklist-based review technique

Question 92

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

Options:

A.

All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

B.

The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.

C.

All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.

D.

Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

Question 93

In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

B.

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

C.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

D.

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

Question 94

A test manager defined the following test levels in her test plan; Component, System and Acceptance.

Which Software Development lifecycle is the Test Manager most likely following?

Options:

A.

V-Model

B.

Agile

C.

Waterfall

D.

Prototyping

Question 95

Consider the following defect report for an Exam Booking System

Defect ID: ST1041 | Title: Unable to cancel an exam booking | Severity: Very High | Priority: Very High | Environment: Windows 10, Firefox

Description: When attempting to cancel an exam booking using the cancel exam feature, the system does not cancel the exam even though it shows a message that the exam has

been cancelled.

Which ONE of the following indicates the information that should be added to the description for reproducing the defect easily?

Options:

A.

Providing better severity and priority. It is not clear why this is a high severity problem as the exams can be booked without any problem.

B.

Providing exact steps that lead to this defect. It is not clear from the description if this is a problem for any scheduled exam or for a specific user.

C.

The defect Id used is alphanumeric in nature. It should be a number only.

D.

Repeating the test case with different browsers and logging a separate defect for each one of them

Question 96

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

Question 97

Why it is essential that defects found in a review be reported objectively?

Options:

A.

In order to facilitate easy entry of detected defects in a OTS (Defect Tracking System)

B.

In order to allow the author of reviewed work product(S) to take the feedback positively as an effort at improving the product (S) and not as a personal assault

C.

In order to allow the review moderator to easily understand them, and assign them to the right developer for fixing

D.

In order to allow augmentation of existing checklists used for reviewing the work product (S)

Question 98

Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

Options:

A.

The project manager's preference

B.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

Question 99

Which or the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15.

Options:

A.

Less than 0.1 through 14. 15 and more

B.

Less than 1.1 through 14. more than 15

C.

negative numbers. 1 through 15. above 15

D.

Less than 1.1 through 15. more than 15

Question 100

Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

Options:

A.

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

B.

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

C.

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

D.

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

Question 101

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

Options:

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

Question 102

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

Options:

A.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

Question 103

Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?

Options:

A.

SOL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the application without the appropriate authority.

B.

The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found It quite difficult to follow

the test script.

C.

The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the name was written into the address field.

D.

The expected result for the ‘list friends' response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average response time obtained was 13 seconds.

Question 104

A test score indicator for students produces a performance score based on a combination of the number of consecutive hours studied (below 4 hours, 4 to 8 hours. 9 to 12 hours or above 12 hours) and the average intensity of focus on the material during the study time (low, medium or high).

Given the following test cases:

hours intensity score

T1 3 low55

T2 14 high 95

T3 9 low75

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of all valid INPUT equivalence partitions?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 105

Scenario 2 “Big Drop”:

A company “The Big Drop” provides bulk discounts and frequent customer discounts as follows:

How many possible decision rules can be extracted from this table?

Options:

A.

5 decision rules

B.

6 decision rules

C.

32 decision rules

D.

8 decision rules

Question 106

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

Options:

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

Question 107

Which of the following is LEAST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a testing role?

Options:

A.

Create test completion report

B.

Evaluate test basis and test object

C.

Assess testability of test object

D.

Define test environment requirements

Question 108

The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

Options:

A.

run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

B.

cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

C.

are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

D.

are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

Demo: 108 questions
Total 361 questions