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ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 120 questions
Total 406 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?

Options:

A.

The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B.

The tester writes acceptance criteria

C.

The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D.

The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

Question 2

An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?

Options:

A.

Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better.

B.

Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner

C.

Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical.

D.

Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better

Question 3

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?

Options:

A.

A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations

B.

A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements

C.

Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work

D.

Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user

Question 4

Which of the following is the BEST example of whole team approach?

Options:

A.

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

B.

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

D.

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

Question 5

Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

Options:

A.

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

B.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

C.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

D.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

Question 6

You work as a test manager for a supplier of PC games which can be purchased and downloaded via an online store. A tester from your team recorded the following failure caused by a defect:

    Issue ID: DEF00223167

    Title: Saving after shopping in online shop fails

    Date: 2023-04-18

    Tester: Sabine Meier

    Description: "Saving the game immediately after purchasing it in the online store fails. As a result, the purchase is paid for, but the goods are not delivered."

    Attached data: "log.txt", "screen1.bmp", "screen2.bmp"

During the review of the defect report, you notice that at least one important piece of information is missing for defining how to deal with the defect. Which one?

Options:

A.

Severity of the defect

B.

Name of the developer who most likely caused the defect

C.

Tracking the quality of the work product

D.

Ideas for test process improvement

Question 7

From a testing perspective, configuration management

Options:

A.

Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.

B.

Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.

C.

Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality

D.

Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.

Question 8

What does configuration management enable for testing?

Options:

A.

It enables the scheduling of test resources.

B.

It enables the derivation of test cases and test data.

C.

It enables the creation of test progress reports.

D.

It enables the versioning of the test elements.

Question 9

Which of the following is not an example of a typical content of a test completion report for a test project?

Options:

A.

The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B.

The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C.

The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D.

The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

Question 10

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

Options:

A.

It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration.

B.

It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualising the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C.

It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques.

D.

It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project.

Question 11

Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?

Options:

A.

When a high level of test independence may be required.

B.

When acceptance tests need to be created.

C.

When a test automation approach needs to be determined.

D.

When the team dynamics need to be improved.

Question 12

Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.

Which of the following examples demonstrates this?

Options:

A.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.

B.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.

C.

Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.

D.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.

Question 13

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?

Options:

A.

DT1, DT4

B.

DT3, DT4

C.

DT2, DT3

D.

DT1.DT2

Question 14

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques

B.

Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use cases and business processes

C.

Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques

D.

The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool

Question 15

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

Question 16

Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.

B.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.

Question 17

A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

Options:

A.

999.1000.23232.99999.100000

B.

999.1000.50000.100000.100001

C.

999.100000

D.

1000,50000,99999

Question 18

Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?

Options:

A.

Most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules.

B.

If new defects are to be found we should run the same test set more often.

C.

Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.

D.

How testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project.

Question 19

Which of the following statements is TRUE'?

Options:

A.

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

B.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

C.

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

D.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

Question 20

Which ONE of the following options is a PRODUCT risk and NOT a PROJECT risk?

Options:

A.

Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.

B.

Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.

C.

Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.

D.

Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.

Question 21

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

Options:

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

Question 22

Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

Options:

A.

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

Question 23

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between product risk and project risk in software testing?

Options:

A.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the quality and functionality of the software product.

B.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as delays in work product deliveries, inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources.

C.

Product risk and project risk are essentially the same and can be used interchangeably.

D.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with delays in elements such as work product deliveries and inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as user dissatisfaction.

Question 24

A financial institution is to implement a system that calculates the interest rates paid on investment accounts based on the sum invested.

You are responsible for testing the system and decide to use equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to design test cases. The requirements describe the following expectations:

Investment range| Interest rate

R500 to RIO 00010%

RIO 001 to R50 00011%

R50 001 to RlOOOOO12%

RIOOOOl to R500 000| 13%

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest?

Options:

A.

5

B.

4

C.

8

D.

16

Question 25

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

Question 26

Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

Options:

A.

Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

B.

A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters

C.

The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

D.

Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

Question 27

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumenc characters, and its first character must be a letter As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID. What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7.

B.

6.

C.

5.

D.

3.

Question 28

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Options:

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

Question 29

Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). From the specifications you know that:

• I n < 0. a message "Value out of range" must be issued.

• If 0 < n < 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number

• If 100 < n < 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued

Options:

A.

There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200

B.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers close to 200 will be very large

C.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for two partitions is exactly same

D.

The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping

Question 30

The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, "R2->R3" means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ”P" i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.

Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority

Options:

A.

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

Question 31

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B.

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices.

C.

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D.

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools.

Question 32

For the same financial institution in Question 12, with the same requirements and expectations, what would be the most likely investment values used in testing if two-point boundary value analysis is used to design test cases specific to the 13% interest rate equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

R100 000, R100 001, R500 000, R500 001.

B.

R99 999, R100 000, R499 999, R500 000.

C.

R100 000. R500 000.

D.

R99 000, R500 001.

Question 33

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

Question 34

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

Question 35

An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.

Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)

Options:

A.

1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x

B.

aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x

C.

1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19

D.

1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby

Question 36

4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:

0 < x <100

100<= x <= 200

200 < x < 500

x >= 500

Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

Options:

A.

50; 100; 200. 1000

B.

0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;

C.

0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;

D.

50; 100; 250; 1000

Question 37

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

B.

Defines test cases at a low level, close to the implementation, using unit test frameworks.

C.

Is primarily focused on non-functional testing techniques to ensure system reliability and performance.

D.

Requires testing to be performed after development is completed to validate software functionality.

Question 38

Confirmation testing is performed after:

Options:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

Question 39

The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

Options:

A.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int y = 3.

X = y=z;

B.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int z = 3.

X = z-y

C.

int x = 1.

Int y = 2.

Int z = 3.

Z = x +y

D.

int y = 2

Int z = 3.

Y = z+y

Question 40

In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users' expectations. This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

Options:

A.

Tests wear out

B.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

C.

Working software over comprehensive documentation.

D.

Defects cluster together

Question 41

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

Question 42

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

Options:

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

Question 43

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes statement testing?

Options:

A.

In statement testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between branches. The aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In statement testing, the coverage items are decisions and statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

C.

In statement testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

D.

In statement testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

Question 44

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 45

Which of the following is correct with regards to debugging?

Options:

A.

Debugging identifies the cause of a failure

B.

Debugging is often performed by test engineers

C.

Debugging is considered part of the testing activities

D.

Debugging is intended to find as many defects as possible in the code

Question 46

A minimum of 0 and a maximum of 40 points can be achieved in a Certified Tester Foundation examination. With a score of 26 points to 36 points inclusive, the exam is considered "passed", with 37 points or higher it is "passed with distinction" and with less than 26 points the examination is "not passed".

Which of the following sets of positive integers fully covers a 2-value boundary value analysis ? (No values from invalid equivalence classes should be specified).

Options:

A.

0, 24, 25, 35, 36, 37, 40

B.

0, 25, 26, 36, 37, 40

C.

0, 2, 25, 26, 27, 35, 36, 37

D.

25, 26, 27, 39, 40, 41

Question 47

Which of the following activities is NOT a pan of the fundamental testing process?

Options:

A.

Archiving automation code

B.

Test status reporting

C.

Test process improvement

D.

Build release and maintenance

Question 48

Which ONE of the following roles is responsible for mediating, managing time, and generating a safe review environment in which everyone can speak freely?

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

Reviewer

C.

Review leader

D.

Moderator

Question 49

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[ii]. Expected result

[iii]. Actual result.

[IV] Test level.

[V]. Root cause.

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[l] and [IV]

B.

[ii] and [III].

C.

[ii], [iii] and [v]

D.

[ii], [IV] and [V].

Question 50

For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

- The bank card is valid

- The PIN code is correct

- Money is available in the user's account

The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

Options:

A.

Use case based testing

B.

Decision table

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Equivalence class partitioning

Question 51

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor m determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Level of risk of the product or features

B.

Budget to do testing

C.

A particular tester involved in testing

D.

Time available to do testing

Question 52

Which of the options below about statement testing is correct?

Options:

A.

100% statement coverage ensures that there are no more defects in the test object.

B.

100% statement coverage ensures that every transition between two statements has been executed at least once.

C.

100% statement coverage ensures that there are no unreachable program parts (dead code).

D.

100% statement coverage is a useful exit criterion for system testing.

Question 53

In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests. Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?

Options:

A.

Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface

B.

Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function

C.

Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system

D.

Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions

Question 54

Which of the following is NOT a product risk?

Options:

A.

Poor software usability

B.

Failure-prone software is delivered

C.

Problems in defining the right requirements

D.

Software does not perform the intended functions

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT a common objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects in the software

B.

Preventing defects

C.

Debugging the software to find the reason for defects

D.

Providing information on the status of the system

Question 56

You are responsible for applying the correct technique for a review of the requirements document for a project to develop a new software application. You identify the reviewers and the required roles, including the meeting leader, who is the requirements document author, and a separate role for a scribe. Additionally, you decide to take a relatively informal approach to the requirements review. The goal of the review is to find defects in the requirements document, such as omissions, Inconsistencies, and duplications. Another goal of the review is to improve the software application's usability and accessibility by considering the various stakeholders' viewpoints.

Which of the following statements BEST describes this scenario?

Options:

A.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a perspective-based review technique

B.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a checklist-based review technique

C.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a perspective-based review technique

D.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a checklist-based review technique

Question 57

Which of the following definitions is NOT true?

Options:

A.

Test data preparation tools fill databases, create files or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests.

B.

Test execution tools execute test objects using automated test scripts.

C.

Test Management tools monitor and report on how a system behaves during the testing activities.

D.

Test comparators determine differences between files, databases or test results.

Question 58

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

Question 59

Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?

Options:

A.

Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests

B.

Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests

C.

Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project

D.

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

Question 60

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

Options:

A.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

B.

Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

C.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

D.

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

Question 61

In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

Options:

A.

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

B.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

C.

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

D.

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

Question 62

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the tester?

Options:

A.

Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization

B.

Promote and advocate the test team within the organization

C.

Create the detailed test execution schedule

D.

Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress

Question 63

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product: 1. Risk register 2 Risk information

3. Test cases

4. Test conditions

Category of work products:

Options:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C Test design work products

C.

Test monitoring and control work products

D.

1-A.2-D.3-C.4-e

E.

1-A.2-C.3-B.4-D

F.

1-C, 2-A. 3-D, 4-B

G.

1-B. 2-D, 3-A.4-C

Question 64

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

Question 65

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure

B.

A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

C.

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

D.

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels

Question 66

Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Options:

A.

Planning the review

B.

Determines if the review objectives have been met

C.

Decide on the execution of reviews

D.

Allocate time for review

Question 67

Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

Options:

A.

I, III, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

II, III, IV

Question 68

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

B.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

C.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

D.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

Question 69

Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:

• most optimistic = 6 person hours

• most likely = 30 person hours

• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

Options:

A.

The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

B.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate

C.

The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

D.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate

Question 70

Which of the following statements regarding the testing quadrants model is correct?

Options:

A.

The testing quadrants model provides a way of differentiating between types of tests and assists in explaining them to stakeholders.

B.

The testing quadrants model assigns test types to the corresponding V-Model test levels.

C.

With the testing quadrants model, tests can be either business-oriented or product-oriented.

D.

The testing quadrants model assigns tests from one of the four quadrants to each iteration in the Agile development.

Question 71

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Specification Based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Experience based testing

D.

Structured based testing

Question 72

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY NOT part of a test progress report?

Options:

A.

Obstacles and their workarounds

B.

A detailed assessment of product quality

C.

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

D.

New or changed risks

Question 73

Which or the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

Options:

A.

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures.

B.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

C.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

D.

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.

Question 74

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about error guessing?

Options:

A.

While reviewing the test cases, testers have to make guess about the kind of mistakes test cases might contain

B.

Fault attacks are an example of a technique for implementing error guessing.

C.

Error guessing depends on the developers guessing what mistakes testers might make and miss the possible defects

D.

Error guessing doesn't make use of past failures as past failures are not indicators of correct defects

Question 75

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

B.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

C.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

D.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

Question 76

A tester created a decision table(DT) given below. While reviewing the DT some of the actions for the given conditions were found to be incorrect. The user is trying to view the profile, which of the given conditions has CORRECT action(s) listed?

Options:

A.

C1

B.

C4

C.

C3

D.

C2

Question 77

Which statement corresponds to one of the 7 principles of testing?

Select exactly one option (1 out of 4)!

Options:

A.

Exhaustive testing can show the absence of defects.

B.

To detect new defects, existing regression test cases must be updated regularly.

C.

Late testing saves time and money, especially with scarce resources.

D.

Fixing all detected defects ensures the success of the system under test.

Question 78

Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?

Options:

A.

The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.

B.

Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.

C.

Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.

D.

Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.

Question 79

Consider the following testing levels:

1) Component Testing

2) Integration Testing

3) System Testing

4) Acceptance Testing

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used.

Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.

B.

All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development.

Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models.

C.

Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models.

Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model.

D.

All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.

Question 80

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies to checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

Question 81

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique

Options:

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects.

B.

That can be organised into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project.

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

Question 82

To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the correct description (the right column)

TopicDescription

Options:

A.

How the system performs the specific behaviour.

8: Quality characteristicsB: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task.

B.

ScenariosC: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations.

C.

Business rulesD; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world.

D.

External interfacesE: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.

E.

A to C, B to A, C to B. D to E and E to D

F.

A to E, B to A, C to B, D to C and E to D

G.

A to C, B to A, C to B, D to D and E to E

Question 83

Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

Options:

A.

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

B.

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

C.

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

D.

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

Question 84

Scenario 2 “Big Drop”:

A company “The Big Drop” provides bulk discounts and frequent customer discounts as follows:

How many possible decision rules can be extracted from this table?

Options:

A.

5 decision rules

B.

6 decision rules

C.

32 decision rules

D.

8 decision rules

Question 85

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using the Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

Question 86

Match each objective to the correct test level

Objective:

A)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the system are as designed andspecified.

B)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the interfaces are as designed.

C)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functionalbehaviorsof the components are as designedand specified.

D)Establishing confidence in the quality of the systemas a whole.

Test Level:

1.Component testing.

2.Integration testing.

3.System testing.

4.Acceptance testing.

Options:

A.

A3, B2. C4. D1

B.

A2, B3, Cl, D4

C.

A3. B2. C1. D4

Question 87

What does the "absence-of-defects fallacy" refer to in software development?

Options:

A.

A misconception that software verification is unnecessary

B.

The idea that fixing defects is NOT important to meeting user needs.

C.

The belief that thoroughly testing all requirements guarantees system success.

D.

The need for constant system quality assurance and improvements.

Question 88

The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean conditions and six actions

Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted

B.

Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column

C.

Columns 2, 4, 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column

D.

Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column

Question 89

Which ONE of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Effectiveness depends on the individual testers' skills

B.

Usually conducted when there is sufficient time for testing

C.

Testing without defined time-boxes

D.

Test cases are written once the specifications become available

Question 90

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software. Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Test Execution tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Incident Management Tool

Question 91

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

Question 92

Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole-team approach?

Options:

A.

Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.

B.

Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.

C.

Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.

D.

Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.

Question 93

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which a collective authorship process generates a shared vision of user stories?

Options:

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

Question 94

Which of the following statements BEST describes the shift-left approach in software testing?

Options:

A.

Testing is performed after the development phase is completed.

B.

Testing is performed on the entire system or product.

C.

Testing is performed by an independent testing team.

D.

Testing is performed as early as possible in the software development life cycle.

Question 95

Which of the following options is a success factor for formal reviews (e.g. inspections)?

Options:

A.

Provide participants an adequate amount of time for preparation for the review.

B.

Evaluate participants on how they spend their time and attention to detail.

C.

Use only one type of review so that participants do not have to get used to a different type of review process as often.

D.

Conduct the review in a few large sections, each of which participants are to review as a whole.

Question 96

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator.

C.

Recorder.

D.

Moderator

Question 97

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?

Options:

A.

A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person

B.

A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.

C.

A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people

D.

A test manager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test cases will not be written as mandated by the test policy.

Question 98

Which of the following statements refers to good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model?

Options:

A.

Tests should be written in executable format before the code is written and should act as executable specifications that drive coding

B.

Test levels should be defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for the next level

C.

Test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary significantly

D.

Involvement of testers in work product reviews should occur as early as possible to take advantage of the early testing principle

Question 99

Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Memb1..... Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1,2, 3,5, 8,13,21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers BEST describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Options:

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values most optimistic estimate - 1, most likely estimate - 3, and most pessimistic estimate - 21

B.

Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points.

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4> and the most pessimistic estimate of 1 story point (Memb6)

D.

Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before proceeding to another estimation round

Question 100

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Options:

A.

configuration management tool

B.

unit test framework tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

Question 101

As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.

Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?

Options:

A.

Defect management

B.

Configuration management

C.

Change management

D.

Risk management

Question 102

How can testing contribute to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Testing help to measure the quality of software.

B.

Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.

C.

Testing removes errors in the software.

D.

Testing eliminates the risk with software.

Question 103

Which of the following sentences describe a product risk?

Options:

A.

The application might not be able to provide the expected responsiveness under a load of up-lo 300 concurrent users

B.

Failure in acquiring an adequate and test automation tool

C.

A wrong configuration of the test environment that causes incidents related to the environment and not to the software under test

D.

The development team lacks knowledge of the technology on which the product is based

Question 104

Consider the following user story and its acceptance criteria:

User Story:

As a member of the "Agnotoly" association, I want to be able to pay the association’s dues through an automatic payment method so that I can forget about payment deadlines.

Acceptance Criteria:

    The member can only pay with ‘Agnesis Master’ credit card.

    The member must register their cell phone number.

    The member must register the credit card in the payment system.

    The member must select a payment method (monthly or annual).

    The member must accept the terms and conditions for the selected method.

    If terms and conditions are accepted, the system sends an OTP (one-time password) to the member’s phone for verification.

    The payment method is registered only after OTP verification.

    Once the payment method is registered, the system will charge on the first business day of the following month.

Test Cycle Results:

    Members successfully paid dues using the credit card.

    Payments were processed monthly and for over a year.

Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered?

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria 8 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

B.

Acceptance criteria 4 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

C.

All acceptance criteria have been fully covered during the above test cycle.

D.

Acceptance criteria 6 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

Question 105

Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Refactonng is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code wntten to satisfy those tests.

B.

ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level.

C.

BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level.

D.

ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process.

Question 106

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without prewritten test cases is experience based testing.

B.

Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.

C.

Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing whereas without pre-written test cases is using black-box testing techniques.

D.

Testing the software under test (SUT) based on design is black-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour is experience based testing.

Question 107

Which description reflects aspects of checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

The checklist contains test cases that need to be executed in a certain order (e.g. defect-detecting test cases from previous projects).

B.

The checklist includes failure descriptions that have been found in the past which should be avoided.

C.

The checklist contains experience-based test conditions, mostly in the form of questions and based on causes of previous failures, which are used when creating the test.

D.

The checklist contains common testing techniques (e.g. equivalence class partitioning) and their uses to simplify the selection of the "appropriate" test techniques.

Question 108

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

Options:

A.

Test cases are derived based on non-functional requirements such as usability

B.

Test cases are created using white-box test techniques to execute scenarios of use cases

C.

Test cases are derived based on pair testing between a user and a tester to find defects

D.

Test cases are designed to cover various user behaviors, including basic, exceptional or alternative and error behaviors associated with human users or systems

Question 109

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

Options:

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

Question 110

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

Question 111

Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:

What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 112

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

Options:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

Question 113

Which of the following provides the BEST description of statement coverage?

Options:

A.

A white-box test technique which covers the decision results which determine the next statement to be executed

B.

A black-box test technique which uses a state table to derive test cases

C.

A white-box test technique which focuses on the percentage of executable statements that has been executed by a test suite

D.

An experience-based test technique in which test cases are based on the tester's knowledge of past failures

Question 114

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Options:

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

Question 115

As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some character. (A, X and Z) sent via a serial port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the "bit parity" parameter.

Which of the following items of an incident report would you be UNABLE to write down based on this information?

Options:

A.

Expected result

B.

Test case identifier

C.

Test setup details

D.

Actual result

Question 116

Which of the following statements best describe Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

A collaborative approach that allows every stakeholder to contribute to how the software component must behave.

B.

Expresses the behavior of an application with test cases written in Given When Then format.

C.

Is used to develop code guided by automated test cases.

D.

A psychological technique in which the team's behavior in agile teams is evaluated.

Question 117

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

Options:

A.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

Question 118

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

Options:

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

Question 119

In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

B.

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

C.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

D.

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

Question 120

The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.

What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

Options:

A.

Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test,

Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge

B.

Advantage: being closer to customer perspective,

Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

C.

Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing,

Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development

D.

Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development;

Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing

Demo: 120 questions
Total 406 questions