Massive Summer Special Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: netdisc

ISTQB CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam Practice Test

Demo: 50 questions
Total 338 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits

Options:

A.

16

B.

2

C.

1

D.

63

Question 2

What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing

B.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing

C.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning

D.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning

Question 3

Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test planning and control

B.

Test implementation & execution

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D.

Test project closure

Question 4

A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Level of test execution automation

B.

Test level

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Experience level of testers

Question 5

You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Safety

C.

Portability

D.

Reliability

Question 6

Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains! 1 credit

Options:

A.

High level of documentation

B.

Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions

C.

Traceability to requirements

D.

Non-functional testing

E.

Master test planning

F.

Test design techniques

G.

Reviews

Question 7

In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons. 1 credit

Options:

A.

The quality of the development estimate may be poor.

B.

In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.

C.

The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.

D.

Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.

E.

The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.

F.

It builds on large set of historical data

G.

The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort

Question 8

In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test planning

B.

Test execution

C.

Test management

D.

Test design

Question 9

Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

Options:

A.

Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations

B.

Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system

C.

Activities to deploy the system in the user environment

D.

Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations

E.

Development activities for unit and integration testing

F.

Reviews on requirements documentation

G.

Defining test environment requirements for system testing

Question 10

Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits

Options:

A.

All supported credit cards

B.

Language localization

C.

Valid and invalid advances

D.

Usability

E.

Response time

Question 11

Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing - showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.

Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing to verify the business process

B.

Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements

C.

Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance

D.

Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution

Question 12

Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits

Options:

A.

An approach to regression testing

B.

A list of boundary values for “advance amount”

C.

A description of dependencies between test cases

D.

A logical collection of test cases

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

Question 14

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

Question 15

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

Question 16

You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations? 3 credits

Options:

A.

Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.

B.

Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.

C.

Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.

D.

Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.

Question 17

Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test environment more complex

B.

Define expectation for tasks and deliverables

C.

Clear channels of communications

D.

Possibly different cultures

E.

Testing of non-functional requirements

F.

Audit trail from requirements to test cases

G.

Applying test automation

Question 18

You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit

Options:

A.

They are a cheap resource

B.

They have good testing skills

C.

This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system

D.

They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases

Question 19

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

Question 20

A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at component level.

Which of the following test types will be required during the development? [K2]

Options:

A.

Functional testing to test security at the system level, load testing at the system level to ensure the system availability is acceptable, regression testing at all levels, structure based testing at the component level only

B.

Functional testing to test the use cases at component level, reliability testing to test availability at the integration level, regression testing at the system testing level only, structure based testing at all levels

C.

Functional testing of the use cases at system level, load testing at component level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the system and acceptance levels only, and structure based testing at the integration level only

D.

Functional testing to test security at the acceptance level, load testing at the acceptance test level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the acceptance level only to ensure late changes are made correctly, and structure based testing at the component level

Question 21

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution

B.

Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources

C.

Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test execution

D.

Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for test procedures used in test execution

Question 22

Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Integration with other tools

B.

Learning time required to use the new tool

C.

Tool portability

D.

Evaluation of suitable tools

Question 23

Select THREE issues from the options provided that should at least be raised. 1 credit

Options:

A.

Has there been sufficient comparison of tools?

B.

What are the problems we are trying to address?

C.

Do we have a set of tool requirements to validate the tool against?

D.

How will the implementation be organized?

E.

Which project will be selected to perform the tool pilot?

F.

Is customized training available?

G.

How will the change process be managed?

Question 24

Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK

B.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK

C.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

D.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

Question 25

Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits

Options:

A.

The concerns over the user interface may lead to changes to the interface which cannot be implemented by development in time for the second test iteration.

B.

The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool.

C.

The delivery of the application without the interface changes may upset the user community.

D.

The method used for test estimation is not accurate enough and hence the money spent on testing exceeded its budget.

Question 26

Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Inspections

C.

Expert interviews

D.

Independent assessments

Question 27

Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Testing for performance problems

B.

Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company

C.

Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing

D.

Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment

Question 28

Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

Options:

A.

Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing

B.

Targets certain types of faults

C.

Will guide experienced testers to find defects

D.

Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques

E.

More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility

F.

Will make non-systematic testing redundant

G.

Will reduce the need for early reviews

Question 29

In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. 1 credit

Options:

A.

The entry and exit criteria for each test phase

B.

Test training needs for the project resources

C.

The test design techniques to be used

D.

Test performance indicators

E.

The test schedule

Question 30

You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit

Options:

A.

A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.

B.

A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project.

C.

A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects.

D.

A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testing.

Question 31

Faults found by users are due to..?

Options:

A.

Poor quality software

B.

Poor software and poor testing

C.

Bad luck

D.

Insufficient time for testing

Question 32

The cost of fixing a fault:

Options:

A.

Is not important

B.

Increases as we move the product towards live use

C.

Decreases as we move the product towards live use

D.

Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design

E.

Can never be determined

Question 33

A system is designed to accept values of examination marks as follows:

Fail: 0–39 inclusive

Pass: 40–59 inclusive

Merit: 60–79 inclusive

Distinction: 80–100 inclusive

In which of the following sets of values are all values in different equivalence partitions?

Options:

A.

25, 40, 60, 75

B.

0, 45, 79, 87

C.

35, 40, 59, 69

D.

25, 39, 60, 81

Question 34

Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis

B.

Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code

C.

Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder

D.

Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort

Question 35

Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits

i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.

ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.

iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.

iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(ii) and (iv)

Question 36

Which of the following would be the most significant input to estimating the time to carry out the specified testing tasks? 3 credits

Options:

A.

The skills and experience of developers to correct the failures.

B.

The standards used for the requirements specification.

C.

The metrics recorded from testing the capture-replay tool.

D.

The number of testers in the company and their grade.

Question 37

Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B.

Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.

C.

Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.

D.

Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.

Question 38

Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.

B.

Testing is isolated from development.

C.

Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.

D.

Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.

Question 39

A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.

i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.

ii. Testing is outsourced.

iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.

iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.

v. Testing is performed by the business.

vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.

Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit

Options:

A.

i, ii, iv, vi

B.

ii, i, v, vi

C.

ii, v, i, iii

D.

i, iv, v, vi

Question 40

Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits

Options:

A.

No priority or severity assigned

B.

Incident numbering is manual rather than automated

C.

No mentioning of reproduceability

D.

No classification on type of incident

Question 41

Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:

a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test

b. strategy document

c. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource

d. requirements

e. A detailed schedule of testing activities

f. The development deliverables to be tested

g. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when

h. Level of requirements coverage achieved

Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

a

B.

b

C.

c

D.

d

E.

e

F.

f

Question 42

As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit

Options:

A.

The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.

B.

Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.

C.

Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.

D.

Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.

Question 43

Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? 2 credits

Options:

A.

If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.

B.

If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.

C.

TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.

D.

TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.

Question 44

The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit

Options:

A.

ISO 9126

B.

IEEE 829

C.

BS 7925/2

D.

DO-178B

Question 45

A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy

B.

Defined according to the maturity model used

C.

Most visible to stakeholders

D.

Low costs actions first

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing

B.

Project management and control

C.

No complete requirements specification

D.

Time-boxing

Question 47

Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? 2 credits

Options:

A.

It will extend the development team’s abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities.

B.

It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.

C.

Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.

D.

More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.

Question 48

As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach. Which test technique might be most appropriate to use? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Decision Table Testing

B.

Boundary Value Analysis

C.

Error Guessing

D.

Exploratory Testing

Question 49

The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits

Options:

A.

The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044.

B.

The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.

C.

The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.

D.

The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.

Question 50

Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits

Options:

A.

In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.

B.

The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.

C.

The test cases do not cover the key requirements.

D.

The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.

Demo: 50 questions
Total 338 questions