Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?
Management intervention
Risk appetite
Board commentary
Escalation triggers
The best answer is D. Escalation triggers. Escalation triggers are predefined thresholds or conditions that indicate when a key risk indicator (KRI) has reached a critical level that requires immediate attention or action. Escalation triggers can be based on quantitative or qualitative measures, such as percentages, scores, ratings, or colors. Escalation triggers can help to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk, because they provide clear and timely signals that alert the risk owners, managers, and other stakeholders of the need to review and revise the risk response plan, or to implement additional or alternative controls. Escalation triggers can also help to communicate and report the risk status and the risk response actions to the senior management and the board, and to obtain their support and approval, if needed. The otheroptions are not the best answer, although they may be related or influential to the KRI and the risk mitigation. Management intervention is a part of the risk response process, which involves the actions and decisions taken by the management to address the risk, such as approving, implementing, or monitoring the controls. Management intervention can help to mitigate risk, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a consequence or a result of the escalation triggers. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite can help to define and align the KRI and the escalation triggers with the organizational strategy and culture, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a factor or a driver of the KRI. Board commentary is a part of the risk reporting process, which involves the feedback and guidance provided by the board on the risk management process and performance. Board commentary can help to improve and enhance the KRI and the risk mitigation, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a source or a resource of the KRI. References = Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture, KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?
Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays
Maintaining a risk register
The best way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability is to establish a disaster recovery plan (DRP), because a DRP is a document that defines the procedures and resources needed to restore the IT infrastructure and resume the critical business functions in the event of a disaster or disruption. A DRP helps to minimize the downtime, data loss, and financial impact of a disaster, and ensures the continuity of operations and services. The other options are not the best ways to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability, although they may also be helpful in supporting the DRP. Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs), maintaining a current list of staff contact details, and maintaining a risk register are examples of planning or monitoring activities that aim to define the requirements, roles, and responsibilities for the disaster recovery process, but they do not address the actual implementation or execution of the DRP. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?
A management-approved risk dashboard
A current control framework
A regularly updated risk register
Regularly updated risk management procedures
Importance of a Risk Register:
A risk register is a critical tool for documenting, tracking, and managing risks within an organization. It serves as a central repository for all identified risks, detailing their status, impact, likelihood, and the actions taken to mitigate them.
A regularly updated risk register demonstrates an active and ongoing risk management process, reflecting the organization's commitment to identifying and addressing risks promptly.
Evidence of Robust Risk Management:
The risk register shows the organization's proactive approach to risk management by continuously monitoring and updating risks.
It provides transparency and accountability, allowing stakeholders to see how risks are being managed and mitigated over time.
Regular updates ensure that new risks are identified and existing risks are reassessed, indicating a dynamic and responsive risk management practice.
Comparing Other Options:
Management-Approved Risk Dashboard:While useful for summarizing risk information, a dashboard does not provide the detailed, ongoing updates and comprehensive tracking found in a risk register.
Current Control Framework:A control framework outlines the controls in place but does not detail specific risks or their management.
Regularly Updated Risk Management Procedures:Procedures are important but do not provide the same level of detailed risk tracking and management as a risk register.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of a risk register in consolidating and tracking risk data, making it an essential component of robust risk management practices (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.6 Risk Register) .
Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?
Reviewing the maturity of the control environment
Regularly monitoring the project plan
Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register
Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan would best help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed, as it involves verifying the effectiveness and efficiency of the implemented risk response actions and identifying any gaps or changes in the risk profile. Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan helps to:
Confirm that the controls are operating as intended and producing the desired outcomes
Detect any deviations, errors, or weaknesses in the controls and their performance
Evaluate the adequacy and appropriateness of the controls in relation to the current risk environment and the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance
Recommend and implement corrective actions or improvement measures to address any issues or deficiencies in the controls
Update the risk register and the risk treatment plan to reflect the current risk status and the residual risk levels
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 215-2161
An organization's Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?
Risk owner
IT risk manager
Server administrator
Risk practitioner
The risk owner is the person who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization, because they are the person who has the authority and responsibility to manage the risk and its associated controls.The risk owner is also the person who accepts the risk and its residual level, and who monitors and reports on the risk status and performance. The IT risk manager, the server administrator, and the risk practitioner are all involved in the riskmanagement process, but they are not the person who should be accountable for the risk and its outcomes, as they do not have the ultimate decision-making power and accountability for therisk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, page 79
Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?
Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape
Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment
Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit
Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors
An updatedrisk registerensures that decision-makers have accurate, timely information about current risks, enabling informed, risk-based decisions that align with organizational priorities and changes in the environment.
A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?
Business continuity manager (BCM)
Human resources manager (HRM)
Chief risk officer (CRO)
Chief information officer (CIO)
A systems interruption caused by a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures is a serious breach of information security and IT risk management. The person who should be accountable for this incident is the chief information officer (CIO), who is responsible for overseeing the IT function and ensuring compliance with IT policies and standards. The CIO should also ensure that appropriate corrective and preventive actions are taken to prevent such incidents from recurring and to mitigate the impact of the systems interruption on the business operations and objectives. The CIO should also report the incident to the senior management and the board of directors, and communicate with the relevant stakeholders about the incident and the actions taken. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 181
A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.
Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.
Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.
Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.
The FIRST thing that should be done when a KRI has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time is to recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI, because it may indicate that the trigger point is set too high or too low, or that the KRI is not relevant or effective in measuring the risk exposure. A re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI may result in adjusting the trigger point, changing the KRI, or removing the KRI. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, because:
Option B: Notifying management that KRIs are being effectively managed is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not reflect the true risk status and performance. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not be a valid or reliable indicator of the risk exposure, and it may not capture the changes or trends in the risk environment.
Option C: Updating the risk rating associated with the KRI in the risk register is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be accurate or consistent. A risk rating is based on the likelihood and impact of the risk, and it should be derived from a comprehensive risk analysis, not just from a single KRI. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not reflect the actual likelihood and impact of the risk, and it may not be aligned with the other risk indicators and assessments.
Option D: Updating the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be appropriate or feasible. Risk tolerance and risk appetite are the acceptable level of risk exposure and variation that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and they are determined by the executive management and the board of directors, based on the enterprise’s strategy and goals. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not represent the desired or optimal level of risk exposure and variation, and it may not be aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 121.
The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:
capability to implement the response
importance of IT risk within the enterprise
effectiveness of risk response options
alignment of response to industry standards
The effectiveness of risk response options is the best criteria when selecting a risk response, because it reflects the degree to which the response can reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk, or enhance the benefit or opportunity of the risk. The effectiveness of risk response options can be evaluated by considering factors such as cost, feasibility, timeliness, and alignment with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite. The other options are not as good as the effectiveness of risk response options, because they do not measure the outcome or value of the response, but rather focus on the input or process of the response, as explained below:
A. Capability to implement the response is a criteria that considers the availability and adequacy of the resources, skills, and knowledge required to execute the response. While this is an important factor to consider, it does not indicate how well the response can address the risk or achieve the desired result.
B. Importance of IT risk within the enterprise is a criteria that considers the significance and priority of the risk in relation to the organization’s strategy, objectives, and operations. Whilethis is an important factor to consider, it does not indicate how well the response can address the risk or achieve the desired result.
D. Alignment of response to industry standards is a criteria that considers the compliance and conformity of the response with the best practices, norms, and expectations of the industry or sector. While this is an important factor to consider, it does not indicate how well the response can address the risk or achieve the desired result. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 40. How to Select Your Risk Responses -Rebel’s Guide to Project Management, Risk Response Plan in Project Management: Key Strategies & Tips, Risk Responses - options for managing risk - Stakeholdermap.com
An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?
Risk mitigation
Risk avoidance
Risk acceptance
Risk transfer
The risk treatment response that should be reflected in the risk register when an IT department decides to keep the data center in-house instead of outsourcing it to an overseas location is risk avoidance. Risk avoidance is a risk response strategy that involves eliminating the source of the risk, or changing the plan or scope of the activity, to avoid the risk altogether. Risk avoidance can help to reduce the risk exposure and impact to zero, by removing the possibility of the risk occurrence. In this case, the IT department avoids the risk of outsourcing the data center to an overseas location, which could involve various threats, vulnerabilities, and uncertainties, such as data security, legal compliance, service quality, communication, or cultural issues. By keeping the data center in-house, the IT department maintains the control and ownership of the data center, and eliminates the potential risk associated with the outsourcing. Risk mitigation, risk acceptance, and risk transfer are not the correct risk treatment responses, as they do not reflect the actual decision and action taken by the IT department, and they do not eliminate the risk source or occurrence. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 51.
Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?
Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities
Determining attack likelihood per business unit
Adjusting business unit risk tolerances
Customizing incident response plans for each business unit
A risk practitioner identifies an increasing trend of employees copying company information unrelated to their job functions to USB drives. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated to reflect this observation?
Risk impact
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Risk appetite
Risk likelihood
When a risk practitioner identifies an increasing trend of employees copying company information unrelated to their job functions to USB drives, the element of the risk register that should be updated is the risk likelihood. Here’s why:
Risk Likelihood:
Risk likelihood refers to the probability that a risk event will occur.
Observing an increasing trend of inappropriate behavior (such as copying sensitive information) indicates a higher probability of occurrence, thus increasing the risk likelihood.
Risk Impact:
While the impact of such actions could be significant, the increasing trend specifically affects the likelihood rather than the immediate impact.
The risk impact remains constant unless there is a change in the potential damage caused by the action.
Key Risk Indicator (KRI):
This observation might serve as a KRI, but the immediate action is to update the likelihood in the risk register, reflecting the increased probability.
Risk Appetite:
Risk appetite defines the level of risk an organization is willing to accept. This observation suggests a deviation but does not directly affect the risk appetite itself.
A maturity model will BEST indicate:
confidentiality and integrity.
effectiveness and efficiency.
availability and reliability.
certification and accreditation.
According to Wikipedia1, a maturity model is a framework for measuring an organization’s maturity, or that of a business function within an organization, with maturity being defined as a measurement of the ability of an organization for continuous improvement in a particular discipline. A maturity model will best indicate the effectiveness and efficiency of an organization or a business function, as it helps to evaluate how well they achieve their intended objectives with minimum resources, time, and cost. A maturity model also helps to identify and prioritize the areas and opportunities for improvement, and to establish and communicate the standards and best practices for the discipline. References = Wikipedia1
Which of the following BEST represents a critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI)?
The value at which control effectiveness would fail
Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations
A typical operational value
A value that represents the intended control state
A critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI) is the value that indicates that the control is no longer performing its intended function of mitigating a risk. If the KCI reaches or exceeds this value, it means that the control effectiveness has failed and corrective actions are needed. The other options are not the best representations of a critical threshold value for a KCI, because they do not reflect the actual performance or outcome of the control. Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations, a typical operational value, and a value that represents the intended control state are examples of target or acceptable values for a KCI, not critical or unacceptable values. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
All business units within an organization have the same risk response plan for creating local disaster recovery plans. In an effort to achieve cost effectiveness, the BEST course of action would be to:
select a provider to standardize the disaster recovery plans.
outsource disaster recovery to an external provider.
centralize the risk response function at the enterprise level.
evaluate opportunities to combine disaster recovery plans.
Disaster recovery plans are essential for ensuring the continuity and resilience of business operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. However, creating and maintaining separatedisaster recovery plans for each business unit may not be cost-effective or efficient, as it may result in duplication, inconsistency, or gaps in the plans. Therefore, the best course of action would be to evaluate opportunities to combine disaster recovery plans across the business units, where possible and appropriate. This would help to achieve economies of scale, standardization, and alignment of the plans, as well as reduce complexity and costs. However, this does not mean that all disaster recovery plans should be identical or centralized, as different business units may have different risk profiles, recovery objectives, and requirements. Therefore, the combined disaster recovery plans should still be tailored and customized to suit the specific needs and characteristics of each business unit. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.2, page 71.
The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:
security department.
business unit
vendor.
IT department.
A high-risk vulnerability in an application is a system flaw or weakness in the application’s code that can be exploited by a malicious actor, potentially leading to a security breach. The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is the possibility and impact of such a breach occurring. The risk owner of a high-risk vulnerability in an application is the person or entity who has the authority and responsibility for managing the risk. The risk owner should be able to define the risk appetite, assess the risk level, select and implement the risk response, monitor and report the risk status, and ensure the risk alignment with the business objectives and strategy. The risk owner of a high-risk vulnerability in an application is the business unit, which is the organizational unit that operates the application and derives value from it. The businessunit understands the business needs and expectations of the application, and the potential consequences of a security breach. The business unit also has the resources and incentives to address the risk effectively and efficiently. Therefore, the business unit is the most appropriate risk owner of a high-risk vulnerability in an application. References = Why Assigning a Risk Owner is Important and How to Do It Right, CRISC 351-400 topic3, Foundations of Project Management : Week 2.
Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?
The organization's knowledge
Ease of implementation
The organization's culture
industry-leading security tools
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the organization’s culture is the most critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation, because it influences the behavior, attitude, and perception of the stakeholders towards security. The organization’s culture includes the values, beliefs, norms, and practices that are shared by the members of the organization. A positive and supportive culture can foster the awareness, commitment, and collaboration of the stakeholders in achieving the security objectives and complying with the security policies and standards. The other options are not the most critical elements, as they are less influential or less challenging than the organization’s culture. The organization’s knowledge is the collective understanding and expertise of the organization regardingsecurity, which can be enhanced through training and education. Ease of implementation is the degree of difficulty and complexity of implementing security, which can be reduced by using appropriate methods and tools. Industry-leading security tools are the best-in-class solutions and technologies that can provide effective and efficient security, which can be acquired through market research and evaluation. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, page 32.
Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on
minimum tolerable downtime
minimum tolerable loss of data.
maximum tolerable downtime.
maximum tolerable loss of data
Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the acceptable timeframes within which business processes must be restored after a disruption. RTOs should be based on the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD), which is the longest time that a business process can be inoperable without causing irreparable harm to the organization. The other options are not directly related to RTOs, as they refer to the amount of data loss or corruption that can be tolerated, not the time to restore the business processes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Key Risk Indicators, page 197.
The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that:
exposures are reduced to the fullest extent
exposures are reduced only for critical business systems
insurance costs are minimized
the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss.
The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss. The cost of controls is the amount of resources and efforts required to implement and maintain the controls that are designed to reduce the risk exposure. The expected loss is the estimated amount of loss or harm that may result from a risk event. Therisk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite, the organization can optimize the balance between the cost of controls and the expected loss, and avoid over- or under-investing in controls. Exposures being reduced to the fullest extent,exposures being reduced only for critical business systems, and insurance costs being minimized are other possible objectives, but they are not as relevant as the cost of controls not exceeding the expected loss. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC)Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY accountable for risk associated with business information protection?
Control owner
Data owner
System owner
Application owner
The data owner is responsible for ensuring that information is appropriately classified and protected. They are accountable for defining access controls and ensuring compliance with data protection policies, making them primarily accountable for risks associated with business information protection.
Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?
information security manager
Control owner
Risk owner
Risk manager
The control owner is the person who has the authority to approve an exception to a control. A control is a policy, procedure, or technical measure that is implemented to prevent or mitigate a risk. A control owner is responsible for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of the control, as well as for monitoring and reporting its performance and effectiveness. A control owner is also accountable for the approval of any changes or exceptions to the control, based on the risk assessment and business justification. An information security manager, a risk owner, and a risk manager are not the best choices, as they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, and knowledge as the control owner in relation to the control. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 35.
A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:
updating the risk register
documenting the risk scenarios.
validating the risk scenarios
identifying risk mitigation controls.
Validating the risk scenarios is the most important time to involve business stakeholders, as they can provide feedback on the relevance, completeness, and accuracy of the scenarios. They can also help to ensure that the scenarios are aligned with the business objectives, context, and risk appetite. By involving business stakeholders in the validation process, the risk practitioner can increase the credibility and acceptance of the risk scenarios.
Updating the risk register, documenting the risk scenarios, and identifying risk mitigation controls are all important steps in the risk scenario development process, but they are not the most important time to involve business stakeholders. These steps can be performed by the risk practitioner with input from othersources, such as subject matter experts, historical data, industry standards, etc. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, page 47-481
The percentage of unpatched systems is a:
threat vector.
critical success factor (CSF).
key performance indicator (KPI).
key risk indicator (KRI).
The percentage of unpatched systems is best classified as a Key Risk Indicator (KRI). KRIs are metrics used by organizations to provide an early signal of increasing risk exposures in various areas of the business. Here’s a
Understanding KRIs:
Definition: KRIs are specific metrics that provide insights into the risk level of an organization. They help in identifying potential risks that could impact the business negatively if not addressed promptly.
Purpose: KRIs are used to monitor the effectiveness of risk management strategies and to provide an early warning system for emerging risks.
Percentage of Unpatched Systems as a KRI:
Indicator of Vulnerability: The percentage of unpatched systems directly indicates how vulnerable an organization is to cyber threats. Unpatched systems are a common entry point for attackers, making this metric critical for assessing the organization's exposure to cyber risks.
Impact on Security Posture: A high percentage of unpatched systems can significantly increase the likelihood of security incidents, making it a valuable metric for risk management.
Proactive Risk Management: By monitoring this KRI, organizations can take proactive measures to address vulnerabilities before they are exploited.
Comparison with Other Options:
Threat Vector: A threat vector refers to the path or means by which a threat can reach and impact an asset. It is not a metric like the percentage of unpatched systems.
Critical Success Factor (CSF): CSFs are essential elements necessary for an organization to achieve its mission. While important, they are not specific metrics used to measure risk.
Key Performance Indicator (KPI): KPIs measure how effectively an organization is achieving its key business objectives. While related, KPIs focus on performance rather than risk exposure.
A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?
Business analyst
Project sponsor
IT project team
IT project management office (PMO)
It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:
communicated to business management
tested by business owners.
approved by the business owner.
initiated by business users.
The most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production is after they are approved by the business owner, who is the individual or group that is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements that are supported or affected by the changes. The approval by the business owner ensures that the changes are aligned and compatible with the business objectives and requirements, and that they provide the expected or desired outcomes or benefits for the business.
The other options are not the most appropriate times for changes to be promoted to production, because they do not ensure that the changes are aligned and compatible with the businessobjectives and requirements, and that they provide the expected or desired outcomes or benefits for the business.
Communicating the changes to business management means informing or reporting the changes to the senior management or executives that oversee or direct the business activities or functions. Communicating the changes to business management is important for ensuring the awareness and support of the business management, but it is not the most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production, because it does not indicatewhether the changes are approved or authorized by the business owner, who is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements.
Testing the changes by business owners means verifying and validating the functionality and usability of the changes, using the input and feedback from the business owners. Testing the changes by business owners is important for ensuring the quality and performance of the changes, but it is not the most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production, because it does not indicate whether the changes are approved or authorized by the business owner, who is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements.
Initiating the changes by business users means requesting or proposing the changes by the end users or customers that interact with the information systems and resources that are affected by the changes. Initiating the changes by business users is important for ensuring the relevance and appropriateness of the changes, but it is not the most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production, because it does not indicate whether the changes are approved or authorized by the business owner, who is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 194
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern if user acceptance testing (UAT) is not conducted when implementing a new application?
The probability of application defects will increase
Data confidentiality could be compromised
Increase in the use of redundant processes
The application could fail to meet defined business requirements
User acceptance testing (UAT) is a type of validation testing that ensures that the product meets the needs and expectations of the end users and the business stakeholders. UAT is usually conducted by the actual or representative users of the product, who perform various scenarios and tasks to verify that the product functions correctly and satisfies the business requirements. UAT is an important step in the software development life cycle, as it helps to identify and resolve any issues or gaps between the product and the requirements before the product is released.
If UAT is not conducted when implementing a new application, the greatest concern is that the application could fail to meet the defined business requirements, which could result in user dissatisfaction, loss of trust,reduced productivity, increased costs, and missed opportunities. The application may have technical defects, security vulnerabilities, or redundant processes, but these are not the primary purpose of UAT. UAT is focused on validating the business value and usability of the product, not the technical quality or security of the product. Therefore, the lack ofUAT could have a significant impact on the alignment of the product with the business objectives and user needs.
The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the
regulatory environment of the organization
risk management capability of the organization
board of directors' response to identified risk factors
importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals
The board of directors’ response to identified risk factors is the best indicator of the risk appetite of an organization. The board of directors is the highest governing body of the organization, and it is responsible for setting the strategic direction, objectives, and risk appetite of the organization. The board of directors should also oversee the risk management process, and ensure that the risks are aligned with the organization’s goals and values. The board of directors’ response to identified risk factors reflects how much and what type of risk the organization is willing to pursue, retain, or take in order to achieve its objectives. The regulatory environment, the risk management capability, and the importance assigned to IT are not direct indicators of the risk appetite, although they may influence or constrain it. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?
Comparing the actual process with the documented process
Reviewing access logs for user activity
Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees
Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy
The best way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process is to reconcile a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees. This will ensure that the access rights of the employees who have left the organization are revoked in a timely and accurate manner, and that there are no orphaned or unauthorized accounts that could pose a security risk. Comparing the actual process with the documented process, reviewing access logs for user activity, and reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy are also useful methods, but they are not as direct and conclusive as reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of developing information security metrics?
Raising security awareness
Enabling continuous improvement
Identifying security threats
Ensuring regulatory compliance
Information security metrics are quantitative or qualitative measures that indicate the performance and effectiveness of the information security processes, controls, and objectives. The primary goal of developing information security metrics is to enable continuous improvement of the information security program and to align it with the business goals and strategy. Information security metrics can help to identify the strengths and weaknesses of thesecurity program, to monitor and report on the progress and outcomes of the security initiatives, to evaluate the return on investment and value of the security activities, and to provide feedback and guidance for improvement actions. Information security metrics should be relevant, reliable, consistent, and actionable. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, p. 116-117
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?
To create a complete repository of risk to the organization
To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization
To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios
To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization
The most important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program is to create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization, as it enables the organization to identify, assess, and prioritize the key risks that may affect its objectives and strategy, and to implement appropriate risk responses and controls. A comprehensive view of critical risk also helps the organization to align its risk appetite and tolerance with its business goals and value creation, and to enhance its risk culture and governance. A comprehensive view of critical risk can be achieved by integrating risk management across all levels and functions of the organization, and by using consistent and reliable risk information and reporting. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 242. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 242. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 242.
A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?
Risk assessment
Risk reporting
Risk mitigation
Risk identification
SWOT analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) is used in the riskidentification phase to comprehensively analyze the organization's internal and externalenvironments. By understanding strengths and weaknesses, internal risks can be identified, while opportunities and threats help to identify external risks. This method provides a foundation for proactive risk management.
A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?
Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.
Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.
Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.
Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a risk action plan is a document that defines the specific actions, resources, responsibilities, and timelines for implementing the risk responses. A risk action plan should be developed after the results of a vulnerability assessment are shared with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business manager, to address the identified vulnerabilities and mitigate the associated risks. Developing a risk action plan is the next step in the risk management process, as it helps to ensure that the risk responses are executed effectively and efficiently, and that the residual risks are within the acceptable levels. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 201.
An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on theorganization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?
Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.
Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.
Use a secure channel to transmit the files.
Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.
Obfuscating customer information ensures data privacy by rendering sensitive details unintelligible to unauthorized parties, reducing the risk of exposure during transit or processing. This aligns withData Protection and Privacy Regulationsunder risk management frameworks, emphasizing safeguarding personally identifiable information.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?
A reduction in the number of help desk calls
An increase in the number of identified system flaws
A reduction in the number of user access resets
An increase in the number of incidents reported
A security awareness training program is an educational program that aims to equip the organization’s employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization’s data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches12.
A risk-aware culture is a culture that values and promotes the understanding and management of risks, and encourages the behaviors and actions that support the organization’s risk objectives and strategy34.
The best indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees is an increase in the number of incidents reported, which is the frequency or rate of security incidents that are detected and communicated by the employees to the appropriate authorities or channels56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is the best indication because it shows that the employees have gained the awareness and confidence to recognize and report the security incidents that may affect the organization, and that they have the responsibility and accountability to contribute to the organization’s risk management and security posture56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is also the best indication because it enables the organization to respond and recover from the security incidents more quickly and effectively, and to prevent or reduce the recurrence or escalation of similar incidents in the future56.
The other options are not the best indication, but rather possible outcomes or consequences of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program. For example:
A reduction in the number of help desk calls is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more self-reliant and proficient in solving or preventing the common or minor IT issues or problems . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may be more serious or complex .
An increase in the number of identified system flaws is a consequence of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more vigilant and proactive in finding and reporting the vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the IT systems or processes . However, this consequence does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may exploit or leverage the system flaws .
A reduction in the number of user access resets is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more careful and responsible in managing and protecting their user credentials or accounts . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may compromise or misuse the user access . References =
1: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US5
2: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky6
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
5: Security Incident Reporting and Response, University of Toronto, 2017
6: Security Incident Reporting and Response, ISACA, 2019
IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2018
IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Now Blog, February 12, 2018
System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, University of Toronto, 2017
System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, ISACA, 2019
User Access Management and Control, University of Toronto, 2017
User Access Management and Control, ISACA, 2019
An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.
Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.
Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.
Obtain certification to a global information security standard.
Which of the following stakeholders are typically included as part of a line of defense within the three lines of defense model?
Board of directors
Vendors
Regulators
Legal team
The three lines of defense model is a framework that describes the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders in the risk management and internal control processes of an organization. The three lines of defense are:
The first line of defense: the operational management and staff who are responsible for identifying, assessing, and responding to the risks, as well as implementing and maintaining the controls within their areas of activity.
The second line of defense: the risk management, compliance, and security functions who are responsible for establishing the risk policies and standards, providing guidance and support, monitoring and reporting on the risk performance and compliance, and facilitating the risk management and internal control processes across the organization.
The third line of defense: the internal audit function who is responsible for providing independent and objective assurance on the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management and internal control processes, as well as recommending improvements and best practices. The stakeholders who are typically included as part of a line of defense within the three lines of defense model are the legal team, who belong to the second line of defense. The legal team is responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the relevant laws and regulations, aswell as for advising and assisting the organization on the legal aspects and implications of the risk management and internal control processes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.4.1, p. 32-33
An IT operations team implements disaster recovery controls based on decisions from application owners regarding the level of resiliency needed. Who is the risk owner in this scenario?
Business resilience manager
Disaster recovery team lead
Application owner
IT operations manager
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the application owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the achievement of the application objectives and the management of the associated risks. The application owner is responsible for defining the level of resiliency needed for the application, which is the ability of the application to recover from disruptions and continue to operate. The application owner is also responsible for accepting or rejecting the residual risks after the implementation of the disaster recovery controls, which are the measures to restore the application functionality and data in the event of a disaster. Therefore, the risk owner in this scenario is the application owner, as they are the ones who will be affected by the potential impact of the disaster on the application and its objectives. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 194.
An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?
Project Charlie
Project Bravo
Project Alpha
Project Delta
Project Delta should be deferred by management, as it has the lowest return on investment (ROI) among the four competing projects. ROI is a measure of the profitability or efficiency of a project, calculated by dividing the net benefits by the total costs. Project Delta has a net benefit of $100,000 and a total cost of $200,000, resulting in an ROI of 0.5. The other projects have higher ROIs: Project Alpha has an ROI of 1.0, Project Bravo has an ROI of 0.8, and Project Charlie has an ROI of 0.6. Therefore, Project Delta is the least attractive option for reducingoverall IT risk, and management should prioritize the other projects instead. References = How to Manage Project Risk: A 5-Step Guide; Matching the right projects with the right resources; Risk Types in Project Management
Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of fraudulent activity that occurs through use of a digital wallet?
Require multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the digital wallet.
Use a digital key to encrypt the contents of the wallet.
Enable audit logging on the digital wallet's device.
Require public key infrastructure (PKI) to authorize transactions.
Requiring MFA increases the security of digital wallets by adding an additional layer of authentication, making it harder for unauthorized users to gain access. This aligns withAccess Control Standardsand significantly reduces the likelihood of fraud.
Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?
Vulnerability and threat analysis
Control remediation planning
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Information systems control deficiencies are the weaknesses or flaws in the design or implementation of the controls that are intended to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and reliability of the information systems and resources. Information systems control deficiencies may reduce the effectiveness or efficiency of the controls, and expose the organization to various risks, such as unauthorized access, data loss, system failure, etc.
Reviewing results from control self-assessment (CSA) is the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because CSA is a process of evaluating and verifying the adequacy and effectiveness of the information systems controls, using the input and feedback from the individuals or groups that are involved or responsible for the information systems activities or functions. CSA can help the organization to identify and document the information systems control deficiencies, and to align them with the organization’s information systems objectives and requirements.
CSA can be performed using various techniques, such as questionnaires, surveys, interviews, workshops, etc. CSA can also be integrated with the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions, and aligned with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the best ways to identify information systems control deficiencies, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that CSA provides, and they may not be relevant or actionable for the organization.
Vulnerability and threat analysis is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses or flaws in the organization’s assets, processes, or systems that can be exploited or compromised by the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives or operations. Vulnerability and threat analysis can help the organization to assess and prioritize the risks, and to design and implement appropriate controls or countermeasures to mitigate or prevent the risks, but it is not the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because it does not indicate whether the existing information systems controls are adequate and effective, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Control remediation planning is a process of selecting and implementing the actions or plans to address or correct the information systems control deficiencies that have been identified,analyzed, and evaluated. Control remediation planning involves choosing one ofthe following types of control responses: mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept. Control remediation planning can help the organization to improve and optimize the information systems controls, and to reduce or eliminate the information systems control deficiencies, but it is not the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because it is a subsequent or follow-up process that depends on the prior identification of the information systems control deficiencies.
User acceptance testing (UAT) is a process of verifying and validating the functionality and usability of the information systems and resources, using the input and feedback from the endusers or customers that interact with the information systems and resources. UAT can help the organization to ensure that the information systems and resources meet the user or customer expectations and requirements, and to identify and resolve any issues or defects that may affect the user or customer satisfaction, but it is not the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because it does not focus on the information systems controls, and it may not cover all the relevant or significant information systems control deficiencies that may exist or arise. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 186
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Implement new controls.
Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).
Redesign the process.
Re-evaluate the existing control design.
Understanding KPIs:
Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to evaluate the efficiency and effectiveness of a process. They must be accurate and relevant to provide meaningful insights.
Process Inefficiency Despite No Control Issues:
If a KPI shows inefficiency but no control issues are noted, it suggests that the KPI may not be accurately reflecting the process performance.
Recalibrating the KPI ensures that it correctly measures what it is intended to, providing a true picture of the process efficiency.
Steps for Recalibration:
Review the current KPI and its alignment with process objectives.
Adjust the KPI parameters or thresholds to better reflect process performance.
Validate the recalibrated KPI with historical data to ensure accuracy.
Comparing Other Actions:
Implementing New Controls:Premature without understanding the root cause of the KPI discrepancy.
Redesigning the Process:Extensive and unnecessary if the KPI is simply miscalibrated.
Re-Evaluating Existing Control Design:Important but secondary to ensuring KPI accuracy.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of accurate KPIs in monitoring process performance and the need for recalibration when discrepancies are found (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.14 Key Performance Indicators).
A business unit is implementing a data analytics platform to enhance its customer relationship management (CRM) system primarily to process data that has been provided by its customers. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to the organization's reputation?
Third-party software is used for data analytics.
Data usage exceeds individual consent.
Revenue generated is not disclosed to customers.
Use of a data analytics system is not disclosed to customers.
Data usage exceeding individual consent presents the greatest risk to the organization’s reputation, as it violates the privacy and trust of the customers and exposes the organization to legal and regulatory liabilities. Customers have the right to know and control how their personal data is collected, processed, and shared by the organization, and they expect the organization to respect their preferences and comply with the applicable laws and standards. If the organization uses the data for purposes beyond the scope of the consent, or without obtaining the consent in the first place, it may damage its reputation and lose its customers’ loyalty and confidence. Third-party software used for data analytics, revenue generated from data analytics, and use of a data analytics system are not inherently risky to the organization’s reputation, as long as they are transparent, secure, and ethical. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers - The Knowledge Academy; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 203.
Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to verify that management has addressed control issues identified during a previous external audit?
Interview control owners.
Observe the control enhancements in operation.
Inspect external audit documentation.
Review management's detailed action plans.
A control is an action or measure that reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk to an acceptable level. A control issue is a problem or weakness that affects the effectiveness or efficiency of a control, such as a gap, deficiency, or failure. A control enhancement is an improvement or modification that increases the effectiveness or efficiency of a control, such as by adding, replacing, or updating the control. An external audit is an independent and objective examination of the enterprise’s activities, processes, or systems, such as the risk management program or thecontrol environment, by an external party, such as a regulator or a third-party auditor. The best way for a risk practitioner to verify that management has addressed control issues identified during a previous external audit is to observe the control enhancements in operation. This will enable the risk practitioner to evaluate the actual performance and outcome of the control enhancements, and to determine whether they have resolved or mitigated the control issues. The other options are not the best way to verify that management has addressed control issues, as they involve different methods or sources of verification:
Interview control owners means that the risk practitioner asks questions or collects feedback from the persons or groups who have the authority and accountability to manage the controls and their issues, such as the business process owners or the IT controls managers. This may provide some information or evidence on the control enhancements, but it may not be as reliable orobjective as observing the control enhancements in operation, as the control owners may have biases, conflicts, or gaps in their knowledge or perception of the control enhancements.
Inspect external audit documentation means that the risk practitioner reviews the reports or records of the external audit, such as the audit findings, recommendations, or opinions. This may provide some information or evidence on the control issues, but it may not be as current or relevant as observing the control enhancements in operation, as the external audit documentation may not reflect the latest or updated status or results of the control enhancements, or may not cover all the aspects or components of the control enhancements.
Review management’s detailed action plans means that the risk practitioner examines the documents that specify the actions to be taken by the management to address the control issues, such as the resources required, the timelines, the owners, and the expected outcomes. This may provide some information or evidence on the control enhancements, but it may not be as accurate or sufficient as observing the control enhancements in operation, as the management’s detailed action plans may not match the actual implementation or execution of the control enhancements, or may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the control enhancements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.1, pp. 62-63.
Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization's security controls?
An internal audit
Security operations center review
Internal penetration testing
A third-party audit
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a third-party audit is an independent and objective examination of an organization’s security controls by an external auditor or organization. A third-party audit provides the most objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization’s security controls, as it helps to avoid any conflicts of interest, biases, or assumptions that may affect the internal audit, review, or testing. A third-party audit also helps to ensure that the security controls comply with the relevant standards, regulations, and best practices, and that they meet the expectations and requirements of the stakeholders, such as customers, partners, or regulators. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 224.
Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?
Vulnerability scanning
Continuous monitoring and alerting
Configuration management
Access controls and active logging
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the consistency and integrity of the IT systems and applications throughout their lifecycle. Configuration management involves identifying, documenting, controlling, and auditing the configuration items, such as hardware, software, data, or services, that comprise the IT systems and applications. Configuration management also involves establishing and enforcing the configuration baselines, which are the approved and authorized states of the configuration items. Implementing configuration management will best help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it will enable the enterprise to verify that the systems meet the specified requirements, standards, and policies, and to detect and correct any deviations or discrepancies. The other options are not as effective as configuration management, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the IT systems and applications:
Vulnerability scanning is a process that identifies and analyzes the weaknesses or gaps in the IT systems and applications that could be exploited by threats. Vulnerability scanning helps to assessthe security and compliance of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not cover all the aspects or components of the systems, or may not reflect the latest changes or updates of the systems.
Continuous monitoring and alerting is a process that tracks and reports the performance and status of the IT systems and applications on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring and alerting helps to identify and respond to any issues or incidents that affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not prevent or detect the unauthorized or unintended changes or modifications of the systems, or may not provide sufficient information or evidence to verify the compliance of the systems.
Access controls and active logging are processes that restrict and record the access and activities of the users or entities on the IT systems and applications. Access controls and active logging help to protect and audit the IT systems and applications, but they do not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as they may not address the configuration or quality issues of the systems, or may not be consistent or comprehensive across the systems. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, pp. 156-157.
Which of the following would BEST enable a risk practitioner to embed risk management within the organization?
Provide risk management feedback to key stakeholders.
Collect and analyze risk data for report generation.
Monitor and prioritize risk data according to the heat map.
Engage key stakeholders in risk management practices.
Engaging key stakeholders in risk management practices is the best way to embed risk management within the organization. This means that the risk practitioner involves andcommunicates with the people who have an interest or influence in the organization’s objectives, activities, and risks, such as senior management, business unit managers, employees, customers, suppliers, regulators, etc.
Engaging key stakeholders in risk management practices helps to create a risk-aware culture, align risk management with the organization’s strategy and vision, ensure the ownership and accountability of risks and controls, obtain the support and commitment for risk management initiatives, and improve the risk management performance and outcomes.
The other options are not the best ways to embed risk management within the organization. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 17
Information Technology & Security, page 11
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 9
Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gam insight into its overall risk profile''
Risk register
Risk appetite
Threat landscape
Risk metrics
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the information about the identified risks, such as the risk description, category, owner, probability, impact, response strategy, status, and action plan. Reviewing the risk register is the best way to help an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile, which is the summary of the nature and level of risk that the organization faces. By reviewing the risk register, the organization can obtain a comprehensive and holistic view of the sources, causes, and consequences of the risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with therisk appetite and tolerance. The risk register can also help the organization to prioritize the risks, allocate the resources, select the risk responses, monitor the risk performance, and evaluate the risk outcomes. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 99.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation when a key risk indicator (KRI) is generating an excessive volume of events?
Reevaluate the design of the KRIs.
Develop a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI).
Monitor KRIs within a specific timeframe.
Activate the incident response plan.
Reevaluating the design of the key risk indicators (KRIs) is the best recommendation when a KRI is generating an excessive volume of events, because it helps to determine whether the KRI is relevant, reliable, and valid, and whether it needs to be modified or replaced. A KRI is a metric or indicator that helps to monitor and evaluate the likelihood or impact of a risk, or the effectiveness or efficiency of a control. A KRI can be quantitative or qualitative, and can be derived from internal or external sources. An event is an occurrence or incident that may indicate a change or trend in the risk level or performance. A KRI that generates an excessivevolume of events may indicate that the KRI is not well-designed or well-aligned with the risk objectives or criteria, and that it may produce false positives or negatives, or irrelevant or misleading information. Therefore, reevaluating the design of the KRIs is the best recommendation, as it helps to improve the quality and usefulness of the KRIs, and to avoid unnecessary or inappropriate actions or responses. Developing a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI), monitoring KRIs within a specific timeframe, and activating the incident response plan are all possible actions to perform after reevaluating the design of the KRIs, but they are not the best recommendation, as they do not address the root cause of the excessive volume of events. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 97
A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:
mature
ineffective.
optimized.
inefficient.
The result of a control working as desired, but having an annual cost of maintenance that exceeds the expected annual loss exposure, is that the control is inefficient, as it implies that the control is not cost-effective or optimal, and may require a review or adjustment. The other options are not the correct results, as they do not reflect the performance or adequacy of the control, but rather the maturity, effectiveness, or optimization of the control, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy
Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance
Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies
Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization
The next thing that the risk practitioner should do from a risk management perspective when the organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth is to identify new threats resulting from the new business strategy. A threat is a potentialcause of an unwanted incident that may affect the achievement of the objectives. An aggressive business strategy is a strategy that involves pursuing high-risk, high-reward opportunities or initiatives to gain a competitive advantage or a significant market share. An aggressive business strategy may introduce new threats or increase thelikelihood or impact of existing threats, such as market volatility, regulatory changes, customer dissatisfaction, or competitor retaliation. Therefore, the risk practitioner should identify the new threats resulting from the new business strategy, and assess their potential consequences and implications for the organization. The other options are not as immediate as identifying new threats resulting from the new business strategy, as they are related to the update, information, or measurement of the risk management process, not the identification or analysis of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Scenarios, page 23.
Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system?
Vulnerability scanning
Systems log correlation analysis
Penetration testing
Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts
Penetration testing is the best method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system, as it simulates areal-world attack scenario and evaluates the security posture of the system. Penetration testing is a type of security testing that involves performing authorized and ethical hacking activities on a system to identify and exploit its vulnerabilities and weaknesses. Penetration testing can help to measure and improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls implemented to protect the system from unauthorized access, modification, or damage.
The other options are not the best methods for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system. Vulnerability scanning is an automated process that uncovers potential vulnerabilities in systems and software, but it does not provide information on the impact and severity of the vulnerability or how they can be exploited using different exploitation techniques1. Systems log correlation analysis is a process of examining and analyzing the records of system activities and events, but it does not directly test the controls or simulate the attack scenarios. Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts is a process of tracking and auditing the system or network for any signs of malicious or anomalous activities, but it does not evaluate the control performance or identify the root causes of the vulnerabilities. References = Vulnerability Assessment Principles | Tenable®, A Complete Guide on Vulnerability Assessment Methodology, Karen Scarfone Scarfone Cybersecurity - NIST Computer Security Resource …
Which of the following should be the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset?
Assess risk scenarios.
Update the risk register.
Evaluate threats.
Assess controls.
Assessing risk scenarios is the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset. A risk scenario is a description of a possible event or situation that could cause harm or loss to an asset. Assessing risk scenarios involves identifying the sources and causes of risk, the potential impacts and consequences of risk, and the likelihood and frequency of risk occurrence. Assessing risk scenarios can help establish the risk context, scope, and criteria for the asset, and provide the basis for further risk analysis steps, such as evaluating threats, assessing controls, and updating the risk register. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, assessing risk scenarios is thefirst step in the IT risk assessment process1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, assessing risk scenarios is the correct answer to this question
An organization practices the principle of least privilege. To ensure access remains appropriate, application owners should be required to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining:
business purpose documentation and software license counts
an access control matrix and approval from the user's manager
documentation indicating the intended users of the application
security logs to determine the cause of invalid login attempts
The best way to ensure that access remains appropriate for an organization that practices the principle of least privilege is to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining an access control matrix and approval from the user’s manager. An access control matrix is a table that shows the access rights and permissions of each user or role for each resource or function. An access control matrix helps to verify that the users have the minimum level of access required to perform their duties, and to identify any unauthorized or excessive access rights. Approval from the user’s manager helps to confirm that the user’s access rights are consistent with their current role and responsibilities, and to authorize any changes or exceptions as needed. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, page 1281
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:
by the security administration team.
successfully within the expected time frame.
successfully during the first attempt.
without causing an unplanned system outage.
The best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed successfully within the expected time frame. This KPI can help to evaluate how well the security patching process meets the predefined objectives and standards, and how timely the patches are applied to reduce the risk exposure. The percentage of patches installed by the security administration team, successfully during the first attempt, or without causing an unplanned system outage are other possible KPIs, but they are not as relevant as the percentage of patches installed successfully within the expected time frame. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to ensure the risk register is updated regularly?
Risk assessment results are accessible to senior management and stakeholders.
Risk mitigation activities are managed and coordinated.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are evaluated to validate they are still within the risk threshold.
Risk information is available to enable risk-based decisions.
The PRIMARY reason for an organization to ensure the risk register is updated regularly is to make sure that risk information is available to enable risk-based decisions, because the risk register is a tool that documents and tracks the identified risks, their characteristics, their status, and their responses. The risk register provides a comprehensive and current view of the risk profile and exposure of the organization, and it supports the decision-making process and the risk management activities. The other options are not the primary reason, because:
Option A: Risk assessment results are accessible to senior management and stakeholders is a benefit of updating the risk register regularly, but not the primary reason. Risk assessment results are the outputs of the risk analysis process, and they should be recorded and communicated to the relevant parties, but they are not the only or the most important information in the risk register.
Option B: Risk mitigation activities are managed and coordinated is a result of updating the risk register regularly, but not the primary reason. Risk mitigation activities are the actions taken to address the identified risks, and they should be monitored and reported in the risk register, but they are not the only or the most important information in the risk register.
Option C: Key risk indicators (KRIs) are evaluated to validate they are still within the risk threshold is a process that involves updating the risk register regularly, but not the primary reason. KRIs are indicators that measure and monitor the risk exposure and performance of the organization, and they should be compared with the risk threshold to determine if the risk level is acceptable or not, and if any action is required, but they are not the only or the most important information in the risk register. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 108.
A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?
An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
An increase in attempted website phishing attacks
A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)
A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities
A web-based service provider is an organization that offers online services or applications to its customers or users, such as e-commerce, social media, cloud computing, etc. A web-based service provider depends on the availability, reliability, and security of its web servers, networks, and systems to deliver its services or applications.
A low risk appetite for system outages means that the organization is not willing to accept a high level or frequency of system outages, which are interruptions or disruptions in the normal operation or functionality of the web servers, networks, or systems. System outages can cause customer dissatisfaction, revenue loss, reputation damage, or legal liability for the web-based service provider.
A current risk profile for online security is the current state or condition of the online security risks that may affect the web-based service provider’s objectives and operations. It includes the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the online security risks, and the prioritization and response to them based on their significance and urgency.
The most relevant observation to escalate to senior management is an increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, which are malicious attacks that aim to overwhelm or overload the web servers, networks, or systems with a large volume or frequency of requests or traffic, and prevent them from responding to legitimate requests or traffic. An increase in attempted DDoS attacks indicates a high likelihood and impact of system outages, and a high level of threat or vulnerability for the web-based service provider’s online security. Escalating this observation to senior management can help them to understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocation of resources.
The other options are not the most relevant observations to escalate to senior management, because they do not indicate a high likelihood or impact of system outages, and they may not be relevant or actionable for senior management.
An increase in attempted website phishing attacks means an increase in malicious attempts to deceive or trick the web-based service provider’s customers or users into providing their personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, etc., by impersonating the web-based service provider’s website or email. An increase in attemptedwebsite phishing attacks indicates a high level of threat or vulnerability for the web-based service provider’s online security, but it may not directly cause system outages, unless thephishing attacks are used to compromise the web servers, networks, or systems. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider’s risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management’s involvement or approval.
A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs) means a decrease in the extent or degree to which the web-based service provider meets or exceeds the agreed or expected standards or criteria for the quality, performance, or availability of its services or applications, as specified in the contracts or agreements with its customers or users. A decrease in achievement of SLAs indicates a low level of customer satisfaction, retention, or loyalty, and a low level of competitiveness or profitability for the web-based service provider. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider’s risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management’s involvement or approval.
A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities means a decrease in the number or percentage of web security vulnerabilities that have been identified and resolved or mitigated by the web-based service provider. Web security vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws in the web servers, networks, or systems that can be exploited by malicious attackers to compromise or damage the web-based service provider’s online security. A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities indicates a low level of effectiveness or efficiency for the web-based service provider’s web security controls or processes. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider’s risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management’s involvement or approval. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 161
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?
Percentage of business users completing risk training
Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed
Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined
Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response
IT risk management is the process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks related to the use of information technology (IT) in the organization. IT risk management aims to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and information, and to support the IT governance and strategy of the organization1.
The best indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes is the time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise’s response. This indicator can help to measure how quickly and efficiently the organization can detect and respond to the IT risks, and how well the organization can prevent or minimize the negative impacts of the IT risks. The time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise’s response can include:
The time taken to identify and report the IT risk scenarios, using various methods and sources, such as risk assessments, audits, monitoring, alerts, or incidents
The time taken to analyze and evaluate the IT risk scenarios, using various tools and techniques, such as risk matrices, risk registers, risk indicators, or risk models
The time taken to select and implement the IT risk responses, using various strategies and controls, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance
The time taken to review and improve the IT risk management processes, using various feedback and learning mechanisms, such as lessons learned, best practices, or benchmarks23
The other options are not the best indicators of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes, but rather some of the inputs or outputs of IT risk management processes. Percentage of business users completing risk training is an indicator of the awareness and competence of the IT users and providers, which can affect the IT risk management performance, but it does not measure the IT risk management processes directly. Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed is an indicator of the completeness and coverage of the IT risk management activities, which can affect the IT risk management outcomes, but it does not measure the IT risk management processes directly. Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined is an indicator of the scope and complexity of the IT risk management objectives, whichcan affect the IT risk management resources and capabilities, but it does not measure the IT risk management processes directly. References =
IT Risk Management - ISACA
Risk Management Process - ISACA
Risk Response - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?
Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business
Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored
Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis
Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures
The most important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring is to inform the employees of how they are being monitored, because this respects their privacy rights and expectations, and ensures their consent and compliance with the monitoring policy. Informing the employees of how they are being monitored also helps to build trust and transparency between the employer and the employees, and reduces the potential legal or ethical issues that may arise from the monitoring activities. The other options are not the most important considerations, although they may also be relevant for ethical remote work monitoring. Monitoring only during official hours of business, reporting on nonproductive employees to management, and integrating multiple data monitoring sources into security incident response procedures are examples of operational or technical aspects of remote work monitoring,notethical aspects. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
WhichT5f the following is the MOST effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage?
Enforce sanctions for noncompliance with security procedures.
Conduct organization-w>de phishing simulations.
Require training on the data handling policy.
Require regular testing of the data breach response plan.
The most effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage is to require training on the data handling policy, as it educates the employees on the importance, requirements, and procedures of data protection, and enhances their knowledge and skills to prevent, detect, and respond to data leakage incidents. Enforcingsanctions for noncompliance with security procedures, conducting organization-wide phishing simulations, and requiring regular testing of the data breach response plan are not the most effective ways, as they are more related to the enforcement, evaluation, or improvement of the data security, respectively, rather than the promotion of the data security awareness. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
What is the PRIMARY benefit of risk monitoring?
It reduces the number of audit findings.
It provides statistical evidence of control efficiency.
It facilitates risk-aware decision making.
It facilitates communication of threat levels.
Risk monitoring is the process of tracking and evaluating the performance and effectiveness of the risk management process and controls, and identifying any changes or emerging risks that may affect theenterprise’s objectives and strategy. The primary benefit of risk monitoring is that it facilitates risk-aware decision making, as it provides timely and relevant information and feedback to the decision-makers and stakeholders, and enables them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. Risk monitoring also helps to ensure that the risk management process is aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance, and supports the achievement of the enterprise’s goals and value creation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 239. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 239. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 239.
Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced:
with strategic initiatives.
to meet risk appetite.
within resource availability.
below risk appetite.
Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced to meet risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, as well as its risk culture and tolerance. Reducing risk with strategic initiatives, within resource availability, or below risk appetite are all possible approaches, but they do not necessarily optimize risk management, as they may result in over- or under-investment in risk mitigation, or misalignment with business objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 47
An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?
IT risk manager
IT system owner
Information security manager
Business owner
According to the Data Roles and Responsibilities article, the business owner is the person who has authority over the business process that is supported by the data. The business owner is responsible for defining the access roles to protect the sensitive data within the application, as well as approving the access requests and ensuring the compliance with the data policies andstandards. The business owner may delegate this responsibility to a data steward, who is a person who acts on behalf of the business owner to manage the data quality, security, and usage. Therefore, the answer is D. Business owner. References = Data Roles and Responsibilities
The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:
capability to implement new processes
evolution of process improvements
degree of compliance with policies and procedures
control requirements.
A maturity model is a framework that describes the stages or levels of development and improvement of a certain domain, such as a process, a function, or an organization. A maturitymodel can help to evaluate the current state, identify the strengths and weaknesses, set the goals and objectives, and measure the performance and improvement over time. The primary benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the evolution of process improvements, meaning that it can help to track the progress andchanges of the processes, as well as to identify the best practices and standards. A maturity model can also help to compare the processes with the industry benchmarks and competitors, as well as to align the processes with the business strategy and vision. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2.1, p. 118-119
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?
Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee
Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings
Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep
Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants
The percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep is the best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO), as it reflects the ability of the PMO to identify, assess, and respond to the risk of project scope changes that may affect the project objectives, budget, and schedule. The other options are not the best KPIs, as they do not directly measure the effectiveness of risk management practices in the PMO, but rather the outcomes or consequences of risk management decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
Which of the following BEST indicates how well a web infrastructure protects critical information from an attacker?
Failed login attempts
Simulating a denial of service attack
Absence of IT audit findings
Penetration test
A penetration test is a simulated cyberattack on a web infrastructure to evaluate its security posture and identify any vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by an attacker. A penetration test is the best indicator of how well a web infrastructure protects critical information from an attacker, as it mimics the real-world scenarios and techniques that an attacker would use, and measures the effectiveness of the existing security controls and countermeasures. A penetration test can also provide recommendations for improving the security of the web infrastructure and reducing the risk exposure. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 236. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 236. Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10.
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to update following a change in legislation requiring notification to individuals impacted by data breaches?
Insurance coverage
Security awareness training
Policies and standards
Risk appetite and tolerance
Policies and standards are the primary documents that define the organization’s expectations and requirements for information security and risk management. They provide the basis for establishing controls, procedures, roles, and responsibilities. Policies and standards should be updated following a change in legislation requiring notification to individuals impacted by data breaches, to ensure compliance with the new legal obligations and to align with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Updating policies and standards can also help to communicate the changes to the relevant stakeholders and to provide guidance for implementing and monitoring the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, p. 28-29
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure risk management practices are effective at all levels within the organization?
Communicating risk awareness materials regularly
Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk management processes
Ensuring that business activities minimize inherent risk
Embedding risk management in business activities
Embedding Risk Management:
Integrated Approach: Embedding risk management in business activities ensures that risk considerations are part of everyday decision-making processes and operations.
Cultural Shift: Promotes a risk-aware culture where all employees understand their role in managing risk, leading to more proactive and effective risk management practices.
Comparison with Other Options:
Communicating Risk Awareness Materials: Important for education but less impactful than embedding risk management in daily activities.
Establishing KRIs: Useful for monitoring but does not ensure risk management practices are integrated into all business processes.
Minimizing Inherent Risk: This is an outcome of effective risk management rather than a method to ensure its effectiveness.
Best Practices:
Training and Awareness: Provide ongoing training to employees to embed risk management practices in their roles.
Policy and Procedures: Develop and enforce policies and procedures that integrate risk management into all business activities.
Leadership Support: Ensure strong support from leadership to promote and sustain a risk-aware culture.
After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to
recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.
inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.
The most appropriate action for the risk manager to take after undertaking a risk assessment of a production system is to inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them, as the process owner has the authority and responsibility to manage the production system and its associated risks and controls, and to decide on the optimal risk response. Recommending a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system, informing the IT manager of the concerns and proposing measures to reduce them, and informing the development team of the concerns and together formulating risk reduction measures are not the most appropriate actions, as they may not involve the process owner, who is the key stakeholder and decision maker for the production system and its risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified
Estimate the residual risk.
Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).
Design control improvements.
Identify the risk owner.
•A risk owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to manage a specific risk1. The risk owner is accountable for the implementation and effectiveness of the risk response strategy and the risk treatment plan2.
•Identifying the risk owner is the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because the risk owner is the key stakeholder who will be involved in the subsequent steps of the risk management process, such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, risk treatment, and risk monitoring2.
•Identifying the risk owner also helps to clarify the roles and responsibilities of different parties involved in the risk management process, such as the risk manager, the risk analyst, the risk committee, and the risk auditor3. This can improve the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the risk management team and ensure that the risk is managed effectively and efficiently.
•Estimating the residual risk (option A) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because the residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk treatment plan has been implemented2. Therefore, estimating the residual risk requires prior steps such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, and risk treatment.
•Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) (option B) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because KRIs are metrics or data points that provide early warning signals or information about the level or trend of a risk4. Therefore, establishing KRIs requires prior steps such as risk identification, risk analysis, and risk evaluation.
•Designing control improvements (option C) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because control improvements are part of the risk treatment plan, which is the set of actions and resources needed to implement the chosen risk response strategy2. Therefore,designing control improvements requires prior steps such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, and risk response selection.
References =
•Risk Owner - Institute of Internal Auditors
•Risk Treatment Plan - ISACA
•Risk Management Roles and Responsibilities - 360factors
•Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture
Senior management has requested a risk practitioner's guidance on whether
a new technical control requested by a business unit is worth the investment.
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration before
providing input?
The cost of the control relative to the value of risk mitigation
The effectiveness of the control at reducing residual risk levels
The likelihood of a successful attack based on current risk
assessments
The availabilitv of budgeted funds for risk mitigationMitination
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?
Data duplication processes
Data archival processes
Data anonymization processes
Data protection processes
Data archival processes should be the primary focus of a risk practitioner when ensuring that organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations, because data archival processes ensure that records are stored securely, reliably, and accessibly for as long as they are needed. Data archival processes also help to manage the storage capacity, retention policies, and disposal procedures of records. Data duplication processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for backup and recovery purposes, not for long-term retention. Data anonymization processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for privacy and confidentiality purposes, not for legal compliance. Data protection processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for security and integrity purposes, not for retention requirements. References = Free ISACA CRISC Sample Questions and Study Guide
A large organization needs to report risk at all levels for a new centralized visualization project to reduce cost and improve performance. Which of the following would MOST effectively represent the overall risk of the project to senior management?
Aggregated key performance indicators (KPls)
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Centralized risk register
Risk heat map
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the overall risk of the project to senior management by showing the probability and impact of individual risks in a matrix format. A risk heat map can help to prioritize the risks, communicate the risk exposure, and monitor the risk response. A risk heat map can also show the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the organization, as well as the residual risk after the risk response. The other options are not the most effective ways to represent the overall risk of the project to senior management, although they may be useful or complementary to the risk heat map. Aggregated key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics that measure the performance of the project against the objectives, but they do not show the uncertainty or variability of the project outcomes. Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the level of risk or the effectiveness of the risk response, but they do not show the relationship between the probability and impact of the risks. A centralizedrisk register is a document that records the details of the individual risks, such as the description, category, cause, effect, probability, impact, response, and status, but it does not show the overall risk of the project in a visual or concise way. References = Managing overall project risk, Project Risk Management – Quick Reference Guide, 10 Common Project Risks (Plus the Steps To Solve Them), What Is Project Risk Management: Benefits, Challenges, Best Practices
An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?
The balanced scorecard
A cost-benefit analysis
The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning
A cost-benefit analysis is a tool that compares the costs and benefits of different alternatives, such as updating software or continuing to use end-of-life software. A cost-benefit analysis can provide the mosthelpful information to justify investing in updated software, as it can show the potential savings, benefits, and risks of each option, and help the decision-makers choose the best course of action. A cost-benefit analysis can also include qualitative factors, such as security, compliance, performance, and customer satisfaction, that may be affected by the software update. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 231. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 8. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 231. CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question231.
Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern associated with the
use of artificial intelligence (Al) systems?
Al systems need to be available continuously.
Al systems can be affected by bias.
Al systems are expensive to maintain.
Al systems can provide false positives.
A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization's cloud provider is assigned to the provider who should the risk scenario be reassigned to.
Senior management
Chief risk officer (CRO)
Vendor manager
Data owner
The risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization’s cloud provider should be reassigned to the data owner, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the data they own, and to manage the risk and controls related to the data. The risk scenario should not be assigned to the cloud provider, as they are an external party that may not have the same interest or accountability as the organization. Senior management, chief risk officer (CRO), and vendor manager are not the best choices, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to risk governance, strategy, or oversight, respectively, but they do not own the data. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?
Control owner
Risk owner
Internal auditor
Compliance manager
The internal auditor is the best suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness. The internal auditor is an independent and impartial function that evaluates the adequacy and effectiveness of the internal controls and reports on the findings and recommendations. The internal auditor can provide an unbiased and reliable assessment of the residual risk, which is the risk that remains after the controls are applied. The other options are not as objective as the internal auditor, as they may have vested interests orconflicts of interest in the control environment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action when an organization plans to adopt a cloud computing strategy?
Request a budget for implementation
Conduct a threat analysis.
Create a cloud computing policy.
Perform a controls assessment.
The first course of action for a risk practitioner when an organization plans to adopt a cloud computing strategy is to perform a controls assessment. This means evaluating the existing controls in the organization and the cloud service provider, and identifying the gaps and weaknesses that need to be addressed. A controls assessment can help to determine the level of risk exposure and the suitability of the cloud service model and provider for the organization’s needs and objectives. It can also help to establish the baseline for monitoring and reporting on the cloud service performance and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2.2, p. 242-243
The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:
Benchmark against peer organizations.
Identify appropriate controls within business processes.
Assess compliance with global standards.
Identify risk owners related to business processes.
A review of business processes is crucial for identifying risk owners, as risk ownership is tied to specific processes within the organization. Risk owners are accountable for managing and mitigating risks within their respective areas. This ensures that risks are effectively addressed where they arise and aligns mitigation efforts with business objectives. Properly identifying risk owners supports better governance, accountability, and alignment with the organization's risk management strategy.
A vulnerability assessment of a vendor-supplied solution has revealed that the software is susceptible to cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. Which of the following will BEST mitigate this issue?
Monitor the databases for abnormal activity
Approve exception to allow the software to continue operating
Require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities
Accept the risk and let the vendor run the software as is
Cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection are two common types of web application attacks that can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems. XSS allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users, while SQL injection allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a database server by manipulating the input parameters of a web application. Both attacks can result in data theft, unauthorized access, defacement, denial of service, and more.
To mitigate these attacks, the best option is to require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities by applying secure coding practices, such as input validation, output encoding, parameterized queries, and HTML sanitization. These techniques can prevent or limit the impact of XSS and SQL injection by ensuring that user input is not interpreted as code or commands by the web browser or the database server. The software vendor should also provide regular updates and patches to fix any known or newly discovered vulnerabilities.
The other options are not effective or acceptable ways to mitigate these attacks. Monitoring the databases for abnormal activity can help detect and respond to SQL injection attacks, but it does not prevent them from happening or address the root cause of the vulnerability. Approving an exception to allow the software to continue operating can expose the organization to unnecessary risks and liabilities, as well as violate compliance requirements and standards. Accepting the risk and letting the vendor run the software as is can also have serious consequences for the organization, as it implies that the potential impact and likelihood of the attacks are low or acceptable, which may not be the case. References =
IT Risk Resources | ISACA
CRISC Certification | Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control | ISACA
Cross Site Scripting Prevention Cheat Sheet - OWASP
A novel technique to prevent SQL injection and cross-site scripting attacks using Knuth-Morris-Pratt string match algorithm | EURASIP Journal on Information Security | Full Text
Difference Between XSS and SQL Injection - GeeksforGeeks
The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:
risk assessment methodology.
risk appetite.
capabilities
asset value.
An organization’s policies are the set of rules and guidelines that define the organization’s objectives, expectations, and responsibilities for its activities and operations. They provide the direction and framework for the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions.
The most important characteristic of an organization’s policies is to reflect the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals. The risk appetite is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the organization’s strategy and culture.
Reflecting the organization’s risk appetite in its policies ensures that the policies are consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces, and that they support the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the most important characteristic of an organization’s policies, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the policies are suitable and acceptable for the organization.
The risk assessment methodology is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. It involves determining the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency. The risk assessment methodology is important to inform and support the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because it does not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The capabilities are the resources and abilities that the organization has or can acquire to achieve its objectives and manage its risks. They include the people, processes, technologies, and assets that the organization uses or relies on. The capabilities are important to enable and implement theorganization’s policies, but they are not the most important characteristic of the policies, because they do not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The asset value is the worth or importance of the assets that the organization owns or controls, and that may be affected by the risks that the organization faces. The assets include the tangible and intangible resources that the organization uses or relies on, such as data, information, systems, infrastructure, reputation, etc. The asset value is important to measure and monitor the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because itdoes not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45, 50-51, 54-55
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 148
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?
Implement user access controls
Perform regular internal audits
Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies
Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.
Developing and communicating fraud prevention policies is the most effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud because it creates a culture of integrity and accountability, sets clear expectations and consequences for employees, and deters fraudulent behavior. Implementing user access controls, performing regular internal audits, and conducting fraud prevention awareness training are also important controls, but they are more reactive and detective than preventive. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 4-26.
In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?
Implementation
Development
Design
Feasibility
Controls should be incorporated into system specifications in the design phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC), because this is the phase where the system requirements are translated into detailed specifications and architectures that define how the system will be built and operated. Incorporating controls in the design phase ensures that the system is secure, reliable, and compliant from the start, and reduces the cost and complexity of implementing controls later in the SDLC. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not the phases where controls are incorporated into system specifications. The implementation phase is the phase where the system is installed, configured, and tested. The development phase is the phase where the system is coded, integrated, and tested. The feasibility phase is the phase where the system concept and scope are defined and evaluated. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following will MOST improve stakeholders' understanding of the effect of a potential threat?
Establishing a risk management committee
Updating the organization's risk register to reflect the new threat
Communicating the results of the threat impact analysis
Establishing metrics to assess the effectiveness of the responses
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, threat impact analysis is the process of estimating and evaluating the potential effects of a threat event on the organization’s objectives, processes, resources, and risks. Threat impact analysis helps to quantify and qualify the severity and likelihood of the threat, and to identify the possible consequences and implications for the organization. Communicating the results of the threat impact analysis is the most effective way to improve stakeholders’ understanding of the effect of a potential threat, as it helps to inform and educate the stakeholders about the nature and magnitude of the threat, and to solicit their feedback and input for the risk response. Communicating the results of the threatimpact analysis also helps to align the stakeholder expectations and preferences, and to facilitate risk-based decision making and action planning. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 208.
If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?
Confidentiality
Accountability
Availability
Integrity
Integrity is the property of data that ensures its accuracy, completeness, and consistency2. If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, the integrity of the data may be compromised, as it may lead to concurrency problems such as lost update, unrepeatable read, or phantom read3. These problems can cause the data to be incorrect, incomplete, or inconsistent, which may affect the reliability and validity of the data. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it reflects the impact of improper concurrent update transactions on the data integrity. The other options are not correct, as they do not directly relate to the effect of concurrent update transactions on the data. Option A, confidentiality, is the property of data that ensures its protection from unauthorized access or disclosure2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the confidentiality of the data, as they do not involve exposing the data to unauthorized parties. Option B, accountability, is the property of data that ensures its traceability and auditability2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the accountability of the data, as they do not involve losing the records or logs of the data transactions. Option C, availability, is the property of data that ensures its accessibility and usability2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the availability of the data, as they do not involve preventing the access or use of the data.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing key control indicators (KCIs)?
Confirming the adequacy of recovery plans.
Improving compliance with control standards.
Providing early detection of control degradation.
Reducing the number of incidents.
Key Control Indicators (KCIs) are metrics used to monitor the performance of controls. Their primary benefit is the early detection of control degradation, allowing organizations to take corrective actions before issues escalate into significant problems.
Management has required information security awareness training to reduce the risk associated with credential compromise. What is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of the training?
Conduct social engineering testing.
Audit security awareness training materials.
Administer an end-of-training quiz.
Perform a vulnerability assessment.
Conducting social engineering testing is the best way to assess the effectiveness of the security awareness training, as it helps to measure and evaluate the actual behavior and response of the employees to simulated real-world attacks that exploit human vulnerabilities. Social engineering testing is a type of security testing that involves performing authorized and ethical hacking activities on the employees to manipulate them into revealing sensitive information, such as credentials, or performing malicious actions, suchas clicking on a phishing link or opening a malicious attachment. Social engineering testing can help to assess the effectiveness of the security awareness training by providing the following benefits:
It tests the employees’ knowledge and skills in recognizing and resisting social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, or impersonation.
It identifies and measures the strengths and weaknesses of the employees’ security awareness and behavior, and the impact and severity of their actions on the security posture and risk exposure of the organization.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the employees to improve their security awareness and behavior, and to reinforce the key concepts and practices taught in the training.
It communicates and reports the results and findings of the testing to the management and the stakeholders, and supports the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
The other options are not the best ways to assess the effectiveness of the security awareness training. Auditing security awareness training materials is a good practice to ensure that the training content is accurate, relevant, and up-to-date, but it does not measure or evaluate the employees’ security awareness and behavior. Administering an end-of-training quiz is a useful method to test the employees’ comprehension and retention of the training content, but it does not reflect or simulate the employees’ security awareness and behavior in real-world situations. Performing a vulnerability assessment is an important step to identify and analyze the potential vulnerabilities in the systems and software, but it does not assess or address the human vulnerabilities or the employees’ security awareness and behavior. References = 3 ways to assess the effectiveness of security awareness training …, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Measuring the Effectiveness of Security Awareness Training - Hut Six
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address new risk associated with an Internet of Things (IoT) solution?
Transferring the risk
Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle
Updating the risk tolerance to include the new risk
Implementing IoT device monitoring software
Introducing control procedures early in the IoT solution life cycle ensures proactive identification and mitigation of risks. This approach aligns withSecure System Development PracticesandRisk Mitigation Strategies, reducing exposure as the solution evolves.
Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data when disposing of storage media?
Physical destruction
Degaussing
Data anonymization
Data deletion
When disposing of storage media, the best way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data is physical destruction. Here’s why:
Physical Destruction:
Physical destruction involves destroying the storage media so that the data it contains cannot be recovered or reconstructed.
Methods include shredding, crushing, incinerating, or using industrial-grade degaussers that destroy the magnetic fields on the media.
Comparison with Other Methods:
Degaussing:This method erases data by disrupting the magnetic fields of the storage media. While effective for some types of media, it may not work on all (e.g., solid-state drives) and does not provide a visual confirmation that the data is irrecoverable.
Data Anonymization:This process involves altering data to prevent identification of individuals, but it does not destroy the data itself and is not applicable for disposing of storage media.
Data Deletion:Simply deleting data does not remove it permanently. Deleted data can often be recovered using specialized software unless it is overwritten multiple times, which is still less reliable than physical destruction.
Security Best Practices:
Physical destruction is considered the most secure method because it ensures that the media is rendered completely unusable and the data cannot be retrieved by any means.
This method is recommended by various standards and frameworks, including NIST Special Publication 800-88 Guidelines for Media Sanitization.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?
The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions
The number of servers with local credentials to install patches
The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements
The number of servers running the software patching service
This KPI measures how well the server patch management process meets the agreed-upon standards and expectations for timeliness, quality, and security. It reflects the efficiency and effectiveness of the patch deployment and the compliance with the patch policy. It also helps to identify and address any issues or delays that may affect the patching performance.
References
•Patch Management KPI Metrics - Motadata
•KPI Examples for Patch and Vulnerability Management - Heimdal Security
•Measuring the Effectiveness of Your Patch Management Strategy - Automox
When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk 'register?
Leveraging business risk professionals
Relying on generic IT risk scenarios
Describing IT risk in business terms
Using a common risk taxonomy
Using a common risk taxonomy is the most important factor to consider when creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization with regard to the existing corporate risk register, as it ensures consistency, clarity, and alignment of the IT risk identification, classification, and reporting with the corporate risk management framework and strategy. Leveraging business risk professionals, relying on generic IT risk scenarios, and describing IT risk in business terms are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the resources, inputs, or outputs of the IT risk register, respectively, rather than the structure or format of the IT risk register. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Which of the following controls will BEST detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator?
Reviewing database access rights
Reviewing database activity logs
Comparing data to input records
Reviewing changes to edit checks
Unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator is a security risk that involves altering, deleting, or inserting data on a database without proper authorization or approval, by a person who has privileged access to the database, such as a database administrator12.
The best control to detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator is to review database activity logs, which are records that capture and store the details and history ofthe transactions or activities that are performed on the database, such as who, what, when, where, and how34.
Reviewing database activity logs is the best control because it provides evidence and visibility of the database operations, and enables the detection and reporting of any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator34.
Reviewing database activity logs is also the best control because it supports the accountability and auditability of the database operations, and facilitates the investigation and resolution of any unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator34.
The other options are not the best controls, but rather possible measures or techniques that may supplement or enhance the review of database activity logs. For example:
Reviewing database access rights is a measure that involves verifying and validating the permissions and privileges that are granted or revoked to the users or roles who can access or modify the data on the database56. However, this measure is not the best control because it does not directly detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator, especially if the database administrator has legitimate access rights to the data56.
Comparing data to input records is a technique that involves matching and reconciling the data on the database with the original or source data that are entered or imported into the database, and identifying and correcting any discrepancies or errors78. However, this technique is not the best control because it does not directly detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator, especially if the input records are also modified or compromised78.
Reviewing changes to edit checks is a technique that involves examining and evaluating the modifications or updates to the edit checks, which are rules or validations that are applied to the data on the database to ensure their accuracy, completeness, andconsistency9 . However, this technique is not the best control because it does not directly detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator, especially if the edit checks are bypassed or disabled9 . References =
1: Database Security: Attacks and Solutions | SpringerLink2
2: Unauthorised Modification of Data With Intent to Cause Impairment3
3: Database Activity Monitoring - Wikipedia4
4: Database Activity Monitoring (DAM) | Imperva5
5: Database Access Control - Wikipedia6
6: Database Access Control: Best Practices for Database Security7
7: Data Reconciliation - Wikipedia8
8: Data Reconciliation and Gross Error Detection9
9: Edit Check - Wikipedia
Edit Checks: A Data Quality Tool
Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?
Perform an m-depth code review with an expert
Validate functionality by running in a test environment
Implement a service level agreement.
Utilize the change management process.
The risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development is that the vendor may introduce unauthorized or harmful code into the enterprise’s system, which could compromise its security, integrity, or performance.
To mitigate this risk, the enterprise should perform an in-depth code review with an expert who can verify that the code meets the specifications, standards, and quality requirements, and that it does not contain any malicious or unwanted functionality.
A code review is a systematic examination of the source code of a software program, which can identify errors, vulnerabilities, inefficiencies, or deviations from best practices. A code review can also ensure that the code is consistent, readable, maintainable, and well-documented.
An expert is someone who has the knowledge, skills, and experience to perform the code review effectively and efficiently. An expert may be an internal or external resource, depending on the availability, cost, and independence of the reviewer.
A code review should be performed before the code is deployed to the production environment, and preferably at multiple stages of the development life cycle, such as design, testing, and integration.
A code review can also be complemented by other techniques, such as automated code analysis, testing, and scanning tools, which can detect common or known issues in the code. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, p. 143
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 143
A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?
The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.
The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.
The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.
The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.
Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?
User authorization
User recertification
Change log review
Access log monitoring
User recertification is the most effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis, as it involves a periodic review and validation of user access rights and privileges by the appropriate authority. User recertification helps to identify and remove any unnecessary, excessive, or obsolete access rights and privileges that may pose a security risk or violate the principle of least privilege. User recertification also helps to ensure that user access rights and privileges are aligned with the current business needs, roles, and responsibilities of the users.
The other options are not the most effective controls to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis. User authorization is the process of granting or denying access rights and privileges to users based on their identity, role, and credentials, but it does not verify or update the existing access rights and privileges of the users. Change log review is the process of examining and analyzing the records of changes made to the system, configuration, or data, but it does not directly address the user access rights and privileges. Access log monitoring is the process of tracking and auditing the user activities and actions on the system or network, but it does not validate or modify the user access rights and privileges. References = What Is the Principle of Least Privilege and Why is it Important?, Principle of Least Privilege: Definition, Methods & Examples, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?
Management's expectations
Corporate risk profile
Recent security incidents
The current risk management capability
The most important information to be communicated during security awareness training is management’s expectations. This will help to establish the security culture and behavior of the enterprise, and to align the staff’s actions with the enterprise’s objectives, policies, and standards. Management’s expectations also provide the basis for measuring and evaluating the effectiveness of the security awareness program. Corporate risk profile, recent security incidents, and the current risk management capability are also important information to be communicated during security awareness training, but they are not as important as management’s expectations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.1.1.2, page 2291
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 642.
Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?
Risk mitigation budget
Business Impact analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Return on investment
A cost-benefit analysis is the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan. A risk treatment plan is a document that describes the actions or measures that are taken or planned to modifythe risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or accepting the risk1. Selecting an appropriate risk treatmentplan means choosing the most suitable and effective option foraddressing the risk, based on the organization’s objectives, strategies, and risk criteria2. A cost-benefit analysis is a method of comparing the benefits and costs of different alternatives or options, and selecting the one that maximizes the net benefit or value3. A cost-benefit analysis is the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, because it helps to:
Evaluate the feasibility, effectiveness, and efficiency of the risk treatment options, and compare them against the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance;
Balance the benefits and costs of the risk treatment options, and consider both the quantitative and qualitative aspects of the risk and the risk response;
Optimize the use of the organization’s resources and capabilities, and ensure that the risk treatment options are aligned and integrated with the organization’s goals and values;
Support the risk decision making and prioritization, and provide a rational and transparent basis for selecting the best risk treatment option. The other options are not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as they are either less comprehensive or less relevant than a cost-benefit analysis. A risk mitigation budget is a document that allocates the financial resources for implementing and maintaining the risk mitigation actions or measures4. A risk mitigation budget can help to ensure the availability and adequacy of the funds for the risk treatment options, as well as to monitor and control the risk treatment expenditures. However, a risk mitigation budget is not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as it does not address the benefits or value of the risk treatment options, or the suitability or effectiveness of the risk treatment options. A business impact analysis is a method of estimating the potential effects or consequences of a risk on the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance5. A business impact analysis can help to assess the severity and priority of the risk, as well as to identify the critical assets and resources that are involved or impacted by the risk. However, a business impact analysis is not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as it does not address the costs or feasibility of the risk treatment options, or the alternatives or options for the risk treatment. A return on investment is a metric that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment, project, or activity, by comparing the benefits and costs of the investment, project, or activity6. A return on investment can help to evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk treatment options, as well as to compare the risk treatment options with other investments, projects, or activities. However, a return on investmentis not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as it does not address the qualitative or intangible aspects of the risk and the risk response, or the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.8, Page 61.
When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization's risk appetite is through the use of a:
risk map
cause-and-effect diagram
maturity model
technology strategy plan.
A risk map is the best method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization’s risk appetite, as it is a graphical tool that displays the level and priority of risks based on their likelihood and impact, as well as other factors such as velocity, persistence, and urgency. A risk map can help to compare and communicate the risk levels across different business units, processes, and projects, and to align them with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. A risk map can also help to identify the gaps and overlaps in risk management, and to support the decision making and resource allocation for risk response. A cause-and-effect diagram is a tool that helps to identify and analyze the root causes and consequences of a risk or a problem, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. A maturity model is a tool that helps to assess and improve the capability and performance of a process or a function, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. A technology strategy plan is a document that outlines the vision, goals, and objectives of the organization’s use of information and technology, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 97.
A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?
Risk impact
Risk trend
Risk appetite
Risk likelihood
Risk impact is the potential loss or damage that a risk event can cause to an organization. Risk impact can be expressed in qualitative or quantitative terms, such as financial, reputational, operational, or legal. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the key information about the identified risks, such as their description, likelihood, impact, response, and status. A risk register helps an organization to monitor and manage its risks effectively and efficiently. When there is a change in the external or internal environment that affects the organization’s risks, such as new regulations, the risk register should be updated to reflect this change. The most important element of the risk register to update in this case is the risk impact, because the new regulations have significantly increased the penalties for data breaches, which means that the potential loss or damage that a data breach can cause to the organization has also increased. By updating the risk impact, the organization can reassess the severity and priority of the data breach risk, and adjust its risk response accordingly. The other elements of the risk register are less important toupdate in this case. The risk trend shows the direction and rate of change of the risk over time, which may or may not be affected by the new regulations. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, which is unlikely to change due to the new regulations. The risk likelihood is the probability of a risk event occurring, which is also independent of the new regulations. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
A user has contacted the risk practitioner regarding malware spreading laterally across the organization's corporate network. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?
Review all log files generated during the period of malicious activity.
Perform a root cause analysis.
Notify the cybersecurity incident response team.
Update the risk register.
Notifying the incident response team ensures immediate action to contain and remediate the malware spread, limiting further impact. This aligns withIncident Response and Containmentprotocols under risk management.
Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....
The organization's structure has not been updated
Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.
Company equipment has not been retained by IT
Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department
The greatest concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employee transfers to another department is that unnecessary access permissions have not been removed. Unnecessary access permissions are the access rights or privileges that are no longer needed, relevant, or appropriate for the employee’s new role or responsibility. If these access permissions are not removed, they may pose a significant security risk, as the employee may be able to access, modify, or delete sensitive or critical data and systems that are not related to their current function. This may result in data leakage, fraud, sabotage, or compliance violations. The other options are not as concerning as unnecessary access permissions, as they are related to the organizational, operational, or knowledge aspects of the employee transfer, not the security or risk aspects of the employee transfer. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?
Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions
Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options
Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options
Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.
The greatest benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners is that accountability is established for risk treatment decisions. Risk owners are the individuals or groups who are responsible and accountable formanaging a specific risk and its associated actions and outcomes. By identifying appropriate risk owners, the organization can ensure that the risk treatment decisions are made by the people who have the authority, knowledge, and interest in the risk. Stakeholders beingconsulted, risk owners being informed, and responsibility being established are other possible benefits, but they are not as great as accountability being established. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?
Risk management framework
Risk register
Global security standards
Recent security incidents reported by competitors
The most relevant source to reference when updating security awareness training materials is the recent security incidents reported by competitors. This can help to illustrate the real-world threats and consequences of poor security practices, and to motivate the employees to follow the security policies and procedures. Risk management framework, risk register, and global security standards are other sources that may be useful, but they are not as relevant as the recent security incidents. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 9; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 214.
Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?
Securing the network from attacks
Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender
Digitally signing individual messages
Encrypting data-in-transit
Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender is a control that helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination, as it confirms the successful delivery of the data and allows the sender to resend the data in case of failure. Securing the network from attacks, digitally signing individual messages, and encrypting data-in-transit are controls that help toensure the integrity and confidentiality of the data, but not the availability or delivery of the data. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 199.
The MOST important reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) is to help management:
identity early risk transfer strategies.
lessen the impact of realized risk.
analyze the chain of risk events.
identify the root cause of risk events.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics used by organizations to monitor and assess potential risks that may impact their objectives and performance. KRIs also provide early warning signals that help organizations identify, analyze, and address risks before they escalate into significant issues1. The most importantreason to monitor KRIs is to help management lessen the impact of realized risk, which is the actual or expected negative consequence of a risk event2. By monitoring KRIs, management can gain insight into the current and emerging risk exposures and trends, and evaluate their alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance3. This enables management to make informed and timely decisions and actions to mitigate or eliminate the risks, and to allocate resources and prioritize efforts where they are most needed. By lessening the impact of realized risk, management can also protect and enhance the organization’s reputation, performance, and value. Identifying early risk transfer strategies, analyzing the chain of risk events, and identifying the root cause of risk events are not the most important reasons to monitor KRIs, as they do not provide the same level of benefit and value as lessening the impact of realized risk. Identifying early risk transfer strategies is a process that involves finding and implementing ways to shift or share the risk or its impact to another party, such as through insurance, outsourcing, or hedging4. Identifying early risk transfer strategies can help to reduce the organization’s risk exposure and liability, but it does not necessarily lessen the impact of realized risk, as the risk or its impact may still occur or affect the organization indirectly. Analyzing the chain of risk events is a process that involves tracing and understanding the sequence and interconnection of the risk events that lead to a specific outcome or consequence5. Analyzing the chain of risk events can help to identify and address the root causes and contributing factors of the risk events, but it does not necessarily lessen the impact of realized risk, as the outcome or consequence may have already occurred or be unavoidable. Identifying the root cause of risk events is a process that involves finding and determining the underlying or fundamental source or reason of the risk events. Identifying the root cause of risk events can help to prevent or correct the recurrence or escalation of the risk events, but it does not necessarily lessen the impact of realized risk, as the impact may have already happened or be irreversible. References = 1: Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture2: Risk Impact - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3: KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva4: Risk Transfer - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics5: EventChainMethodology - Wikipedia : [Root Cause Analysis - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Key Risk Indicators, pp. 181-185.]
Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?
Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results
Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments
A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed
The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the level of risk for each risk area based on the impact and likelihood of occurrence. It also provides a summary of the risk assessment results, such as the number and severity of risks, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the risk response strategies. A risk heat map can help senior management to understand the risk profile of the organization, prioritize the risks that need attention, and allocate resources accordingly. A risk heat map is more effective than the other options because it can communicate complex information in a simple and visual way, and it can highlight the key risk areas and trends. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 97.
Who is PRIMARILY accountable for risk treatment decisions?
Risk owner
Business manager
Data owner
Risk manager
The risk owner is primarily accountable for risk treatment decisions, as they are the person or entity with the authority and responsibility to manage a particular risk. The risk owner shouldevaluate the available risk response options, select the most appropriate one, implement the chosen response, and monitor its effectiveness. The risk owner should also communicate and report on the risk status and any issues or changes. The business manager, data owner, and risk manager are not primarily accountable for risk treatment decisions, although they may be involved in the risk management process. The business manager is responsible for the overall performance and objectives of a business unit or function. The data owner is responsible for the security and quality of a specific data asset. The risk manager is responsible for facilitating and coordinating the risk management activities across the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 47.
An IT department has provided a shared drive for personnel to store information to which all employees have access. Which of the following parties is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information?
Risk manager
Data owner
End user
IT department
The data owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility to classify, label, and protect the information assets of the organization. The data owner is accountable for the risk ofpotential loss of confidential information, as they are the ones who determine the level of protection and access required for the data. The risk manager is responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks that may affect the organization, but they are not accountable for the data itself. The end user is the person who uses the information assets for their operational tasks, but they are not accountable for the data protection or classification. The IT department is responsible for providing the technical support and infrastructure for the information assets, but they are not accountable for the data ownership or risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Data Classification, p. 69-70.
Avoiding a business activity removes the need to determine:
systemic risk
residual risk
inherent risk
control risk
Avoidancemeans the risk is no longer relevant because the activity is not pursued. As a result, there isno residual riskto manage or control. ISACA’s risk response options include avoidance, which eliminates the need for further risk treatment.
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Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?
Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.
Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.
Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.
Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.
The most concerning issue for a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register is that several risk action plans have missed target completion dates. This indicates that the risk responses are not being implemented effectively or timely, and that the risk exposure may not be reduced as expected. Senior management accepting more risk than usual, risk associated with many assets being expressed in qualitative terms, and many risk scenarios being owned by the same senior manager are not as concerning as the missed deadlines, as they may reflect the risk appetite, tolerance, and culture of the organization. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?
Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution
Assigning a data owner
Scheduling periodic audits
Implementing technical controls over the assets
The best way to facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements is to assign a data owner. A data owner is a person who has the authority and responsibility for defining, classifying, and protecting the data. A data owner can help to facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements by providing the criteria, categories, roles, and procedures for classifying the data according to its sensitivity, value, and criticality. A data owner can also ensure that the data is handled and stored appropriately, and that the data classification policy is enforced and monitored. The other options are not as effective as assigning a data owner, as they are related to the prevention, audit, or control of the data, not the classification or protection of the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:
immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops
centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled
report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.
procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.
An IT license audit is a process that verifies the compliance of the IT software and hardware assets with the licensing agreements and regulations. An IT license audit can reveal the existence of unlicensed copies of software, which can expose the enterprise to legal, financial, and reputational risks. The best course of action in such a situation is to report the issue to management so that appropriate action can be taken. Management can then decide on the most suitable risk response strategy, such as procuring the necessary licenses, uninstalling the unlicensed software, or negotiating with the software vendor. Reporting the issue to managementcan also help to prevent further violations, identify the root causes, and implement corrective and preventive measures. The other options are not the best course of action, as they may not address the issue effectively, efficiently, or ethically. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, pp. 156-157.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system?
Complete an offsite business continuity exercise.
Conduct a compliance check against standards.
Perform a vulnerability assessment.
Measure the change in inherent risk.
A business system is a set of interconnected processes, functions, or activities that support the operations and objectives of a business1. A security gap is a weakness or flaw in a business system that can be exploited by a threat to cause harm or gain unauthorized access2. A control is a measure or mechanism that reduces the likelihood or impact of a security gap or threat3.
The best way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system is to perform a vulnerability assessment. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the security gaps and threats in a business system, and testing the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls that are implemented to address them. A vulnerability assessment can help to:
Measure and compare the current and desired state of the security posture and performance of the business system
Detect and prioritize the most critical and urgent security gaps and threats that may compromise the business system or its objectives
Validate and validate the adequacy and reliability of the new controls and their ability to prevent, detect, or respond to security incidents or breaches
Provide feedback and recommendations for improving the security of the business system and enhancing the security awareness and culture of the organization
References = What is a Business System?, What is a Security Gap?, What is a Control?, [What is a Vulnerability Assessment?], [Vulnerability Assessment: A Guide for Business Leaders]
A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:
mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.
this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.
the current level of risk is within tolerance.
an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.
The risk practitioner should explain to senior management that mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period, as this would demonstrate a proactive and responsible approach to risk management. Mitigation plans are documents that outline the actions and resources needed to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of a specific risk scenario. Mitigation plans should include the following elements:
Risk scenario description and risk ID
Risk owner and other stakeholders
Risk response strategy and objectives
Risk response actions and tasks
Resources, costs, and benefits
Roles and responsibilities
Timeline and milestones
Performance indicators and monitoring mechanisms
Contingency plans and triggers
Mitigation plans help to address the gap between the current and desired risk levels and align the risk response with the organizational risk appetite and objectives. Mitigation plans also facilitate the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the risk owners and other stakeholders involved in the risk response process. Mitigation plans should be prepared in the current planning period, as this would allow the organization to act timely and effectively in the event of a low frequency threat event. Preparing mitigation plans in advance would also help to avoid or minimize the potential harm to the organization and its reputation.
The other options are not the best ways to communicate the associated risk to senior management. Explaining that this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios may not accurately reflect the true nature and severity of the risk. Explaining that the current level of risk is within tolerance may not convey the urgency and importance of addressing the risk. Explaining that an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated may not provide a clear and actionable solution for the risk. References = Four steps for managing risk at the CEO level, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, How to Communicate Risk to Stakeholders | Anitian
Which of the following criteria for assigning owners to IT risk scenarios provides the GREATEST benefit to an organization?
The risk owner understands the effect of loss events on business operations.
The risk owner is a member of senior leadership in the IT organization.
The risk owner has strong technical aptitude across multiple business systems.
The risk owner has extensive risk management experience.
The risk owner should be someone who has the authority, responsibility, and knowledge to manage the risk effectively and align it with the organizational strategy and objectives. The risk owner should also be able to communicate the impact of the risk on the business operations and the value proposition of the risk response. Understanding the effect of loss events on business operations is a key criterion for assigning risk owners, as it helps to prioritize and mitigate the risks that matter most to the organization.
References
•Why Assigning a Risk Owner is Important and How to Do It Right
•How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA
•What Everybody Ought To Know About Project Risk Owners
The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:
highlight trends of developing risk.
ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.
take appropriate actions in a timely manner.
set different triggers for each stakeholder.
The primary reason for establishing various threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to take appropriate actions in a timely manner. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk or the effectiveness of the controls in place. Threshold levels are predefined values that indicate when the risk level is acceptable, tolerable, or unacceptable. By establishing various threshold levels for a set of KRIs, the enterprise can monitor the risk situation and trigger the necessary responses before the risk becomes too severe or costly to mitigate. The other options are not the primary reasons for establishing various threshold levels, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 189.
Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?
Preventive
Deterrent
Compensating
Detective
Real-time monitoring is adetective control, as it is designed to identify and report suspicious or unauthorized activities as they occur. Detective controls provide feedback to mitigate ongoing risks and serve as an integral part of incident response plans.
In addition to the risk exposure, which of the following is MOST important for senior management to understand prior to approving the use of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions?
Potential benefits from use of Al solutions
Monitoring techniques required for AI solutions
Changes to existing infrastructure to support Al solutions
Skills required to support Al solutions
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?
To support decision-making for risk response
To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans
To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts
To enable senior management to compile a risk profile
The primary reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders is to support decision-making for risk response. Risk assessment reports are documents that summarize the results of the risk assessment process, such as the risk sources, causes, impacts, likelihood, and levels. Risk assessment reports also provide recommendations for risk response options, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risk. Sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders helps to inform them of the current risk situation, and to solicit their input, feedback, or approval for the risk response actions. The other options are not the primary reason for sharing risk assessment reports, although they may be secondary reasons or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?
Technology subject matter experts
Business process owners
Business users of IT systems
Risk management consultants
Business process owners are the most important to include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios, as they have the authority and responsibility to manage the business processes and their associated risks and controls, and to provide the business perspective and requirements for the IT risk scenarios. Technology subject matter experts, business users of IT systems, and risk management consultants are not the most important to include, as they may have different roles and responsibilities related to the technical, operational, or advisory aspects of IT risk scenarios, respectively, but they do not own the business processes or the IT risk scenarios. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of The following should be of GREATEST concern for an organization considering the adoption of a bring your own device (BYOD) initiative?
Device corruption
Data loss
Malicious users
User support
A bring your own device (BYOD) initiative allows employees to use their personal devices, such as smartphones, tablets, or laptops, for work purposes. This can provide benefits such as increased productivity, flexibility, and employee satisfaction. However, it also introducessignificant risks, such as data loss, data leakage, malware infection, unauthorized access, and compliance violations. Among these risks, data loss is of greatest concern for an organization, as it can have severe consequences, such as reputational damage, legal liability, financial loss, and competitive disadvantage. Data loss can occur due to various reasons, such as device theft, loss, damage, or disposal, accidental deletion, unauthorized transfer, or malicious attack. Therefore, an organization considering the adoption of a BYOD initiative should implement appropriate controls, such as encryption, authentication, remote wipe, backup, and data classification, to protect the data stored or accessed on the personal devices. References = Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) Policy: What You Need to Know, BYOD Risks: What You Need to Know, BYOD Security: 8 Risks and How to Mitigate Them
An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:
avoided.
accepted.
mitigated.
transferred.
Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the existence and potential impact of a risk, but deciding not to take any action to reduce or eliminate it. Risk acceptance can be appropriate when the cost or effort of implementing a risk response outweighs the benefit, or when there are no feasible or effective risk responses available. An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy, which poses a security risk to the organization. The organization is unsure of the reason for this issue, and has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information, rather than taking any immediate action to resolve the issue. As a result of this decision, the risk has been accepted, as the organization has chosen to tolerate the risk exposure for a certain period of time, and has not implemented any controls or measures to prevent or reduce the risk occurrence or impact. References = Risk Response Strategies: Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept, Risk Response Strategies: What They Are and How to Use Them, Risk Response Strategy: Definition, Types, and Examples.
An organization is subject to a new regulation that requires nearly real-time recovery of its services following a disruption. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk in this situation?
Move redundant IT infrastructure to a closer location.
Obtain insurance and ensure sufficient funds are available for disaster recovery.
Review the business continuity plan (BCP) and align it with the new business needs.
Outsource disaster recovery services to a third-party IT service provider.
Updating the BCP to align with real-time recovery requirements ensures the organization’s resilience to disruptions while meeting regulatory standards. This action reflectsBusiness Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planningbest practices.
Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?
Determining which departments contribute most to risk
Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners
Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes
Determining resource dependency of assets
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. The owner for each risk scenario is the person or group whohas the authority and accountability to manage the risk and its response. The best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register is to map the identified risk factors tospecific business processes. Risk factors are the internal and external variables that influence the occurrence and impact of risks. Business processes are the activities that produce value for the enterprise, such as sales, marketing, production, or delivery. By mapping the risk factors to the business processes, the risk practitioner can determine which business process is affected by or contributes to the risk, and who is responsible for the business process. The owner for each risk scenario should be the person or group who is responsible for the business process that is associated with the risk. The other options are not the best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as they involve different criteria or methods:
Determining which departments contribute most to risk means that the risk practitioner evaluates the degree of involvement or exposure of each department to the risk. This may not be a reliable or consistent way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the risk may span across multiple departments, or the department may not have the authority or accountability to manage the risk.
Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners means that the risk practitioner assigns the same level of responsibility to each person or group who owns an asset that is affected by or contributes to the risk. An asset is a resource that has value for the enterprise, such as hardware, software, data, or people. This may not be a fair or effective way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the asset owners may have different levels of involvement or exposure to the risk, or may not have the authority or accountability to manage the risk.
Determining resource dependency of assets means that the risk practitioner analyzes the relationship and interdependence of the assets that are affected by or contribute to the risk. This may help to identify the potential impact or likelihood of the risk, but it does not directly help to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the resource dependency may not reflect the authority or accountability to manage the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy?
Evaluating gaps in the on-premise and cloud security profiles
Establishing minimum cloud security requirements
Enforcing compliance with cloud security parameters
Educating IT staff on variances between on premise and cloud security
The primary driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy is to establish minimum cloud security requirements, as they specify the standards and expectations for the protection of the data and systems in the cloud environment, and ensure the alignment and compliance of the cloud security strategy with the organizational objectives and regulations. The other options are not the primary drivers, as they are more related to the evaluation, enforcement, or education of the cloud securitypolicy, respectively, rather than the establishment of the cloud security policy. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
An organization has updated its acceptable use policy to mitigate the risk of employees disclosing confidential information. Which of the following is the BEST way to reinforce the effectiveness of this policy?
Communicate sanctions for policy violations to all staff.
Obtain signed acceptance of the new policy from employees.
Train all staff on relevant information security best practices.
Implement data loss prevention (DLP) within the corporate network.
Train all staff on relevant information security best practices, because it helps to increase the awareness and understanding of the employees regarding the acceptable use policy and its purpose, and to improve their skills and knowledge on how to protect and handle confidential information. An acceptable use policy is a document that outlines the standards and expectations for the proper usage of the organization’s IT resources, such as systems, applications, networks, or devices, and the consequences of non-compliance. Confidential information is information that is sensitive or proprietary, and may cause harm or damage to the organizationor its stakeholders if disclosed or compromised, such as trade secrets, customer data, or financial records. Training all staff on relevant information security best practices is the best way to reinforce the effectiveness of the policy, as it helps to ensure that the employees are aware of and comply with the policy, and that they adopt the appropriate behaviors and techniques to prevent or mitigate the risk of disclosing confidential information.
Communicating sanctions for policy violations to all staff, obtaining signed acceptance of the new policy from employees, and implementing data loss prevention (DLP) within the corporate network are all possible ways to reinforce the effectiveness of the policy, but they are not the best way, as they do not directly address the awareness and understanding of the employees regarding the policy and its purpose, and they may not be sufficient or effective to prevent or mitigate the risk of disclosing confidential information.
During the initial risk identification process for a business application, it is MOST important to include which of the following stakeholders?
Business process owners
Business process consumers
Application architecture team
Internal audit
The MOST important stakeholders to include during the initial risk identification process for a business application are the business process owners, because they are the ones who have the authority and responsibility for the business processes that are supported or enabled by the business application. The business process owners can provide valuable input and feedback on the business objectives, requirements, and expectations of the business application, as well as thepotential risks, impacts, and opportunities that may affect the business processes and outcomes. The other options are not as important as the business process owners, because:
Option B: Business process consumers are the ones who use or benefit from the business processes that are supported or enabled by the business application, such as customers, employees, or partners. They can provide useful information and perspectives on the user needs, preferences, and satisfaction of the business application, but they are not as important as the business process owners, who have the ultimate accountability and authority for the business processes and outcomes.
Option C: Application architecture team is the one who designs and develops the technical architecture and components of the business application, such as the hardware, software, network, and data. They can provide technical expertise and guidance on the feasibility, functionality, and security of the business application, but they are not as important as the business process owners, who have the primary stake and interest in the business application and its alignment with the business processes and objectives.
Option D: Internal audit is the one who provides independent assurance and consulting services on the governance, risk management, and control processes of the organization, including the business application. They can provide objective and impartial evaluation and recommendation on the effectiveness and efficiency of the business application and its compliance with the internal and external standards and regulations, but they are not as important as the businessprocess owners, who have the direct involvement and influence on the business application and its performance and value. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 103.
Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?
Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.
The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.
The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.
Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.
Greatest Privacy Risk:
Jurisdictional Challenges: Processing personal data in an offshore location often involves dealing with different legal and regulatory requirements, which can complicate compliance with data privacy laws such as GDPR or CPRA.
Data Transfer Risks: Even with a data sharing agreement, the protection and enforcement of privacy rights can be less stringent in the offshore location compared to the home jurisdiction. This can lead to increased risks of data breaches and misuse.
Enforcement Difficulties: If privacy violations occur, enforcing legal actions across borders can be challenging, potentially leading to inadequate redress for affected individuals.
Comparison with Other Options:
Privacy Risk Awareness Training Not Conducted: This is a significant risk but can be mitigated relatively quickly with proper training programs.
Privacy Not Incorporated into Risk Management Framework: While critical, the risk can be managed by integrating privacy into the framework without immediate severe consequences.
Remote Work by Staff with Access to Personal Data: This introduces risks related to secure access and data protection but can be managed with proper security controls.
Best Practices:
Data Sovereignty Considerations: Ensure data is processed in jurisdictions with strong privacy laws that align with the organization's regulatory requirements.
Regular Audits and Assessments: Conduct regular audits of data processing practices in offshore locations to ensure compliance with data privacy agreements.
Legal Safeguards: Establish robust legal safeguards and contracts to enforce data protection standards across jurisdictions.
In an organization dependent on data analytics to drive decision-making, which of the following would BEST help to minimize the risk associated with inaccurate data?
Establishing an intellectual property agreement
Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities
Periodically reviewing big data strategies
Benchmarking to industry best practice
Periodically reviewing big data strategies is the best option to minimize the risk of inaccurate data, because it allows the organization to assess the quality, validity, and reliability of the data sources and the analytics methods. It also enables the organization to identify and address any gaps, errors, or inconsistencies in the data and the results. By reviewing the big data strategies, the organization can ensure that the data analytics are aligned with the business objectives and the risk appetite.
Establishing an intellectual property agreement is not relevant to the risk of inaccurate data, as it is a legal measure to protect the ownership and use of the data, not its quality or accuracy.
Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities is a good practice, but it is not sufficient to minimize the risk of inaccurate data, as it only focuses on the security aspect of the data, not the validity or reliability of the data itself.
Benchmarking to industry best practice is a useful way to compare the performance and results of the data analytics, but it does not directly address the risk of inaccurate data, as it assumes that the data and the methods are already valid and reliable. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, ISACA, 2019, page 62-63.
During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?
Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk
Escalate the issue to senior management
Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.
Certify the control after documenting the concern.
The best recommendation to the control owner when an existing control has deteriorated over time is to discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner. This is because the risk owner is the person or entity who has the authority and accountability to make decisions and take actions regarding the risk, including the selection and implementation of the risk response strategies. The control owner is the person or entity who is responsible for the design, operation, and maintenance of the control, but not for the overall risk management. By discussing risk mitigation options with the risk owner, the control owner can communicate the current status and performance of the control, and collaborate on finding the most appropriate and effective solution to address the risk and the control deterioration. The other options are not the best recommendation to the control owner, because they do not involve the risk owner, who is the key stakeholder in the risk management process, as explained below:
A. Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk is not the best recommendation, because it may not be feasible, efficient, or sufficient to address the risk and the control deterioration. Compensating controls are additional or alternative controls that are implemented to mitigate the risk when the primary control is not available, adequate, or effective. However, implementing compensating controls without discussing with the risk owner may result in wasting resources, duplicating efforts, or conflicting objectives, and may not align with the risk appetite or strategy of the organization.
B. Escalate the issue to senior management is not the best recommendation, because it may not be necessary, timely, or appropriate to involve senior management in the risk and control deterioration issue. Senior management is the highest level of authority and oversight in the organization, and may not have the detailed or operational knowledge or involvement in the risk and control management. Escalating the issue to senior management without discussing with the risk owner may create confusion, delay, or misunderstanding, and may not result in the optimal risk mitigation solution.
D. Certify the control after documenting the concern is not the best recommendation, because it may not be accurate, honest, or compliant to certify the control when it has deteriorated over time. Certifying the control is the process of attesting that the control is designed and operating effectively and efficiently, and meets the established criteria and standards. Certifying the control after documenting the concern may not reflect the true status and performance of the control, and may not comply with the internal or external audit or regulatory requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. Roles and Responsibilities in Risk Management, Risk Owner vs. Control Owner: What’s the Difference?, Control Deterioration: How to Avoid It and What to Do About It
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct risk assessments at periodic intervals?
To ensure emerging risk is identified and monitored
To establish the maturity level of risk assessment processes
To promote a risk-aware culture among staff
To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported
Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?
Risk tolerance is decreased.
Residual risk is increased.
Inherent risk is increased.
Risk appetite is decreased
A critical patch is a software update that fixes a security vulnerability or a bug that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of a system or a network. A critical patch implementation is a process that applies the software update to the system or network in a timely and effective manner. The failure of a critical patch implementation is a situation where the software update is not applied or not applied correctly, which may expose the system or networkto various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. The failure of a critical patch implementation would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile by increasing the residual risk. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response, which means the risk that is not avoided, transferred, or mitigated by the existing controls or measures. The failure of a critical patch implementation would increase the residual risk, as it would reduce the effectiveness or efficiency of the existing controls or measures that are supposed to address the security vulnerability or the bug. The failure of a critical patch implementation would also increase the likelihood or impact of the potential threats, as well as the exposure or consequences of the system or network. The other options are not the correct changes that would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation, although they may be affected or related. Risk tolerance is the degree of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is not willing to accept. Risk tolerance may be decreased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become more cautious or conservative in accepting the risk, but it is not a direct or immediate change in the risk profile. Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of any controls or measures, which means the risk that is inherent to the system or network or the environment. Inherent risk may be increased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the system or network may become more vulnerable or susceptible to the threats, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile considers the existing controls or measures. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite may be decreasedby the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become less willing orable to accept the risk, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile reflects the actual or current risk level, not the desired or expected risk level. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 972; What is a Critical Patch? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia4
Which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider when determining whether to approve a policy exception request?
Volume of exceptions
Lack of technical resources
Cost of noncompliance
Time required to implement controls
Noncompliance cost reflects the impact or penalties from deviating from policies. Per ISACA governance best practices, exceptions should only be granted when this cost is understood and deemed acceptable relative to business needs.
Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information lo a supplier?
Encrypt the data while in transit lo the supplier
Contractually obligate the supplier to follow privacy laws.
Require independent audits of the supplier's control environment
Utilize blockchain during the data transfer
Contractually obligating the supplier to follow privacy laws is the best way to mitigate the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information to a supplier, because it ensures that the supplier is legally bound to comply with the applicable laws and regulations that protect the privacy and security of the personal information. This also creates a clear accountability andliability for the supplier in case of a privacy breach, and defines the rights and obligations of both parties in relation to the personal information. The other options are not the best ways to mitigate the risk of violating privacy laws, although they may also be helpful in reducing the likelihood or impact of a privacy breach. Encrypting the data while in transit to the supplier, requiring independent audits of the supplier’s control environment, and utilizing blockchain during the data transfer are examples of technical or assurance controls that aim to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the personal information, but they do not address the legal or contractual aspects of the privacy laws. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT course of action?
Remove the associated risk from the register.
Validate control effectiveness and update the risk register.
Review the contract and service level agreements (SLAs).
Obtain an assurance report from the third-party provider.
The risk practitioner’s next course of action should be to review the contract and SLAs with the third-party cloud provider, as they define the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both parties regarding the backup and recovery procedures. The contract and SLAs should specify the scope, frequency, quality, security, availability, and performance of the backup and recovery services, as well as the reporting, monitoring, auditing, and remediation mechanisms. The risk practitioner should ensure that the contract and SLAs are aligned with the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery requirements, and that they provide sufficient assurance and accountability for the third-party provider.
A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
Document the finding in the risk register.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Re-evaluate key risk indicators.
Modify the design of the control.
The next step after determining that a key control does not meet design expectations is to document the finding in the risk register, because this helps to record and track the information about the identified risk, such as its description, likelihood, impact, response, and status. A key control is a control that addresses a significant risk or supports a critical business process or objective. A control design expectation is a criterion or requirement that defines how the control should operate or perform to achieve its objective. If a key control does not meet its design expectation, it means that there is a gap, weakness, or deficiency in the control that may compromise its effectiveness or efficiency, and increase the risk exposure or impact. By documenting the finding in the risk register, the risk practitioner can communicate and report the risk issue to the relevant stakeholders, such as the risk owner, the management, or the auditor, and initiate the appropriate risk response actions, such as modifying the design of the control, implementing a compensating control, or accepting the risk. The other options are not the best next steps after determining that a key control does not meet design expectations. Invoking the incident response plan is a reactive measure that is triggered when a risk event occurs or is imminent, and requires immediate action to contain, mitigate, or recover from the incident. However, in this case, the risk event has not occurred yet, and there may be time to prevent or reduce it by improving the control design. Re-evaluating key risk indicators is a monitoring activity that measures and evaluates the level and impact of risks, and provides timely signals that something may be going wrong or needs urgent attention. However, in this case, the risk practitioner has already identified the risk issue, and needs to document and address it, rather than re-evaluate it. Modifying the design of the control is a possible risk response action that may be taken to improve the control and reduce the risk, but it is not the next step after determining that the key control does not meet design expectations. The next step is to document the finding in the risk register, and then decide on the best risk response action, which may or may not be modifying the design of the control, depending on the cost-benefit analysis, the risk assessment, and the risk response strategy. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 13
A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization's systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.
Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.
Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.
Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the contracts department is responsible for drafting, reviewing, and negotiating contracts with vendors and other third parties. The contracts department should ensure that the contracts include adequate clauses and terms to address the risks and controls related to the vendor services and activities. Therefore, the best course of action for the risk practitioner when finding a missing clause to control privileged access to the organization’s systems by vendor employees is to report this concern to the contracts department for further action. The contracts department can then revise the contract to include the necessary clause, or seek alternative solutions to mitigate the risk of unauthorized or inappropriate access by vendor employees. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 229.
An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:
mitigation.
avoidance.
transfer.
acceptance.
Risk transfer is a risk response strategy that involves shifting the responsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as a third party, an insurance company, or a joint venture. Risk transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the exposure or impact of the risk to the enterprise. An example of risk transfer is engaging a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. By doing so, the organization transfers the risk of data breach or loss to the third party, who is responsible for ensuring the security and availability of the data. The other options are not examples of risk transfer, as they involve different risk response strategies:
Risk mitigation is a risk response strategy that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk to an acceptable level, such as by implementing controls, policies, or procedures.
Risk avoidance is a risk response strategy that involves eliminating the risk by not performing the activity that generates the risk, such as by discontinuing a product or service, or not entering a market.
Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the risk and taking no action to address it, such as by tolerating the risk, exploiting the risk, or sharing the risk. References =Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1.1, pp. 107-108.
An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?
Recommend rejection of the initiative.
Change the level of risk appetite.
Document formal acceptance of the risk.
Initiate a reassessment of the risk.
Formal acceptance of the risk is critical when the risk exposure exceeds the risk appetite, as it ensures accountability and acknowledges the decision at the appropriate level. Documenting acceptance involves communicating the potential impacts and obtaining agreement from senior stakeholders. This process aligns with theRisk Response and Reportingdomain in CRISC, emphasizing clear documentation and communication of risks for decision-making.
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?
Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software
Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software
Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization
Lack of professional support for open source software
Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software should be the greatest concern for an organization that uses open source software applications, as it may expose the organization to legal, security, and operational risks. Open source software is software that is freely available and can be modified and distributed by anyone, subject to certain conditions and licenses. An organizational policy regarding open source software should define the criteria and procedures for selecting, acquiring, using, and maintaining open source software, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders involved. Lack of reliability, lack of monitoring, and lack of professional support are not the greatest concerns, as they can be addressed by implementing quality assurance, configuration management, and community engagement practices for open source software. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 214; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 214.
A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r
Prepare a business case for the response options.
Identify resources for implementing responses.
Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.
Update the risk register with the results.
The risk practitioner’s next step after identifying risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios in a recent risk workshop is to update the risk register with the results, as it involves documenting and communicating the risk information and decisions, and maintaining the accuracy and completeness of the risk register. Preparing a business case for the response options, identifying resources for implementing responses, and developing a mechanism for monitoring residual risk are possible steps, but they are not the next step, as they require the prior update of the risk register with the new risk information and decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by:
the jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters
international law and a uniform set of regulations.
the laws and regulations of each individual country
international standard-setting bodies.
The legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by the laws and regulations of each individual country. Legal and regulatory risk is the risk of non-compliance or violation of the applicable laws and regulations that govern the business activities, operations, or transactions. Business conducted over the Internet involves the use of the global network of interconnected computers and devices to exchange information, goods, or services across the geographic boundaries. Business conducted over the Internet may expose the enterprise to various legal and regulatory risks, such as data protection, privacy, security, intellectual property, consumer protection, taxation, or jurisdiction issues. The legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by the laws and regulations of each individual country, as each country may have different or conflicting laws and regulations that apply to the business conducted over the Internet, and that may change or vary over time. The laws and regulations of each individual country may also impose different or additional obligations, requirements, or restrictions on the enterprise, and may subject the enterprise to different or multiple enforcement actions, penalties, or disputes. The jurisdiction inwhich an organization has its principal headquarters, international law and a uniform set of regulations, and international standard-setting bodies are not the drivers of the legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet, as they do not reflect the diversity and complexity of the legal and regulatory landscape that the enterprise may face when conducting business over the Internet. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:
amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.
amount of risk present in the organization.
variance against objectives.
number of incidents.
The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the variance against objectives, because control metrics are measures that indicate the performance and effectiveness of the controls in achieving the desired outcomes and goals. Control metrics can help to identify and quantify the gaps or deviations between the actual and expected results of the controls, and to provide feedback and improvement for the control design and implementation. The other options are not the primary purpose, because:
Option A: Amount of risk reduced by compensating controls is a result of using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. Compensating controls are controls that provide an alternative or additional level of protection or assurance when the primary or preferred controls are not feasible or effective. Control metrics can help to measure and monitor the amount of risk reduced by compensating controls, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the control performance and effectiveness.
Option B: Amount of risk present in the organization is an input to using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. The amount of risk present in the organization is the level of exposure and uncertainty that the organization faces in pursuing its objectives and goals. Control metrics can help to assess and report the amount of risk present in the organization, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the risk profile and exposure.
Option D: Number of incidents is a source of using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. Incidents are events or occurrences that disrupt or threaten the normal operations or security of the organization. Control metrics can help to analyze and respond to the number of incidents, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the incident management andresolution. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 120.
What is the GREATEST concern with maintaining decentralized risk registers instead of a consolidated risk register?
Aggregated risk may exceed the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance.
Duplicate resources may be used to manage risk registers.
Standardization of risk management practices may be difficult to enforce.
Risk analysis may be inconsistent due to non-uniform impact and likelihood scales.
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. A decentralized risk register is maintained by each business unit or function, while a consolidated risk register is maintained at the enterprise level. The greatest concern with maintainingdecentralized risk registers instead of a consolidated risk register is that the aggregated risk may exceed the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, while risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation around the objectives. If the risk registers are not consolidated, the enterprise may not have a holistic view of its risk profile and may not be able to prioritize and allocate resources effectively. The other options are also concerns, but they are not as significant as the potential misalignment between the aggregated risk and the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2.2, pp. 21-22.
Who should be responsible for determining which stakeholders need to be involved in the development of a risk scenario?
Risk owner
Risk practitioner
Compliance manager
Control owner
The risk practitioner is responsible for determining which stakeholders need to be involved in the development of a risk scenario, as they have the knowledge and skills to facilitate the process and ensure that the relevant perspectives and information are considered. The risk owner, the compliance manager, and the control owner are examples of stakeholders who may participate in the risk scenario development, but they are not responsible for determining who should be involved. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit, page 9; CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.
Review past internal audit results.
Respond to organizational security threats.
Research industry published studies.
A risk practitioner should evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats to the organization’s industry, as this is the best course of action to understand the current and future risk landscape, and to align the risk management strategy accordingly. By evaluating the relevance of the evolving threats, the risk practitioner can determine the impact and likelihood of the threats affecting the organization’s objectives, assets, and processes, and prioritize the most critical and urgent risks. The risk practitioner can also identify the gaps and weaknesses in the existing controls, and recommend appropriate risk response measures to mitigate the threats. The other options are not as good as evaluating the relevance of the evolving threats, because they do not address the root cause of the rising security incidents, but rather focus on the symptoms or consequences of the incidents. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 85.
Who is accountable for risk treatment?
Enterprise risk management team
Risk mitigation manager
Business process owner
Risk owner
Risk treatment is the process of selecting and implementing the appropriate risk response strategy and actions to address the identified risks. Risk treatment can involve different strategies, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risk. Risk owner is the person or group who has the authority and accountability to manage the risk and its response. Risk owner is accountable for risk treatment, as they are responsible for deciding, approving, and executing the risk treatment plan, and for monitoring and reportingthe results and outcomes of the risk treatment. The other options are not accountable for risk treatment, as they have different roles or responsibilities in the risk management process:
Enterprise risk management team is the group of risk managers and practitioners who support the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and stakeholders. Enterprise risk management team may advise or assist the risk owner in risk treatment, but they are not accountable for risk treatment.
Risk mitigation manager is the person who designs, implements, and monitors the risk mitigation actions or measures that reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk to an acceptable level, such as controls, policies, or procedures. Risk mitigation manager may advise or assist the risk owner in risk treatment, but they are not accountable for risk treatment.
Business process owner is the stakeholder who is responsible for the business process that is supported by the IT system or application, such as the CRM system. Business process owner may be affected by or contribute to the risk, and may be involved in the risk treatment, but they are not accountable for risk treatment, unless they are also the risk owner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:
evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.
evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.
address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.
determine which risk factors have high remediation costs
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, the first step in prioritizing risk response is to address the high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions. This means that management should focus on the risks that have the most impact on the organization’s objectives and can be mitigated with the least amount of resources and effort. This approach helps to optimize the risk response process and achieve the best results in terms of risk reduction and value creation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, Page 223.
An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?
Confidentiality breach
Institutional knowledge loss
Intellectual property loss
Unauthorized access
The type of risk that is most likely to materialize as a result of allowing several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs is institutional knowledge loss, as it represents the loss of valuable information, experience, and expertise that the employees have accumulated over time, and that may not be easily transferred or replaced. Confidentiality breach, intellectual property loss, and unauthorized access are not the most likely types of risk, as they are more related to the security, ownership, or access of information, respectively, rather than the retention or transfer of knowledge. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?
The organization's strategic risk management projects
Senior management roles and responsibilities
The organizations risk appetite and tolerance
Senior management allocation of risk management resources
The organization’s risk appetite and tolerance are the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the level of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is prepared to accept. Senior management plays a key role in defining and communicating the risk appetite and tolerance, as well asensuring that they are aligned with the organization’s strategy, culture, and values. By covering these topics in the training session, the risk practitioner can help senior management understand and articulate the risk preferences and boundaries of the organization, as well as monitor andadjust them as needed. The other options are not the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management, although they may be relevant and useful. The organization’s strategic risk management projects are specific initiatives or activities that aim to identify, assess, and treat risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. Senior management roles and responsibilities are the duties and expectations that senior management has in relation to risk management, such as providing leadership, oversight, and support. Senior management allocation of risk management resources is the process of assigning and prioritizing the human, financial, and technical resources that are needed to implement and maintain risk management activities. These topics are more operational and tactical than strategic and may vary depending on the context and scope of the risk management function. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 40-411; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 732
Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?
Average bandwidth usage
Peak bandwidth usage
Total bandwidth usage
Bandwidth used during business hours
Peak bandwidth usage is the most helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth. Peak bandwidth usage is the maximum amount of data that istransferred over a network connection at a given time. It indicates the highest demand and stress on the network resources and capacity. By monitoring the peak bandwidth usage, the organization can identify the potential bottlenecks, slowdowns, and disruptions that may occur due to insufficient network bandwidth. The organization can also plan and allocate the network bandwidth accordingly to meet the peak demand and avoid service degradation. The other options are not as helpful as peak bandwidth usage, as they do not reflect the actual or potential network performance issues that may arise due to insufficient network bandwidth. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Key Risk Indicators, page 197.
Risk appetite should be PRIMARILY driven by which of the following?
Enterprise security architecture roadmap
Stakeholder requirements
Legal and regulatory requirements
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Risk appetite should be primarily driven by stakeholder requirements. Stakeholder requirements are the needs and expectations of the internal and external parties that have an interest or influence in the organization’s objectives or operations, such as the board, management, employees, customers, regulators, investors, etc. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite should be driven by stakeholder requirements, because they reflect the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and they provide the basis and direction for the organization’s risk management activities. Risk appetite should also be aligned and communicated with stakeholder requirements, because they affect the organization’s performance and reputation, and they require the organization’s accountability and transparency. The other options are not the primary drivers of risk appetite, although they may be considered or influenced by risk appetite. Enterprise security architecture roadmap, legal and regulatory requirements, and businessimpactanalysis (BIA) are all factors that could affect the organization’s risk profile, risk assessment, or risk response, but they do not necessarily determine or reflect the organization’s risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 2-23.
An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?
Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.
Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).
Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.
Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).
The best way to mitigate the risk to operations caused by severe weather events is to develop a business continuity plan (BCP). A BCP is a document that describes the procedures and resources needed to ensure the continuity of the organization’s critical functions and processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP helps to identify the recovery objectives, strategies, and priorities, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the recovery team members. A BCP also helps to prepare and test the recovery capabilities and resources, such as alternate locations, backup systems, and communication channels. The other options are not as effective as developing a BCP, although they may be part of the BCP process or outcomes. Preparing a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation, preparing a disaster recovery plan (DRP), and conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location are all activities that can help to develop or implement a BCP, but they are not the best way to mitigate the risk to operations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 5-9.
An organization is developing a risk universe to create a holistic view of its overall risk profile. Which of the following is the GREATEST barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives?
Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops within the organization
Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture
Lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure
Lack of an integrated risk management system to aggregate risk scenarios
Lack of common understanding of the organization’s risk culture is the greatest barrier to achieving the initiative’s objectives, because it hinders the alignment and integration of risk management across the organization. Risk culture is the set of shared values, beliefs, and behaviors that influence how risk is perceived and managed in an organization. A risk universe is a comprehensive and structured representation of all the sources and types of risk that an organization faces. Developing a risk universe requires a common understanding of the organization’s risk culture, as it affects the risk appetite, tolerance, and strategy of the organization. Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops, lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure, and lack of an integrated risk management system are all challenges that may affect thedevelopment of a risk universe, but they are not the greatest barrier, as they can be overcome with appropriate tools and techniques. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 44
The implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response. Which of the following should be the risk owner's NEXT action?
Perform a risk assessment.
Accept the risk of not implementing.
Escalate to senior management.
Update the implementation plan.
A risk treatment plan is a document that outlines the actions and resources required to implement the chosen risk response for a specific risk1. A risk response is a strategy or action that is taken or planned tomitigate or eliminate the risk, such as avoiding, transferring, reducing, or accepting the risk2. A risk owner is a person or entity that has the authority and accountability for a risk and its management3. If the implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response, the risk owner’s next action should be to escalate to senior management, which is the group of senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance4. By escalating to senior management, the risk owner can inform and consult them about the situation and the implications, and seek their guidance and approval for the necessary adjustments or alternatives. Escalating to senior management can also help to ensure that the risk treatment plan is aligned with the organization’s strategy, vision, and mission, and that the risk response is consistent with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance5. Performing a risk assessment, accepting the risk of not implementing, and updating the implementation plan are not the best choices for the risk owner’s next action, as they do not provide the same level of communication and consultation as escalating to senior management. Performing a risk assessment is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and their potential impacts on the organization’s objectives and performance6. Performing a risk assessment can help to update and validate the risk information and the risk treatment plan, but it does not address the issue of the resource shortfall or the stakeholder expectations. Acceptingthe risk of not implementing is a decision that involves acknowledging and tolerating the risk or its impact without taking anyaction to reduce or eliminate it7. Accepting the risk of not implementing can help to avoid the additional cost and effort of the risk treatment plan, but it does not consider the potential consequences or the stakeholder interests. Updating the implementation plan is a process that involves revising and modifying the plan for executing the risk treatment plan, such as the scope,schedule, budget, or quality8. Updating the implementation plan can help to reflect the changes and updates in the risk treatment plan, but it does not resolve the problem of the resource gap or the stakeholder approval. References = 1: Risk Treatment and Response Plans - UNECE2: Risk Response Strategy and Contingency Plans - ProjectManagement.com3: [Risk Ownership - Risk Management] 4: [Senior Management - Definition, Roles and Responsibilities] 5: [Risk Appetite and Tolerance - ISACA] 6: [Risk Assessment - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] 7: [Risk Acceptance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] 8: [Implementation Plan - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1: Risk Response Options, pp. 113-115.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?
Assessing regulatory requirements
Benchmarking against industry standards
Gaining management consensus
Identifying risk tolerance
The most important factor when determining risk appetite is gaining management consensus, as it involves obtaining the agreement and support of the senior management and the board of directors on the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and ensuring the alignment and consistency of the risk appetite across the organization. The other options are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the assessment, benchmarking, or identification of the risk, respectively, rather than the determination of the risk appetite. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
The BEST reason to classify IT assets during a risk assessment is to determine the:
priority in the risk register.
business process owner.
enterprise risk profile.
appropriate level of protection.
Classifying IT assets during a risk assessment is a process of assigning values to the IT assets based on their importance, sensitivity, and criticality to the enterprise. The best reason to classify IT assets is todetermine the appropriate level of protection that each IT asset requires, based on its value and the potential impact of its loss or compromise. This helps the enterprise to allocate resources and implement controls that are proportional to the risk exposure of the IT assets, and to optimize the cost and benefit of risk mitigation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 233. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 233. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 233.
Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?
Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls
Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements
Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes
Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)
The best method to identify unnecessary controls is reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes, because this can help to determine whether the controls are relevant, effective, and efficient for the current business needs and objectives. System functionalities are the capabilities and features of IT systems that support the execution and performance of business processes. Business processes are the set of interrelated activities that transform inputs into outputs to deliver value to customers or stakeholders. By reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes, an organization can assess whether the controls are aligned with the process requirements, expectations, and outcomes, and whether they add value or create waste. The review can also identify any gaps, overlaps, redundancies, or conflicts among the controls, and any changes or improvements that are needed to optimize the controls. The other options are less effective methods to identify unnecessary controls. Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls can help to measure the benefits and costs of the controls, but it does not address the root causes or sources of the unnecessary controls. Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements can help to ensure compliance and assurance, but it does not considerthe business context or purpose of the controls. Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs) can help to measure the level and impact of risks, but it does not evaluate the suitability oradequacy of the controls. References = Surveying Staff to Identify Unnecessary Internal Controls - Methodology and Results
The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:
establish overall impact to the organization
efficiently manage the scope of the assignment
identify critical information systems
facilitate communication to senior management
The interdependency of information systems means that the failure or disruption of one system can affect the performance or availability of other systems. Therefore, it is important to aggregate the results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems to understand the overall impact to the organization. By aggregating the results, the risk manager can identify the potential cascading effects, the cumulative consequences, and the worst-casescenarios of interdependent risks. This can help theorganization to prioritize the risks, allocate the resources, and implement the risk response strategies accordingly. The other options are not as important as the overall impact to the organization, because they do not capture the full extent of the interdependency of information systems. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.3, page 99.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Logs are retained for longer than required.
Logs are reviewed annually.
Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.
Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.
Log modification undermines data integrity, which is critical for accurate risk monitoring. Ensuring log integrity supports reliable KRI assessments, a key focus within theRisk Monitoring and Reportingframework.
An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?
After user acceptance testing (UAT)
Upon release to production
During backlog scheduling
When reviewing functional requirements
The application risk profile should be updated when reviewing functional requirements. This will help to identify and assess the potential risks that may arise from the changes to the application, and to plan and implement appropriate risk responses. Updating the application risk profile at this stage will also help to ensure that the changes are aligned with the organization’s objectives, policies, and standards, and that they meet the stakeholders’ expectations and needs. Updating the application risk profile after user acceptance testing, upon release to production, or during backlog scheduling are not the best points to update the risk profile, as they may be too late or too early to capture the relevant risks and their impacts. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 511
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 655.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate control effectiveness to senior management?
To demonstrate alignment with industry best practices
To assure management that control ownership is assigned
To ensure management understands the current risk status
To align risk management with strategic objectives
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the most important reason to communicate control effectiveness to senior management is to ensure management understands the current risk status. Control effectiveness is a measure of how well a control reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk event. By communicating control effectiveness, risk managers can provide management with relevant and timely information about the residual risk level, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the potential gaps or weaknesses in the control environment. This can help management make informed decisions about risk response strategies, resource allocation, and risk oversight12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:
minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.
aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.
build a threat profile of the organization for management review.
provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors primarily helps to provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions, which are the decisions that are made based on the consideration and evaluation of the risks and their responses. Providing a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions helps to ensure that the decisions are consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risks, and that they support the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the primary benefits of periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of a risk register, which is to provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.
Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment means reducing the scope and depth of risk analysis and reporting, and impairing the organization’s ability to identify and respond to emerging or changing risks. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details onidentified risk factors does not necessarily minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment, and it may not be a desirable or beneficial outcome for the organization.
Aggregating risk scenarios identified across different business units means combining or consolidating the risks that are identified by different parts or functions of the organization, and creating a holistic or integrated view of the organization’s risk profile. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors does not necessarily aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units, and it may not be a sufficient or effective way to achieve a holistic or integrated view of the organization’s risk profile.
Building a threat profile of the organization for management review means creating or developing a summary or representation of the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations, and presenting or reporting it to the senior management for their awareness and approval. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors does not necessarily build a threat profile of the organization for management review, and it may not be a comprehensive or reliable way to create or develop a summary or representation of the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 172
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization's risk culture?
Maintaining a documented risk register
Establishing a risk awareness program
Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents
Allocating resources for risk remediation
A risk awareness program is a set of activities that aim to educate and inform employees about the organization’s risk culture, policies, and procedures. A risk awareness program can help improve an organization’s risk culture by enhancing the employees’ understanding of risk, their roles and responsibilities in risk management, and the benefits of risk mitigation. A risk awareness program can also foster a culture of openness, trust, and collaboration among employees, managers, and stakeholders, which can improve the organization’s risk performance and resilience.
Maintaining a documented risk register, rewarding employees for reporting security incidents, and allocating resources for risk remediation are also important aspects of risk management, but they do not directly address the organization’s risk culture, which is the shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that influence how risk is perceived and handled within the organization.
Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?
Delayed removal of employee access
Authorized administrative access to HR files
Corruption of files due to malware
Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), a vulnerability is a flaw or weakness in an asset’s design, implementation, or operation and management that could be exploited by a threat. A delayed removal of employee access is a vulnerability, as it allows former employees to retain access to the organization’s IT assets and processes, which could lead to unauthorized disclosure, modification, or destruction of data or resources. A delayed removal of employee access could be caused by poor personnel management, lack of security awareness, or inadequate access control policies and procedures.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 32-331
During an organization's simulated phishing email campaign, which of the following is the BEST indicator of a mature security awareness program?
A high number of participants reporting the email
A high number of participants deleting the email
A low number of participants with questions for the help desk
A low number of participants opening the email
A mature program is indicated by employees recognizing phishing and actively reporting it—not just deleting it. ISACA guidance states that awareness programs should foster “threat identification and escalation actions,” not just passive compliance.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?
Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.
Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.
Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.
Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.
Organizational risk culture is the term describing the values, beliefs, knowledge, attitudes and understanding about risk shared by a group of people with a common purpose. Organizationalrisk culture influences how the organization identifies, assesses, and manages risks, and how it aligns its risk appetite and tolerance with its objectives and strategies1.
The best indication of a mature organizational risk culture is that risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk, because it means that the organization:
Clearly defines and assigns the roles and responsibilities of the risk owners, who are the individuals or groups who have the authority and ability to manage the risks within their scope or domain
Empowers and supports the risk owners to perform their risk management duties, such as identifying, assessing, responding, monitoring, and reporting the risks
Holds the risk owners accountable for the outcomes and consequences of the risks, and evaluates their performance and compliance with the risk policies, standards, and procedures
Encourages and rewards the risk owners for demonstrating risk awareness and competence, and for contributing to the risk management improvement and learning23
The other options are not the best indications of a mature organizational risk culture, but rather some of the elements or aspects of it. Corporate risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members to guide their risk decision making and behavior, and to ensure the consistency and alignment of the risk taking and tolerance across the organization. Risk policy is the document that establishes the principles, framework, and process for managing the risks within the organization. Risk policy is published and acknowledged by employees to ensure their awareness and compliance with the risk management expectations and requirements. Management is the group of individuals who have the authority and responsibility to direct and control the organization’s activities and resources. Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches to ensure the transparency and accountability of the risk management performance and outcomes, and to identify and address the risk management issues and gaps4. References =
Risk culture - Institute of Risk Management
Risk Owner - ISACA
Taking control of organizational risk culture | McKinsey
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:
the organization's risk culture
benchmarking results against similar organizations
industry-specific regulatory requirements
expertise available within the IT department
The maturity of an IT risk management program is most influenced by the organization’s risk culture, as this reflects the shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that shape how the organization perceives and responds to risk. The risk culture determines the level of awareness, commitment, and involvement of the stakeholders in the IT risk management process, as well as the degree of integration and alignment with the enterprise’s objectives and strategy. A mature IT risk management program requires a strong and positive risk culture that fosters trust, collaboration, and accountability among the stakeholders, and supports continuous improvement and learning. The other options are not the most influential factors for the maturity of an IT risk management program, although they may have some impact or relevance. Benchmarking results against similar organizations can provide useful insights and comparisons, but they do not necessarily reflect the organization’s own risk culture or context. Industry-specific regulatory requirements can impose certain standards and expectations, but they do not guarantee the effectiveness or efficiency of the IT risk management program. Expertise available within the IT department can enhance the technical and operational aspects of the IT risk management program, but it does not ensure the strategic and cultural alignment with the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, page 23.
During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.
Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.
Determine the root cause of the control failures.
Escalate the control failures to senior management.
The control evaluation phase of a risk assessment is the phase where the risk practitioner evaluates the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing or planned controls that mitigate the identified risks. Controls are the actions or measures that reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks to an acceptable level. The control evaluation phase involves testing, reviewing, and auditing the controls, and identifying any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. If the control evaluation phase reveals that multiple controls are ineffective, the risk practitioner’s first course of action should be to determine the root cause of the control failures. The root cause is the underlying or fundamental reason that leads to the problem or issue, such as the controlfailure. By determining the root cause of the control failures, the risk practitioner can understand why the controls are not working as intended, and what factors or variables are influencing the control performance. This will help the risk practitioner to identify and implement the most appropriate and effective risk response strategy and actions, such as recommending risk remediation, comparing the residual risk, or escalating the control failures. The other options are not the first course of action, as they involve different steps or outcomes of the risk management process:
Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls means that the risk practitioner suggests the actions or measures that can improve or restore the effectiveness of the controls, such as by modifying, replacing, or adding the controls. This may be a useful step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not address the root cause of the control failures, or may not be feasible or efficient for the enterprise’s needs.
Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite means that the risk practitioner evaluates the level of risk that remains after considering the existing or planned controls, and compares it with the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. This may be a helpful step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not reflect the true or current level of risk exposure, or may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the risks or the controls.
Escalate the control failures to senior management means that the risk practitioner communicates the control failures to the senior leaders of the enterprise, who oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and practitioners. This may be a necessary step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not provide sufficient or timely information or action to address the control failures, or may not reflect the urgency or priority of the control failures. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.1, pp. 62-63.
An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:
risk mitigation.
risk evaluation.
risk appetite.
risk tolerance.
Risk tolerance is the best term to describe the situation where an organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk tolerance defines the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures, such as availability, reliability, or security. Risk tolerance is usually expressed as a range, such as 99% +/- 0.5%. Risk mitigation, risk evaluation, and risk appetite are not the correct terms to describe this situation, because they refer to different aspects of risk management, such as reducing, assessing, or pursuing risk, respectively. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?
Key procedure control gaps
Business objectives
Senior management's risk appetite
Hypothetical scenarios
The most important factor to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios is B. Business objectives12
Top-down risk scenarios are based on the organization’s strategic goals, objectives, and key performance indicators (KPIs), and they aim to identify the potential events or situations that could prevent or hinder the achievement of those goals and objectives12
By identifying the business objectives, the risk practitioner can align the risk scenarios with the organization’s mission, vision, and values, and ensure that the risk scenarios are relevant, realistic, and meaningful for the senior management and other stakeholders12
The other factors are not as important as the business objectives when developing top-down risk scenarios, because they are either more relevant for bottom-up risk scenarios (A and D), or they are derived from the business objectives and the risk scenarios ©12
Which of the following is MOST important for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership?
Ensuring processes are documented to enable effective control execution
Ensuring regular risk messaging is Included in business communications from leadership
Ensuring schedules and deadlines for control-related deliverables are strictly monitored
Ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite
The most important thing for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership is to ensure that the performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite. Performance metrics are the measures that evaluate the achievement of the objectives or the performance of the processes or controls. Business goals are the desired or expected outcomes or results of the business activities or processes. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing and able to take. Ethical risk is the risk that arises from the violation or breach of the ethical principles or standards of the organization or the profession. To mitigate ethical risk, the performance metrics should balance business goals with risk appetite, meaning that they should not encourage or reward excessive or inappropriate risk-taking or unethical behavior, but rather promote and support responsible and ethical risk management and decision making. The other options are not as important as ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite, as they are related to the documentation, communication, or monitoring of the processes or controls, not the evaluation or alignment of the performance metrics. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
A key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has reached the alert level, indicating data leakage incidents are highly probable. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Update the KRI threshold.
Recommend additional controls.
Review incident handling procedures.
Perform a root cause analysis.
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that measures the level of risk exposure or the likelihood of a risk event1. A KRI threshold is a predefined value or range that triggers an alert or action when the KRI reaches or exceeds it2. A data leakage incident is an unauthorized or accidental exposure of sensitive or confidential data to external parties3.
When a KRI threshold reaches the alert level, indicating that data leakage incidents are highly probable, the risk practitioner’s first course of action should be to review the incident handling procedures. Incident handling procedures are the plans and actions to be taken in the event of a data breach or security incident, such as data leakage4. Reviewing the incident handling procedures can help the risk practitioner to:
Verify the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team and other stakeholders
Confirm the communication and escalation channels and protocols
Identify the tools and resources available for incident detection, containment, analysis, eradication, recovery, and reporting
Evaluate the readiness and preparedness of the organization to respond to a data leakage incident
Update or revise the procedures as needed to reflect the current situation and risk level
Reviewing the incident handling procedures can help the risk practitioner to ensure that the organization can respond to a data leakage incident effectively and efficiently, minimizing the potential or expected impact on the organization’s operations, reputation, or objectives.
The other options are not the first course of action for the risk practitioner, although they may be relevant or necessary at later stages of the risk management process. Updating the KRI threshold, which means adjusting the value or range that triggers an alert or action, may be appropriate if the KRI threshold is too high or too low, but it does not address the imminent risk of data leakage or the response plan. Recommending additional controls, which means suggesting new or improved measures to prevent, detect, or mitigate data leakage, may be useful for reducing the risk exposure or impact, but it does not ensure that the organization is ready or capable to handle a data leakage incident. Performing a root cause analysis, which means finding and identifying the underlying factors that contributed to the risk event, may be helpful for learning from the incident and improving the risk management strategy, but it is usually done after the incident has occurred and resolved, not before.
References = Key Risk Indicators: Definition, Examples, and Best Practices, KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva, What is Data Leakage? Definition, Causes, and Prevention, Incident Response Planning: Best Practices for Businesses
Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management's risk appetite?
Risk management budget
Risk management industry trends
Risk tolerance
Risk capacity
The most important factor for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management’s risk appetite is C. Risk tolerance1
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that management is willing to allow for any specific risk as the enterprise pursues its objectives. Risk tolerance reflects the degree of uncertainty that an organization is prepared to accept in relation to achieving its goals2
When an IT initiative exceeds management’s risk appetite, it means that the potential benefits of the initiative are outweighed by the potential negative consequences or losses that could result from the initiative. However, management may still decide to invest in the initiative if the level of uncertainty or variation is within the organization’s risk tolerance. For example, management may accept a higher level of risk for a strategic or innovative initiative that could provide a competitive advantage or a significant return on investment3
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization that wants to reduce IT operational risk?
Increasing senior management's understanding of IT operations
Increasing the frequency of data backups
Minimizing complexity of IT infrastructure
Decentralizing IT infrastructure
According to the Operational Risk: Overview, Importance, and Examples article, operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems. One of the factors that can increase operational risk is the complexity of IT infrastructure, which refers to the number, variety, and interdependence of IT components, such as hardware, software, networks, and data. A complex IT infrastructure can pose challenges for IT management, such as increased costs, reduced performance, lower reliability, highervulnerability, and more difficulty in troubleshooting and maintenance. Therefore, minimizing the complexity of IT infrastructure can help reduce IT operational risk, as it can simplify IT operations, improve IT efficiency and effectiveness, enhance IT security and resilience, and facilitate IT innovation and adaptation. References = Operational Risk: Overview, Importance, and Examples
Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?
Industry trends in Al
Expected algorithm outputs
Data feeds
Alert functionality
The most important factor for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (AI) solution is the expected algorithm outputs, as they define the desired outcomes and objectives of the AI solution, and guide the design, testing, and validation of the AI algorithm. The other options are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the research, input, or monitoring of the AI solution, respectively, rather than the output of the AI solution. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 153.
A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?
The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.
The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.
The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite
Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that measures the level and trend of a risk that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance1. A KRI threshold is a predefined value or range that indicates the acceptable or tolerable level of risk for the organization2. Theorganization’s risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that it is willing to take in order to meet its strategic goals3. Therefore, the most likely reason for senior management’s response is that the KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization’s risk appetite. This means that the current threshold is either too low or too high, resulting in false alarms or missed signals. By adjusting the threshold to reflect the organization’s risk appetite, senior management can ensure that the KRI provides relevant and actionable information for risk management and decision making. The other options are not the most likely reasons for senior management’s response, as they imply that the KRI is faulty, irrelevant, or misunderstood. The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected. This option assumes that the KRI is based on erroneous or unreliable data, which would affect its validity and reliability. However, this is not the most likely reason, as senior management would be expected to verify the data quality and accuracy before using the KRI for risk monitoring and reporting. The KRI is not providing useful information and shouldbe removed from the KRI inventory. This option assumes that the KRI is not aligned with the organization’s objectives, strategies, or risk profile, which would affect its usefulness and value. However, this is not the most likely reason, as senior management would be expected to review and update the KRI inventory periodically to ensure that the KRIs are relevant and meaningful for risk management. Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training. This option assumes that senior management lacks the knowledge or skills to interpret and use the KRI for risk management, which would affect their competence and confidence. However, this is not the most likely reason, as senior management would be expected to have sufficient risk awareness and education to understand and apply the KRI for risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.4, Page 53.
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:
vulnerability scans.
recurring vulnerabilities.
vulnerabilities remediated,
new vulnerabilities identified.
According to the Key Performance Indicators for Vulnerability Management article, the number of vulnerabilities remediated is a key performance indicator that measures the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program. This KPI indicates how many vulnerabilities have been successfully mitigated or fixed within a given time frame. A higher number can imply that the organization is effectively managing its exposures and reducing its risk level. The number of vulnerabilities remediated can also be compared with the number of new vulnerabilities identified to evaluate the progress and performance of the vulnerability remediation program. References = Key Performance Indicators for Vulnerability Management
A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization's risk:
management.
tolerance.
culture.
analysis.
Risk culture is the system of values and behaviors present in an organization that shapes risk decisions of management and employees1. Risk culture influences how the organization perceives, responds to, and manages the risks that may affect its objectives, operations, or assets2.
The scenario described in the question best demonstrates an organization’s risk culture, because it shows how the management team’s attitude and actions towards risk are driven by the organization’s values and goals. In this case, the organization’s risk culture is characterized by:
A high risk appetite and tolerance, which means that the organization is willing to take and accept significant risks in order to achieve its strategic objectives of launching a new product and penetrating new markets
A low risk awareness and sensitivity, which means that the organization does not pay enough attention or consideration to the potential IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities that may affect its product development and market entry
A weak risk governance and control, which means that the organization does not have adequate or effective policies, procedures, or mechanisms to identify, assess, respond, or monitor the IT risks and their impacts
References = Risk Culture of Companies | ERM - Enterprise Risk Management Initiative …, Taking control of organizational risk culture | McKinsey
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?
It contains vulnerabilities and threats.
The risk methodology is intellectual property.
Contents may be used as auditable findings.
Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.
Restricting access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis is important because it contains vulnerabilities and threats that could expose the organization to potential harm or loss if they are disclosed or exploited by unauthorized parties. The risk register is a tool that captures and documents the risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment processes1. The risk register contains sensitive information such as the sources and causes of risk, the potential impacts and consequences of risk, the likelihood and frequency of risk occurrence, and the risk response actions and plans1. If this information is accessed by unauthorized parties, such as competitors, hackers, or malicious insiders, they could use it to launch attacks, sabotageoperations, or gain an unfair advantage over the organization. Therefore, access to the risk register should be limited to those who have a legitimate need and authorization to view, modify, or use the information, such as the risk owners, managers, or practitioners
While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:
review and update the policies to align with industry standards.
determine that the policies should be updated annually.
report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.
review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.
Information security policies are the foundation of an organization’s security program, as they define the objectives, roles, responsibilities, and standards for protecting the information assets and systems. However, information security policies are not static, and they need to be reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the changes in the organization’s environment, risk profile, and compliance requirements. Therefore, the best course of action when conducting an organization-wide risk assessment is to review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy. This means comparing the policies with the current threats, vulnerabilities, controls, and best practices, and identifying any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. The other options are not the best course of action, as they do not consider the current needs of the organization. Reviewing and updating the policies to align with industry standards may not be sufficient, as the organization may have specific or unique needs that are not covered by the standards. Determining that the policies should be updated annually may not be realistic, as the frequency of updates may depend on the nature and complexity of the policies and the organization. Reporting that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently may not be accurate, as the policies may be outdated or ineffective, and may expose the organization to unnecessary risks. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative - ISACA, Does Your Organization Need a Security Risk Assessment? - ISACA, SP 800-39, Managing Information Security Risk: Organization, Mission …
Which of the following is MOST important to compare against the corporate risk profile?
Industry benchmarks
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Regulatory compliance
Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is an important component of the corporate risk profile, as it defines the boundaries and limits of the acceptable risk exposure for the organization. Comparing the risk tolerance against the corporate risk profile can help to ensure that the organization’s risk strategy and objectives are aligned with its risk appetite and capacity, and that the organization is not taking on more risk than it can handle or afford. Comparing the risk tolerance against the corporate risk profile can also help to monitor and adjust the risk management process and controls, and to optimize the risk-return trade-off. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 249. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 249. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 249. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?
Risk profile
Risk culture
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
A risk profile is a summary of the nature and level of risk that an organization faces. It includes information such as the sources, causes, and consequences of the risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with the risk appetite and tolerance. A risk profile is influenced by various factors, such as the organization’s objectives, strategies, activities, processes, resources, capabilities, culture, etc. When an organization configures a new business division, the factor that is most likely to be affected is the risk profile, as the new business division may introduce new or change existing risks, opportunities, and uncertainties that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives. Therefore, the organization should update its risk profile to reflect the currentand potential risks associated withthe new business division, and implement the appropriate risk management actions to optimize the risk exposure and performance. References = 4
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?
To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management
To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization
To assign a risk owner to manage the risk
To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk
The primary reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results is to communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management, as this enables them to make informed decisions about risk response and allocation of resources. The risk register is a tool for documenting and reporting the current status of risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, and responses. Updating the risk register with risk assessment results ensures that the information is accurate, relevant, and timely. The risk register also helps to monitor and track the progress and effectiveness of risk management activities. The other options are not the primary reasons to update the risk register, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 109.
Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?
Perform a return on investment analysis.
Review the risk register and risk scenarios.
Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.
Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.
The maturity of organizational risk management refers to the degree to which risk management is embedded and integrated into the organization’s culture, processes, and decision-making1. A higher level of maturity implies that the organization has a clear and consistent understanding ofits risk appetite and tolerance, and that it can effectively identify, assess, respond, monitor, and communicate risks2.
The best way to address the issue of participants focusing on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response is to raise the maturity of organizational risk management. This can help to:
Ensure that risk management is aligned with the organization’s strategic objectives and values, and that risk responses are based on the potential impact and likelihood of risks, not just on the cost of mitigation
Foster a risk-aware culture that encourages proactive and collaborative risk management, and that recognizes and rewards good risk management practices
Provide adequate training and guidance for risk management roles and responsibilities, and ensure that risk management skills and competencies are developed and maintained
Implement a robust and consistent risk management framework, methodology, and tools that support the risk management process and enable continuous improvement and learning
Enhance the quality and reliability of risk information and reporting, and ensure that risk management performance and outcomes are measured and evaluated3
References = Risk Maturity Model - Wikipedia, Risk Maturity Model - ISACA, Risk Maturity Model - IRM
Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?
Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles
Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool
Introduction of requirements that have not been approved
Bypassing quality requirements before go-live
The greatest risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle is the introduction of requirements that have not been approved. Requirements are the specifications or expectations of the business users or stakeholders for the application, such as the features, functions, or performance1. Change control is the process of identifying, evaluating, approving, and implementing changes to the application, such as the design, code, or configuration2. By introducing requirements that have not been approved, the organization can face significant risks, such as:
Scope creep, which is the uncontrolled or unauthorized expansion of the project scope, and can result in increased costs, delays, or errors3.
Quality issues, which can affect the reliability, usability, or security of the application, and can lead to defects, failures, or breaches4.
Stakeholder dissatisfaction, which can arise from the mismatch or inconsistency between the delivered application and the expected application, and can cause complaints, disputes, or litigation5.
The other options are not the greatest risk to change control, because:
Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles is not a risk, but rather a benefit or a best practice for change control, as it can help to ensure that the application meets the requirements and standards, and that the changes are effective and efficient.
Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool is a challenge, but not a risk, for change control, as it can affect the productivity, collaboration, or integration of the developers, and can cause difficulties or inefficiencies in the development process. However, it does not directly affect the requirements or the quality of the application, and it can be overcome by using other tools or methods.
Bypassing quality requirements before go-live is a risk, but not the greatest risk, for change control, as it can compromise the quality or performance of the application, and can expose the organization to errors, failures, or breaches. However, it is less likely or frequent than introducing requirements that have not been approved, and it can be detected or prevented by using quality assurance or quality control techniques.
References =
Requirements - CIO Wiki
Change Control - CIO Wiki
Scope Creep - CIO Wiki
Quality - CIO Wiki
Stakeholder Management - CIO Wiki
[Software Testing - CIO Wiki]
[Integrated Development Environment (IDE) - CIO Wiki]
[Quality Requirements - CIO Wiki]
[Software Development Life Cycle - CIO Wiki]
An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?
Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.
System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.
The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.
The cloud provider is not independently certified.
The greatest security risk in this scenario is that data may be commingled with other tenants’ data on the public cloud infrastructure. Data commingling occurs when data from different sources or customers are mixed together without proper segregation or encryption. This may result in data leakage, unauthorized access, or loss of confidentiality and integrity. Data commingling is a common challenge in public cloud environments, where multiple customers share the same physical resources and network. System downtime, infrastructure management, and cloud provider certification are also potential risks in this scenario, butthey are not as great as data commingling. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1.1, page 2451
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 638.
Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?
Calculating the cost
Analyzing cost-effectiveness
Determining the stakeholders
Identifying the objectives
The first step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management is to identify the objectives of the project. The objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the project aims to accomplish. The objectives should be aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, as well as the identified business problem or opportunity. The objectives should also reflect the expected benefits and outcomes of the project, such as reducing the risk exposure, enhancing the security posture, or improving the business performance. Identifying the objectives is the first step because it provides the direction, scope, and justification for the project, and it serves as the basis for evaluating the alternative solutions, estimating the costs and benefits, and communicating the value proposition to the senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not the first step, although they may be subsequent or concurrent steps in the business case development process. Calculating the cost is a part of the financial analysis, which estimates the total expenditure and funding sources of the project, but it does not define the purpose or the scope of the project. Analyzing cost-effectiveness is a part of the economic analysis, which compares the costs and benefits of the alternative solutions and recommends the optimal one, but it does not specify the goals or the criteria of the project. Determining the stakeholders is a part of the stakeholder analysis, which identifies and assesses the interests, expectations, and influence of the parties involved in or affected by the project, but it does not establish the objectives or the rationale of the project. References = Business case: 7 key steps to build it and use it - Twproject: project …, Guide to developing the Project Business Case - GOV.UK, How to Write a Business Case: Template & Examples | Adobe Workfront
A risk assessment has revealed that the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing. The potential loss could exceed the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following ould be the MOST effective course of action?
Re-evaluate the organization's risk appetite.
Outsource the cybersecurity function.
Purchase cybersecurity insurance.
Review cybersecurity incident response procedures.
Cybersecurity incident response procedures are the plans and actions that an organization takes to respond to and recover from a cybersecurity attack. They include identifying the source and scope of the attack, containing and eradicating the threat, restoring normal operations, and analyzing the root cause and lessons learned. Reviewing cybersecurity incident response procedures is the most effective course of action when the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing and the potential loss could exceed the organization’s risk appetite, as it helps to prepare the organization for minimizing the impact and duration of the attack, as well as improving the resilience and security posture of the organization.
Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?
Validating employee social media accounts and passwords
Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations
Disabling social media access from the organization's technology
Implementing training and awareness programs
The best way to mitigate the risk of reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees is to implement training and awareness programs that educate them on the acceptable andunacceptable use of social media, the potential consequences of violating the policy, and the best practices for protecting the organization’s reputation and information. Training and awareness programs can also help to foster a culture of risk awareness and responsibility among employees, and encourage them to report any incidents or issues related to social media use. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.4, page 131.
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Business impact analysis (BIA) results
Risk scenario ownership
Risk thresholds
Possible causes of materialized risk
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. They help to monitor changes in the level of risk and enable timely actions to mitigate the risk. The most useful information for developing KRIs is the possible causes of materialized risk, which are the factors or events that trigger or contribute to the occurrence of a risk. By identifying the possible causes of materialized risk, an organization can design KRIs that measure the likelihood and impact of the risk, and alert the management when the risk exceeds the acceptable level. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?
Detective controls
Administrative controls
Technical controls
Preventive controls
Administrative controls are the best controls to be strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics, because they are the policies, procedures, standards, and guidelines that define the expected behavior and conduct of the employees and management. A code of ethics is an example of an administrative control that sets the ethical principles and values of the organization and helps to prevent or deter unethical or illegal actions. The other options are not the best controls to be strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics, because they are not directly related to the ethical culture or governance of the organization. Detective controls are the controls that monitor and report the occurrence of unwanted events or incidents. Technical controls are the controls that use hardware, software, or network devices to protect the information systems and data. Preventive controls are the controls that prevent or avoid the occurrence of unwanted events or incidents. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers
An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?
Develop a compensating control.
Allocate remediation resources.
Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
Identify risk responses
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the next course of action when an organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level is to identify risk responses, which are the actions or measures taken to address the risk. Identifying risk responses helps to:
Reduce the likelihood and/or impact of the risk to an acceptable level
Align the risk response with the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance
Optimize the value and benefits of the risk response
Balance the costs and efforts of the risk response with the potential losses or damages caused by the risk
Coordinate and communicate the risk response with the relevant stakeholders
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: Risk Response Process, pp. 161-1621
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?
Communicate potential impact to decision makers.
Research the root cause of similar incidents.
Verify the response plan is adequate.
Increase human resources to respond in the interim.
The most appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded is to communicate the potential impact to the decision makers. A tolerance threshold is the acceptable level of variation or deviation from the expected or planned performance or outcome of a risk response. When a tolerance threshold is exceeded, it means that the risk response is not effective or efficient enough to reduce the risk to an acceptable level, and that the enterprise is exposed to unacceptable levels of risk that could impair its ability to achieve its objectives. Therefore, the potential impact of the risk should be communicated to the decision makers, such as senior management, risk owners, or risk committee, who have the authority and responsibility to decide on the appropriate actions to address the risk situation. Communicating the potential impact can help to raise the awareness and urgency of the risk issue, and to facilitate the risk-based decision making process. Researching the root cause of similar incidents, verifying the response plan isadequate, and increasing human resources to respond in the interim are not as appropriate as communicating the potential impact, as they do not address the primary need of informing and involving the decision makers, and may not be feasible or effective in resolving the risk issue. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 41.
Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk scenarios
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Threat analysis
Risk scenarios are descriptions of possible events or situations that could cause or affect a risk. Risk scenarios can help a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders, as they can illustrate the causes, consequences, and impacts of the risk in a clear and realistic way. Risk scenarios can also facilitate communication and collaboration among stakeholders, as they can provide a common language and framework for risk identification, analysis, and response. Risk scenarios can also support decision-making and prioritization, as they can show the likelihood and severity of the risk outcomes. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 237.
A risk owner has accepted a high-impact risk because the control was adversely affecting process efficiency. Before updating the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:
ensure suitable insurance coverage is purchased.
negotiate with the risk owner on control efficiency.
reassess the risk to confirm the impact.
obtain approval from senior management.
A risk owner is the individual who is accountable for the management of a specific risk. A risk owner can decide to accept a high-impact risk if the control that mitigates the risk is adversely affecting the process efficiency. However, before updating the risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the identified risks and their responses, it is most important for the risk practitioner to obtain approval from senior management. Senior management is the group of executives who have the authority and responsibility for the strategic direction and performance of the organization. Obtaining approval from senior management can help ensure that the risk acceptance decision is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and policies, and that the potential consequences of the high-impact risk are understood and accepted by the top-level decision makers. Obtaining approval from senior management can also help communicate and justify the risk acceptance decision to other stakeholders, such as regulators, auditors, customers, etc., and avoid any conflicts or misunderstandings that may arise from the risk acceptance decision. References = Why Assigning a Risk Owner is Important and How to Do It Right, Risk Ownership: A brief guide, Creating a Risk Register: All You Need to Know.
A bank recently incorporated blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
reflect the results of risk assessments.
be available to all stakeholders.
effectively support a business maturity model.
be reviewed by the IT steering committee.
The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:
communicate risk to senior management
assign risk ownership
facilitate internal audit
determine the appropriate level of control
Classifying information assets is a process of identifying and categorizing the data and information resources that are owned, controlled, or used by an organization, based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality.
Classifying information assets helps to determine the appropriate level of control that is needed to protect them from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Control level refers to the degree of protection or assurance that a control provides against a risk.
Classifying information assets also helps to communicate risk to senior management, assign risk ownership, and facilitate internal audit. These are other benefits of risk management that are not directly related to determining the appropriate level of control.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 11
Information Technology & Security, page 5
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 3
Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?
Balanced scorecard
Risk appetite
Risk map
Risk events
Risk events are specific occurrences or changes that have a potential impact on the achievement of objectives. They can be positive or negative, and they can be internal or external to the organization. Risk events provide the basis for developing realistic risk scenarios, which are hypothetical situations that illustrate the possible consequences of a risk event. Risk scenarios help to understand and communicate the nature, sources, and causes of risk, as well as the potential impact and likelihood of risk occurrence. Risk scenarios can also be used to test the effectiveness of risk responses and controls.
The other options are not as useful as risk events for developing realistic risk scenarios. A balanced scorecard (A) is a strategic management tool that measures the performance of the organization against its objectives, vision, and strategy. It does not provide specific information about risk events or their consequences. A risk appetite (B) is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. It does not describe the risk events or their scenarios, but rather the level of risk tolerance and acceptance. A risk map © is a graphical representation of the risk profile of the organization, showing the relationship between the likelihood and impact of different risks. It does not provide the details or context of the risk events or their scenarios, but rather the relative ranking and prioritization of risks.
Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?
Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.
Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.
Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.
Implement controls to prevent future risk events.
Conducting root cause analyses for risk events is the first recommendation that a risk practitioner should make when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified, as this helps to identify the underlying causes and sources of the risk events, and to determine the appropriate actions to address them. Root cause analysis is a systematic process of collecting and analyzing data, finding the root causes, and implementing solutions to prevent recurrence or reduce the impact of the risk events. Educating personnel on risk mitigation strategies, integrating the risk event and incident management processes, and implementing controls to prevent future risk events are not the first recommendations, but rather the possible outcomes or actions of conducting root cause analyses for risk events. References = CRISC Certified in Riskand Information Systems Control – Question208; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 208.
Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?
Identify the potential risk.
Monitor employee usage.
Assess the potential risk.
Develop risk awareness training.
The security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace is the possibility and impact of unauthorized access, disclosure, or use of the data or information that are collected, stored, or transmitted by the wearable devices, such as smartwatches, fitness trackers, or glasses, that are worn or used by the employees12.
The first step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace is to identify the potential risk, which is the process of recognizing and describing the sources,causes, and consequences of the risk, and the potential impacts on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation34.
Identifying the potential risk is the first step because it provides the basis and input for the subsequent steps of the risk management process, such as assessing, treating, monitoring, and communicating the risk34.
Identifying the potential risk is also the first step because it enables the organization to understand and prioritize the risk, and to allocate the appropriate resources and controls for the risk management process34.
The other options are not the first step, but rather possible subsequent steps that may depend on or follow the identification of the potential risk. For example:
Monitoring employee usage is a step that involves collecting and analyzing data and information on the frequency, duration, and purpose of the wearable devices that are used by the employees, and detecting and reporting any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate a security risk5 . However, this step is not the first step because it requires theidentification of the potential risk to provide the guidance and standards for the monitoring process5 .
Assessing the potential risk is a step that involves estimating and evaluating the likelihood and impact of the risk, and the level of risk exposure or tolerance for the organization34. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the identification of the potential risk to provide the information and data for the assessment process34.
Developing risk awareness training is a step that involves educating and training the employees and other stakeholders on the security risks and best practices associated with the wearable technology, and informing them of their roles, obligations, and responsibilities for the risk management process . However, this step is not the first step because it requires the identification of the potential risk to provide the content and objectives for the training process . References =
1: Wearable Devices in the Workplace: Security Threats and Protection1
2: 10 security risks of wearables | CSO Online2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
5: Continuous Monitoring - ISACA3
Continuous Monitoring: A New Approach to Risk Management - ISACA Journal4
What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky5
Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US
Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?
Creating metrics to track remote connections
Updating remote desktop software
Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Updating the organizational policy for remote access
Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) directly reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access by adding an extra layer of verification to remote network access. ISACA and CRISC materials emphasize that technical controls (e.g., MFA) meaningfully reduce the probability of threat scenarios involving remote access
What is a risk practitioner's BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?
Create an asset valuation report.
Create key performance indicators (KPls).
Create key risk indicators (KRIs).
Create a risk volatility report.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the exposure to a given risk at a particular time. They can also provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level. By monitoring KRIs, risk practitioners can assess how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization and take appropriate actions.
References
•Risk management at the speed of business - PwC
•Risk velocity measures how fast an exposure can affect an organization | Business Insurance
An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:
identifying risk scenarios.
determining the risk strategy.
calculating impact and likelihood.
completing the controls catalog.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the risk register is a tool that records the results of risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment. The risk register should be populated as soon as possible in the risk management process, to capture and document the risks and their attributes. The best time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when identifying risk scenarios, as this is the first step in the risk identification process. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the potential causes, impacts, and responses of a risk event. Identifying risk scenarios helps to generate a comprehensive and relevant list of risks that can be recorded in the risk register. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 191, 206.
Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?
Level of residual risk
The results of a gap analysis
IT alignment to business objectives
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk management maturity level is the degree to which an organization has developed and implemented a systematic and proactive approach to managing the risks that it faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. Risk management maturity level reflects the organization’s risk culture and capability, and its alignment with its objectives and strategies1.
The best measurement of an organization’s risk management maturity level is the key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potential exposure and performance of the organization in relation to specific risks. KRIs can help to:
Monitor and track the changes or trends in the risk level and the risk response over time
Identify and alert the risk issues or events that require attention or action
Evaluate and report the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and practices
Support and inform the risk decision making and improvement23
KRIs can be classified into different types, such as:
Leading KRIs, which are forward-looking and predictive, and indicate the likelihood or probability of a risk event occurring in the future
Lagging KRIs, which are backward-looking and descriptive, and indicate the impact or consequence of a risk event that has already occurred
Quantitative KRIs, which are numerical or measurable, and indicate the magnitude or severity of a risk event or outcome
Qualitative KRIs, which are descriptive or subjective, and indicate the nature or characteristics of a risk event or outcome4
The other options are not the best measurements of an organization’s risk management maturity level, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Level of residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Level of residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, and the need for further action or monitoring. The results of a gap analysis are the differences between the current and the desired state of the risk management processes and practices. The results of a gap analysis reflect the completeness and coverage of the risk management activities, and the areas for improvement or enhancement. IT alignment to business objectives is the extent to which IT supports and enables the achievement of the organization’s goals and strategies. IT alignment to business objectives reflects the integration and coordination of the IT and business functions, and the optimization of the IT value and performance. References =
Risk Maturity Assessment Explained | Risk Maturity Model
Key Risk Indicators - ISACA
Key Risk Indicators: What They Are and How to Use Them
Key Risk Indicators: Types and Examples
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?
Corrective
Preventive
Detective
Deterrent
Warning banners on login screens serve as deterrent controls. Deterrent controls are designed to discourage individuals from attempting unauthorized actions by warning them of potential consequences.
Purpose of Warning Banners
Warning banners provide clear notice to users, both authorized and unauthorized, that their activities may be monitored and that unauthorized access is prohibited.
They serve as a legal disclaimer, which can be crucial in prosecuting unauthorized access attempts.
Effectiveness as a Deterrent Control
The primary function of a warning banner is to deter potential intruders by making them aware of the surveillance and legal implications of unauthorized access.
For authorized users, it reinforces awareness of the organization's security policies and acceptable use agreements.
Comparison with Other Control Types
A. Corrective: These controls are used to correct or restore systems after an incident.
B. Preventive: These controls are designed to prevent security incidents from occurring.
C. Detective: These controls are used to detect and alert about security incidents.
D. Deterrent: These controls are intended to discourage individuals from performing unauthorized activities.
References
Sybex-CISSP-Official-Study-Guide-9-Edition.pdf, p. 829, detailing the role of warning banners as deterrent controls.
While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.
Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.
Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.
Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.
The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses. It is a useful tool for monitoring and controlling the risks throughout the project lifecycle. However, the risk register is not a static document and it should be updated regularly to reflect the changes in the risk environment and the project status. Therefore, when reviewing therisk register, a risk practitioner should not only look at the risk ratings, but also the assumptions and the rationale behind them. Different business units may have different perspectives, contexts, and data sources for the same risk scenario, which can result in significant variances in inherent risk. Inherent risk is the risk level before considering the existing controls or responses. Therefore, the best course of action is to review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable or not. This can help to identify any errors, inconsistencies, or biases in the risk assessment process, and to ensure that the risk register reflects the current and accurate state of the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, p. 106-107
Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?
Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.
Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.
Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.
Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.
The most effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices is to scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory. An asset inventory is a document that records and tracks all the hardware and software assets that are owned, used, or managed by the organization, such as laptops, tablets, smartphones, servers, applications, etc. An asset inventory helps to identify and classify the assets based on their type, model, location, owner, status, etc. An asset inventory also helps to monitor and control the assets, such as enforcing security policies, applying patches and updates, detecting and resolving issues, etc. Scanningend points for applications not included in the asset inventory helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized software, because it helps to discover and remove any software that is not approved, authorized, or licensed by the organization, and that may pose security, legal, or operational risks, such as malware, spyware, pirated software, etc. The other options are not as effective as scanning end points for applications not included in the asset inventory, although they may provide some protection or compliance for the software assets. Prohibiting the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software, conducting frequent reviews of software licenses, and performing frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure are all examples of preventive or detective controls, which may help to prevent or deter the installation or use of unauthorized software, or to verify or validate the software assets, but they do not necessarily discover or remove the unauthorized software. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?
Verify authorization by senior management.
Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level
Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime
Update the risk response in the risk register.
The risk practitioner’s most important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance is to verify authorization by senior management. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and agreeing to bear the risk and its potential consequences. Risk tolerance is the acceptable or allowable level of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcomes or objectives. When the risk acceptance exceeds the risk tolerance, it means that the organization is taking on more risk than it can handle or afford. Therefore, the risk practitioner should verify that the risk acceptance is authorized by senior management, who have the authority and accountability for making risk management decisions and ensuring that they are aligned with the organizational strategy and objectives. The other options are not as important as verifying authorization by senior management, as they are related to the adjustments, conditions, or documentation of the risk acceptance, not the approval or validation of the risk acceptance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?
Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.
Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.
Revise the organization's risk and control policy.
Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.
The first course of action for the risk practitioner when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas is to identify any new business objectives with stakeholders. Business objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the organization aims to accomplish through its products and services. Stakeholders are the parties who have an interest or influence in the organization and its products and services, such as customers, employees, shareholders, suppliers, regulators, or competitors. Identifying any new business objectives with stakeholders is the first course of action, because it helps to understand and define the purpose, scope, and criteria of the new product areas, and to align them with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy. Identifying any new business objectives with stakeholders also helps to establish the expectations, needs, and requirements of the stakeholders, and to ensure their engagement and support for the new product areas. Identifying any newbusiness objectives with stakeholders is the basis for the subsequent risk management activities, such as identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and responding to the risks associated with the new product areas. The other options are not the first course of action, although they may be related or subsequent steps in the risk management process. Presenting a business case for new controls to stakeholders is a part of the risk response process, which involves selecting and executing the appropriate actions to reduce, avoid, share, or exploit the risks associated with the new product areas. Presenting a business case for new controls to stakeholders can help to justify and communicate the value and impact of the new controls, and to obtain the approval and resources for implementing them. However, this is not the first course of action, as it depends on the identification and prioritization of the business objectives and the risks. Revising the organization’s risk and control policy is a part of the risk governance process, which involves defining and updating the rules and guidelines for managing the risks and the controls associatedwith the new product areas. Revising the organization’s risk and control policy can help to ensure the consistency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to comply with the relevant laws and regulations. However, this is not the first course of action, as it follows the identification and assessment of the business objectives and the risks. Reviewing existing risk scenarios with stakeholders is a part of the risk monitoring and review process, which involves evaluating and improving the performance and outcomes of the risk management process for the new product areas. Reviewing existing risk scenarios with stakeholders can help to identify and address any changes or issues in the risk levels or the risk responses, and to provide feedback and learning for the risk management process. However, this is not the first course of action, as it requires the identification and analysis of the business objectives and the risks. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA, How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA, The Role of Executive Management in ERM - Corporate Compliance Insights
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?
Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed
Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle
Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources
Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information
The best way is toassess the loss impactif information is compromised. This aligns with ISACA’s risk management approach, which prioritizes the potential impact on business objectives and regulatory compliance when valuing information assets.
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Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?
Informing business process owners of the risk
Reviewing and updating the risk register
Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals
Implementing new control technologies
A risk factor is a condition or event that may increase the likelihood or impact of a risk, which is the effect of uncertainty on objectives1. An information systems review is a process that involves examining and evaluating the adequacy and effectiveness of the information systems and their related controls, policies, and procedures2. The purpose of an information systems review is to identify and report the risk factors that may affect the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and performance of the information systems and their outputs3. The best way to ensure that the risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed is to assign action items and deadlines to specific individuals, who are responsible and accountable for implementing the appropriate risk responses. A risk response is an action taken or plannedto mitigate or eliminate the risk, such as avoiding, transferring, reducing, or accepting the risk4. By assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals, the organization can ensure that the risk factors are properly and promptly addressed, and that the progress and results of the risk responses are monitored and reported5. Informing business process owners of the risk, reviewing and updating the risk register, and implementing new control technologies are not the best ways to ensure that the risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed, as they do not provide the same level of accountability and effectiveness as assigning action items anddeadlines to specific individuals. Informing business process owners of the risk is a process that involves communicating and sharing the risk information with the persons who have the authority and accountability for a business process that is supported or enabled by the information systems6. Informing business process owners of the risk can help to raise their awareness and understanding of the risk, but it does not ensure that they will take the necessary actions to address the risk. Reviewing and updating the risk register is a process that involves checking and verifying that the risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the risks and their related information, is current, complete, and consistent7. Reviewing and updating the risk register can help to reflect the changes and updates in the risk factors and their status, but it does not ensure that the risk factors are resolved or reduced. Implementing new control technologies is a process that involves introducing or applying new software or hardware that can help to prevent, detect, or correct the risk factors affecting the information systems8. Implementing new control technologies can help to improve the security and performance of the information systems, but it does not ensure that the risk factors are eliminated or mitigated. References = 1: Risk Factors - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: InformationSystems Audit and Control Association (ISACA) - ISACA3: Information Systems Audit: The Basics4: Risk Response Strategy and Contingency Plans - ProjectManagement.com5: Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1: Risk Response Options, pp. 113-115.6: [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] 7: Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana8: Technology Control Automation: Improving Efficiency, Reducing … - ISACA : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.]
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address an organization's need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?
Apply available security patches.
Schedule a penetration test.
Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)
Perform a vulnerability analysis.
The best recommendation to address an organization’s need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources is to perform a vulnerability analysis. A vulnerability analysis is a process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing the weaknesses or flaws in the systems that could be exploited by threats or risks. A vulnerability analysis helps to determine the level and nature of the exposure and impact of the systems, and to select and implement the appropriate security controls or mitigations. Performing a vulnerability analysis is the best recommendation, as it helps to optimize the use of the limited IT resources, by focusing on the most critical or significant vulnerabilities, and by applying the most effective or efficient security solutions.Performing a vulnerability analysis also helps to improve the security posture and performance of the systems, and to reduce the likelihood and consequences of security incidents or breaches. Applying available security patches, scheduling a penetration test, and conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) are not the best recommendations, as they are either the outputs or the inputs of the vulnerability analysis process, and they do not address the primary need of securing the systems with limited IT resources. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.
The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure
The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract
The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract
The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services
The risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient. In this case, the risk owner is also the owner of the business service that depends on the managed hosting service. Therefore, the risk owner should be notified of the new information about the flood risk first, as they have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The risk owner can then decide on the appropriate actions to take, such as reviewing the contract terms, requesting additional controls, or changing the service provider. The other options are not the correct answers because they are not the primary stakeholders of the risk and its consequences. The data center manager is an employee of the managed hosting service provider, not the organization that procured the service. The data center manager may not have the authority or the incentive to address the flood risk or inform the organization. The site manager is also an employee of the managed hosting service provider, and their role is to conduct annual risk assessments under the contract. The site manager may not be aware of the new information or have the responsibility to communicate it to the organization. The CIO is the senior executive who oversees the IT strategy and operations of the organization. The CIO may have a general interest in the managed hosting service and its risks, but they are not the direct owner or managerof the specific risk or the business service that relies on the service. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 702
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action if a risk assessment identifies a risk that is extremely unlikely but would have a severe impact should it occur?
Rate the risk as high priority based on the severe impact.
Obtain management's consent to accept the risk.
Ignore the risk due to the extremely low likelihood.
Address the risk by analyzing treatment options.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in developing key risk indicator (KRl) thresholds?
Loss expectancy information
Control performance predictions
IT service level agreements (SLAs)
Remediation activity progress
Key risk indicator (KRI): A metric that measures the level of risk exposure or the likelihood of a risk event1.
KRI threshold: A predefined value or range that triggers an alert or action when the KRI reaches or exceeds it2.
Loss expectancy: The estimated amount of loss that an organization may incur due to a risk event3.
The most helpful thing in developing KRI thresholds is loss expectancy information. Loss expectancy information provides an estimate of the potential or expected impact of a risk event on the organization’s operations, reputation, or objectives. Loss expectancy information can help an organization to:
Quantify and prioritize the risks that pose the greatest threat to the organization
Determine the acceptable level of risk exposure or tolerance for each risk
Set the appropriate value or range for the KRI threshold that reflects the risk appetite and the risk mitigation strategy
Monitor and measure the performance and effectiveness of the risk management process and controls
Loss expectancy information can be derived from various sources, such as historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or simulation models3.
The other options are not as helpful as loss expectancy information in developing KRI thresholds, because they do not directly address the potential or expected impact of a risk event.Control performance predictions, which are the forecasts or estimates of how well the risk management controls will perform in preventing, detecting, or mitigating risks, may help to evaluate the adequacy and efficiency of the risk management process and controls, but they do not provide a clear and quantifiable measure of the risk impact. IT service level agreements (SLAs), which are the contracts or agreements that define the quality and availability of IT services, may help to establish the standards and expectations for IT service delivery and performance, but they do not provide a comprehensive and current view of the risk exposure or likelihood. Remediation activity progress, which is the status or outcome of the actions taken to address and resolve a risk event, may help to monitor and report the effectiveness and compliance of the risk management process and controls, but it is usually done after the risk event has occurred and resolved, not before.
References = Key Risk Indicators: Definition, Examples, and Best Practices, KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva, Loss Expectancy: Definition, Calculation, and Examples
An organization's risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?
Analyzing the residual risk components
Performing risk prioritization
Validating the risk appetite level
Conducting a risk assessment
Performing risk prioritization would best help to improve the risk register, which is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses1. Risk prioritization is the process of ranking the risks according to their significance and urgency, based on their probability and impact2. By performing risk prioritization, the organization can:
Reduce the complexity and volume of the risk register, and focus on the most important and relevant risks that require immediate attention and action3.
Enhance the communication and understanding of the risks among the senior management and other stakeholders, and facilitate the decision-making and resource allocation for the risk responses4.
Improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and ensure that the risk register is aligned with the organization’s risk strategy, objectives, and appetite5.
The other options are not the best ways to improve the risk register, because:
Analyzing the residual risk components is not the best way, as it may not address the issue of the large volume of risk scenarios. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses6. Analyzing the residual risk components can help to measure the exposure or uncertainty of the assets, and to determine the need and extent of the risk responses. However, it may not reduce the complexity or volume of the risk register, as it may add more information or data to the risk register.
Validating the risk appetite level is not the best way, as it may not address the issue of the overwhelming risk scenarios. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives7. Validating the risk appetite levelcan help to ensure that the risk register is consistent and proportional to the risk level, and that the risk responses are suitable and feasible. However, it may not reduce the complexity or volume of the risk register, as it may require more information or data to validate the risk appetite level.
Conducting a risk assessment is not the best way, as it may not address the issue of the existing risk scenarios. Risk assessment is the process of estimating the probability and impact of the risks, and prioritizing the risks based on their significance and urgency. Conducting a risk assessment can help to identify and analyze new or emerging risks, and to update or revise the risk register accordingly. However, it may not reduce the complexity or volume of the risk register, as it may introduce more information or data to the risk register.
References =
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Prioritization - CIO Wiki
Risk Prioritization: A Guide for Project Managers - ProjectManager.com
Risk Prioritization: How to Prioritize Risks in Project Management - Clarizen
Risk Prioritization: A Key Step in Risk Management - ISACA
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?
Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.
Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.
Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.
Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.
Requesting a formal risk acceptance sign-off is the most likely scenario when the residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated, because it indicates that the organization is willing to tolerate a higher level of risk than it normally would, and that the risk owner has the authority and accountability to accept the risk and its consequences. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the existence ofa risk and deciding not to take any action to reduce it. Risk acceptance is usually chosen when the cost or effort of mitigating therisk outweighs the potential benefits, or when no feasible mitigation options are available. Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls or mitigating factors. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Inherent risk, cancellation of an initiative, change of risk appetite, and constant residual risk are all possible scenarios that may affect the risk management process, but they are not the most likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off, as they do not necessarily involve a risk owner accepting a higher level of risk than the organization’s risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 103
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?
Completeness of system documentation
Results of end user acceptance testing
Variances between planned and actual cost
availability of in-house resources
End user acceptance testing is a process that verifies that a system or service meets the requirements and expectations of the end users, who are the actual or potential customers or beneficiaries of the system or service. End user acceptance testing is the final stage of testing before the system or service is deployed or released to the production environment. The results of end user acceptance testing are the most important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation, as they indicate the quality, functionality, usability, and reliability of the system or service from the end user perspective. The results of end user acceptance testing can help to identify and resolve any defects, errors, or issues that may affect the performance, satisfaction, or acceptance of the system or service by the end users. The results of end user acceptance testing can also help to evaluate the benefits, value, and risks of the system or service for the end users and the organization. The other options are not the most important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation, although they may be relevant and useful. The completeness of system documentation is a factor that affects the maintainability, supportability, and auditability of the system or service, but it does not measure the end user experience or satisfaction. The variances between planned and actual cost is a measure of the efficiency and budget management of the system or service development or implementation, but it does not reflect the end user needs or expectations. The availability of in-house resources is a resource that supports the system or service delivery and operation, but it does not ensure the end user acceptance or approval. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 180-1811; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 87
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?
Risk action plans are approved by senior management.
Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite
Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.
Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register
An effective risk management program is a systematic and consistent process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and communicating risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives12.
The best indication of an effective risk management program is that the residual risk, which is the risk remaining after risk treatment, is within the organizational risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives12.
This indicates that the organization has successfully implemented appropriate risk responses that align with its risk strategy and criteria, and that the organization is able to balance the potential benefits and costs of taking risks12.
The other options are not the best indication, but rather components or outcomes of an effective risk management program. For example:
Risk action plans are approved by senior management is an outcome of an effective risk management program that demonstrates the commitment and accountability of the leadership for risk management12.
Mitigating controls are designed and implemented is a component of an effective risk management program that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk event12.
Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register is a component of an effective risk management program that involves documenting and updating the risk information and status12. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Which of the following will be MOST effective in uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions?
Digital signature
Edit checks
Encryption
Multifactor authentication
The most effective method for uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions is a digital signature. A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, to authenticate the identity and integrity of the sender and the message. A digital signature is created by applying the sender’s private key to a hash of the message, and is verified by applying the sender’s public key to the signature and comparing it with the hash ofthe message. A digital signature ensures that the sender cannot deny sending the message (non-repudiation), and that the message has not been altered or tampered with during transmission (data integrity). References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3, page 1301
Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?
Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls
Considering risk that can be shared with a third party
Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios
Risk appetite is the broad-based amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in its activities. Risk appetite reflects the level of risk that the organization is prepared to take to achieve its strategic goals, and provides guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. The best way to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk is to prioritize and address risk in line with risk appetite, which means that the organization should identify, assess, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that are within or exceed the risk appetite, and allocate the resources and efforts accordingly. By doing so, the organization can optimize its risk-return trade-off, align its risk exposure with its strategic objectives, and enhance its risk culture and performance. References = 5
An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?
Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
Data anonymization
Data cleansing
Data encryption
Data anonymization is the most important control to ensure the privacy of customer information when participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis. Data anonymization is the process of removing or modifying personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc., so that the data cannot be traced back to specific individuals.Data anonymization protects the confidentiality and privacy of customers, while still allowing for meaningful analysis and comparison of data. Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs), data cleansing, and data encryption are also useful controls, but they do not eliminate the risk of data breaches or unauthorized access to PII. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?
impact due to failure of control
Frequency of failure of control
Contingency plan for residual risk
Cost-benefit analysis of automation
Automation of control monitoring is the application of technology to allow continuous or high-frequency, automated monitoring of controls to validate the effectiveness of controls designed to mitigate risk1.
Automation of control monitoring can provide benefits such as increased test coverage, improved timeliness, reduced risk velocity, greater visibility, improved consistency, and the ability to identify trends23.
However, automation of control monitoring also involves costs such as the acquisition, implementation, maintenance, and updating of the technology, as well as the training and support of the staff who use it45.
Therefore, the primary consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring is the cost-benefit analysis of automation, which compares the expected benefits and costs of automation and determines whether the benefits outweigh the costs or vice versa45.
The other options are not the primary consideration, but rather secondary or tertiary factors that may influence the decision to automate or not. For example, the impact due to failure of controland the frequency of failure of control are aspects of the risk assessment that may indicatethe need for automation, but they do not provide the basis for evaluating the feasibility and desirability of automation45. Similarly, the contingency plan for residual risk is a component of the risk response that may include automation as a risk mitigation strategy, but it does not measure the effectiveness and efficiency of automation45. References =
2: A Practical Approach to Continuous Control Monitoring, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2015
3: Continuous Controls Monitoring: The Next Generation Of Controls Testing, Forbes Technology Council, June 2, 2022
1: Making Continuous Controls Monitoring Work for Everyone, ISACA Now Blog, June 13, 2022
4: Controls Automation - Monitoring vs. Operation - Part 3, Turnkey Consulting, July 29, 2021
5: What’s Continuous Control Monitoring and Why Is It Important?, MetricStream Blog, October 15, 2019
What is the PRIMARY reason an organization should include background checks on roles with elevated access to production as part of its hiring process?
Reduce internal threats
Reduce exposure to vulnerabilities
Eliminate risk associated with personnel
Ensure new hires have the required skills
The primary reason an organization should include background checks on roles with elevated access to production as part of its hiring process is to reduce internal threats. Internal threats are the risks that originate from within the organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners. Roles with elevated access to production have the privilege and ability to access, modify, or delete sensitive or critical data and systems. If these roles are assigned to individuals who have malicious intent, criminal records, or conflicts of interest, they may pose a significant threat to the organization’s security, integrity, and availability. By conducting background checks, the organization can verify the identity, credentials, and history of the candidates, and prevent or minimize the possibility of hiring untrustworthy or unsuitable individuals. The other options are not as important as reducing internal threats, as they are related to the outcomes, impacts, or requirements of the roles with elevated access to production, not the reasons for conducting background checks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:
better understands the system architecture.
is more objective than risk management.
can balance technical and business risk.
can make better-informed business decisions.
Involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is beneficial, as it enables management to have a comprehensive and holistic view of the risk environment and its impact on the organization’s objectives and strategy. By participating in the risk management process, management can make better-informed business decisions, as they can consider the risk factors and implications of their choices, and align their decisions with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Involving business management in evaluating and managing risk can also enhance the risk culture and governance of the organization, and foster a proactive and collaborative approach to risk management. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 253. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 253. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:
business process owners.
representative data sets.
industry benchmark data.
data automation systems.
Building Key Risk Indicators (KRIs):
KRIs are metrics used to provide an early signal of increasing risk exposure in various areas of an organization.
Importance of Representative Data Sets:
To ensure KRIs are accurate and meaningful, it is critical that the data used is representative of the entire population or relevant subset of activities being monitored.
Representative data ensures that the KRIs reflect the true state of risk and are not biased or incomplete.
Impact on KRIs:
Using representative data sets improves the reliability and validity of KRIs, enabling better risk detection and management.
It ensures that the KRIs provide a realistic view of potential risk trends and patterns.
Comparing Other Data Sources:
Business Process Owners:While they provide valuable insights, data from them alone may not be representative.
Industry Benchmark Data:Useful for comparisons but not specific to the organization’s unique context.
Data Automation Systems:Helpful for efficiency but must ensure the data is representative.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of using representative data to build effective KRIs (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.11 Data Collection Aggregation Analysis and Validation) .
Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?
Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives
Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review
Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk
Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate
The most important outcome of reviewing the risk management process is assuring that the risk profile supports the IT objectives, because this ensures that the organization is managing its IT-related risks in alignment with its business goals and priorities. The risk profile is a summary of the key risks that the organization faces, their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. The IT objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the organization expects to achieve from its IT investments and activities. Byreviewing the risk management process, the organization can evaluate whether the risk profile is accurate, complete, and up-to-date, and whether the risk responses are effective, efficient, and consistent with the IT objectives. The review can also identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and provide recommendations for enhancing the process and its outcomes. The review can also help to communicate and report the value and performance of the risk management process to the senior management, the board of directors, and other stakeholders. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 17
Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?
Business impact analysis
Threat analysis
Risk response analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), threat analysis would be the most helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events, as it involves identifying and evaluating the sources and causes of potential harm or loss to the IT assets and processes. Threat analysis helps to:
Determine the frequency and probability of occurrence of different types of threats, such as natural disasters, human errors, malicious attacks, system failures, etc.
Assess the impact and severity of the threats on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the IT assets and processes
Prioritize the threats based on their likelihood and impact
Develop appropriate risk response strategies to prevent, mitigate, transfer or accept the threats
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 35-361
Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?
Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs
Analyzing server logs
Using a third-party monitoring provider
Coordinating events with appropriate agencies
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a network security tool that monitors and analyzes network traffic for signs of malicious or suspicious activity, such as unauthorized access, data exfiltration, malware infection, or denial-of-service attack. An IDS can detect and alert the organization to potential threats based on predefined rules or signatures, or based on anomalies or deviations from normal network behavior. An IDS can also generate logs that record the details of the network events and incidents, such as the source, destination, content, and context of the network traffic. By analyzing the IDS logs, the organization can identify and validate the suspicious network activity, and determine its scope, impact, and root cause. The organization can also use the IDS logs to support the incident response and remediation process, and to improve the network security and resilience. The other options are less effective ways to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified. Analyzing server logs can provide some information about the network activity, but it may not be sufficient or timely to detect and validate the suspicious or malicious activity, as server logs only capture the events or activities that occur on the server, and not on the entire network. Using a third-party monitoring provider can help to outsource the network monitoring and analysis function, but it may not be the best option, as it may introduce additional risks, such as data privacy, vendor reliability, or service quality issues. Coordinating events with appropriate agencies can help to share information and resources with other organizations or authorities, such as law enforcement, regulators, or industry peers, but it may not be the best option, as it may depend on the availability andcooperation of theagencies, and it may not be feasible or desirable to disclose the network activity to external parties. References = Monitoring for Suspicious Network Activity: Key Tips to Secure Your Network 1
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?
The number of security incidents escalated to senior management
The number of resolved security incidents
The number of newly identified security incidents
The number of recurring security incidents
A security incident handling process is a set of procedures and activities that aim to identify, analyze, contain, eradicate, recover from, and learn from security incidents that affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information assets12.
The maturity of a security incident handling process is the degree to which the process is defined, managed, measured, controlled, and improved, and the extent to which it meets the organization’s objectives and expectations34.
The best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of a security incident handling process is the number of recurring security incidents, which is the frequency or rate of security incidents that are repeated or reoccur after being resolved or closed56.
The number of recurring security incidents is the best KPI because it reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the security incident handling process, and the ability of the process to prevent or reduce the recurrence of security incidents through root cause analysis, corrective actions, and continuous improvement56.
The number of recurring security incidents is also the best KPI because it is directly related to the organization’s objectives and expectations, such as minimizing the impact and cost of security incidents, enhancing the security posture and resilience of the organization, and complying with the relevant standards and regulations56.
The other options are not the best KPIs, but rather possible metrics that may support or complement the measurement of the maturity of the security incident handling process. For example:
The number of security incidents escalated to senior management is a metric that indicates the severity or complexity of security incidents, and the involvement or awareness of the seniormanagement in the security incident handling process56. However, this metric doesnot measure the effectiveness or efficiency of the process, or the ability of the process to prevent or reduce security incidents56.
The number of resolved security incidents is a metric that indicates the output or outcome of the security incident handling process, and the performance or productivity of the security incident handling team56. However, this metric does not measure the quality or sustainability of the resolution, or the ability of the process to prevent or reduce security incidents56.
The number of newly identified security incidents is a metric that indicates the input or demand of the security incident handling process, and the capability or capacity of the security incident detection and identification mechanisms56. However, this metric does not measure the effectiveness or efficiency of the process, or the ability of the process to prevent or reduce security incidents56. References =
1: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, NIST Special Publication 800-61, Revision 2, August 2012
2: ISO/IEC 27035:2016 Information technology — Security techniques — Information security incident management
3: Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) for Services, Version 1.3, November 2010
4: COBIT 2019 Framework: Introduction and Methodology, ISACA, 2018
5: KPIs for Security Operations & Incident Response, SecurityScorecard Blog, June 7, 2021
6: Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Security Operations and Incident Response, DFLabs White Paper, 2018
Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?
Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Inherent risk
Risk likelihood and impact
Risk velocity
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds are the most likely elements of a risk register to change as a result of change in management’s risk appetite, as they reflect the acceptable levels of risk exposure for the organization. KRIthresholds are the values or ranges that trigger an alert or a response when the actual KRI values deviate from the expected or desired values. KRI thresholds help to:
Monitor and measure the current risk levels and performance of the IT assets and processes
Identify and report any risk issues or incidents that may require attention or action
Evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response actions and controls
Align the risk management activities and decisions with the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance
If the management’s risk appetite changes, the KRI thresholds may need to be adjusted accordingly to ensure that the risk register reflects the current risk preferences and expectations of the organization.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 217-2181
After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?
A decrease in threats
A change in the risk profile
An increase in reported vulnerabilities
An increase in identified risk scenarios
A change in the risk profile would be the most important information to communicate to stakeholders after an annual risk assessment is completed, as it indicates how the risk landscape of the organization has changed over time, and how it affects the achievement of the business goals and objectives. A decrease in threats, an increase in reported vulnerabilities, and an increase in identified risk scenarios are also important information, but they are not the most important, as they are specific aspects of the risk profile, and do not provide a holistic view of the risk exposure and appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for monitoring control effectiveness?
Conduct control self-assessments (CSAs)
Review system performance logs
Compare controls to business metrics
Perform independent periodic control testing
Control Self-Assessments (CSAs)provide an efficient way for process owners and staff to assess control effectiveness continuously. ISACA recognizes CSAs as a proactive approach that encourages accountability and early detection of control weaknesses, reducing the need for frequent external testing.
===========
Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?
Risk practitioner
Risk owner
Control owner
Control implementer
Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?
Variances between organizational risk appetites
Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios
Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems
Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols
The greatest challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations is the variances between organizational risk appetites, as they may indicate a significant difference in the risk culture, strategy, and objectives of the two organizations, and may require a complex and lengthy process of alignment and integration. Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios, disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems, and dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols are not the greatest challenges, as they are more related to the technical, operational, or procedural aspects of risk management, rather than the strategicor cultural aspects of risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
A threat intelligence team has identified an indicator of compromise related to an advanced persistent threat (APT) actor. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Review the most recent vulnerability scanning report.
Determine the business criticality of the asset.
Determine the adequacy of existing security controls.
Review prior security incidents related to the asset.
Upon identification of an indicator of compromise (IoC) associated with an APT actor, the risk practitioner's best course of action is to assess the adequacy of existing security controls. This involves evaluating whether current defenses are sufficient to detect, prevent, and respond tosuch sophisticated threats. Ensuring control effectiveness is vital to mitigating the risk posed by APTs.CISA
Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:
business process owner.
database administrator.
chief information officer.
systems administrator.
Read rights: The permission to view or access the content of a file or a folder1.
Application files: The files that contain the code, data, or resources of an application or a program2.
Controlled server environment: A server environment that is managed and secured by a set of policies, procedures, and tools3.
Business process owner: The person who is responsible for the design, execution, and performance of a business process.
Read rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the business process owner. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the business process that uses or depends on the application files. The businessprocess owner should approve the read rights to application files in a controlled server environment to:
Ensure that the read rights are aligned with the business needs and objectives
Prevent unauthorized or unnecessary access to the application files
Protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the application files
Comply with the relevant laws and regulations that govern the access to the application files
The other options are not the best choices for approving the read rights to application files in a controlled server environment, because they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, or knowledge as the business process owner. The database administrator, who is the person who manages and maintains the database systems and data, may have the technical skills and access to grant the read rights to application files, but they may not have the business insight or approval to do so. The chief information officer, who is the person who oversees the IT strategy and operations of the organization, may have the executive power and oversight to approve the read rights to application files, but they may not have the specific or detailed knowledge of the business process or the application files. The systems administrator, who is the person who configures and maintains the server systems and networks, may have the administrative privileges and tools to grant the read rights to application files, but they may not have the business understanding or authorization to do so.
References = Read Permission - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, What is an Application File? - Definition from Techopedia, What is a Server Environment? - Definition from Techopedia, [Business Process Owner: Definition, Roles, and Responsibilities]
Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?
Multi-factor authentication
Role-based access controls
Activation of control audits
Acceptable use policies
Role-based access controls (RBAC) are a type of preventive control that limit the access and actions of users based on their roles and responsibilities within the organization. RBAC can help to address the risk of malicious outsiders modifying application data by restricting their access to the data and the functions they can perform on it. RBAC can also enforce the principle of least privilege, which means that users only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. RBAC can be implemented through policies, procedures, and technical mechanisms such as access control lists, encryption, and authentication. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, p. 178-179
Who is accountable for the process when an IT stakeholder operates a key
control to address a risk scenario?
Risk owner
IT manager
System owner
Data custodian
Which of the following is MOST essential for an effective change control environment?
Business management approval of change requests
Separation of development and production environments
Requirement of an implementation rollback plan
IT management review of implemented changes
The most essential factor for an effective change control environment is the separation of development and production environments. This ensures that changes are tested and verified in a controlled environment before being implemented in the live environment, reducing the risk of errors, failures, and unauthorized modifications. Business management approval of change requests, requirement of an implementation rollback plan, and IT management review of implemented changes are important elements of change control, but they are not as essential as the separation of environments. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1.2, page 123.
A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?
A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.
A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.
Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.
Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.
Independent Assessment:
Objective Evaluation: An assessment by a qualified independent party ensures that the evaluation of the new controls is unbiased and thorough. It provides a credible verification of the control's effectiveness.
Expertise and Standards: Independent assessors bring specialized expertise and follow established standards and best practices, ensuring a comprehensive review of the control implementation.
Validation and Assurance: This assessment provides assurance to stakeholders that the controls are functioning as intended and meet the required security and operational standards.
Comparison with Other Options:
Post-Implementation Review by Key Personnel: While valuable, this review may lack the objectivity and thoroughness of an independent assessment.
Senior Management Sign-Off: Sign-off from senior management is important but does not provide the detailed validation of control effectiveness that an independent assessment offers.
Daily Operation of Robots without Human Interference: This indicates operational stability but does not verify that all controls are functioning as intended.
Best Practices:
Regular Independent Assessments: Schedule regular independent assessments to continuously validate the effectiveness of controls.
Comprehensive Reporting: Ensure that the independent assessment includes comprehensive reporting on findings and recommendations for improvement.
Follow-Up Actions: Implement any recommended actions from the assessment to address identified gaps or weaknesses in the controls.
Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?
Some critical business applications are not included in the plan
Several recovery activities will be outsourced
The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework
The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan
The most concerning issue found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) is that some critical business applications are not included in the plan. This means that the DRP is incomplete and does not cover all the essential IT systems and services that support the business continuity. This could result in significant losses and damages in the event of a disaster. The other issues are not as critical, as they can be addressed by ensuring proper contracts, standards, and approvals are in place for the outsourced activities, the framework, and the CISO. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following activities is PRIMARILY the responsibility of senior management?
Bottom-up identification of emerging risks
Categorization of risk scenarios against a standard taxonomy
Prioritization of risk scenarios based on severity
Review of external loss data
The primary responsibility of senior management in risk management is to prioritize the risk scenarios based on severity. Risk scenarios are hypothetical events or situations that could affect the achievement of the objectives. Risk severity is a measure of the overall level of risk, based on the combination of the probability and impact of the risk scenario. Prioritizing the risk scenarios based on severity is the primary responsibility of senior management, because it helps to allocate the resources and actions to the most critical and urgent risks, and to align the risk management process with the organizational strategy and risk appetite. Senior management also has the authority and accountability to make the final decisions and approve the risk response plans for the prioritized risks. The other options are not the primary responsibility of senior management, although they may be involved or consulted in these activities. Bottom-up identification of emerging risks is a process of identifying and reporting the new or changing risks that may arise from the operational or tactical level of the organization. This is usually the responsibility of the risk owners or the risk practitioners, who have the knowledge and experience of the specific functions and processes. Categorization of risk scenarios against a standard taxonomy is a process of classifying and organizing the risk scenarios into predefined categories or groups, based on their nature, source, or impact. This is usually the responsibility of the risk analysts or the risk coordinators, who have the skills and tools to perform the risk analysis and assessment. Review of external loss data is a process of collecting and analyzing the data and information on the losses or incidents that occurred in other organizations or industries, due to similar or related risks. This is usually the responsibility of the risk researchers or the risk consultants, who have the access and expertise to obtain and interpret the external data and information. References = The Role of Executive Management in ERM - Corporate Compliance Insights, Guidelines on Risk Management Practices – Board and Senior Management, Risk Manager Job Description [+2023 TEMPLATE] - Workable
An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?
Percentage of standard supplier uptime
Average time to respond to incidents
Number of assets included in recovery processes
Number of key applications hosted
When moving critical assets to the cloud, the most important KPI to include in the SLA is the percentage of standard supplier uptime, which measures the availability and reliability of the cloud service provider. This KPI indicates how often the cloud service is operational and accessible, and how well it meets the agreed service level objectives. A high percentage of standard supplier uptime means that the cloud service provider can deliver the expected performance and functionality of the critical assets, and minimize the risk of service disruptions, downtime, or data loss. The percentage of standard supplier uptime should be aligned with the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery requirements, and should be monitored and reported regularly by the cloud service provider. The SLA should also specify the compensation or remediation actions in case of any breach of the agreed percentage of standard supplier uptime.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of privacy impact assessments (PIAs)?
To identify threats introduced by business processes
To identify risk when personal information is collected
To ensure senior management has approved the use of personal information
To ensure compliance with data privacy laws and regulations
An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?
The risk practitioner
The risk owner
The control owner
The audit manager
A control is a measure or action that is implemented to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk event, or to enhance the benefits or opportunities of a risk event. A control owner is a person who is assigned the responsibility and authority for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of a control. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the information about the identified risks, such as the risk description, category, owner, probability, impact, response strategy, status, and action plan. When an information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control, the person who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly is the control owner. The control owner should update the risk register with the information about the failed control, such as the cause, consequence, status, and action plan. The control owner should also monitor the performance and compliance of the control, and recommend any improvements or adjustments as needed.
Which of the following BEST enables the identification of trends in risk levels?
Correlation between risk levels and key risk indicators (KRIs) is positive.
Measurements for key risk indicators (KRIs) are repeatable
Quantitative measurements are used for key risk indicators (KRIs).
Qualitative definitions for key risk indicators (KRIs) are used.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potential exposure and performance of an organization in relation to specific risks. KRIs can help to monitor and track the changes or trends in the risk level and the risk response over time, identify and alert the risk issues or events that require attention or action, evaluate and report the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and practices, and support and inform the risk decision making and improvement1.
The best way to enable the identification of trends in risk levels is to ensure that the correlation between risk levels and KRIs is positive, because it means that the KRIs are aligned with andreflective of the risk levels, and that they can capture and indicate the variations or movements in the risk levels accurately and reliably. A positive correlation between risk levels and KRIs can be achieved by:
Selecting and defining the KRIs that are relevant and appropriate for the specific risks that the organization faces, and that are consistent and comparable across different domains and contexts
Collecting and analyzing the data and information that are reliable and sufficient for the KRIs, and that are sourced from various methods and sources, such as risk assessments, audits, monitoring, alerts, or incidents
Applying and using the tools and techniques that are suitable and feasible for the KRIs, such as risk matrices, risk registers, risk indicators, or risk models
Reviewing and updating the KRIs periodically or as needed, and ensuring that they reflect the current or accurate risk levels, which may change over time or due to external factors23
The other options are not the best ways to enable the identification of trends in risk levels, but rather some of the factors or aspects of KRIs. Measurements for KRIs are repeatable is a factor that can enhance the reliability and validity of the KRIs, as it means that the KRIs can produce the same or similar results under the same or similar conditions. However, repeatability does not necessarily imply accuracy or sensitivity, and it may not capture or reflect the changes or trends in the risk levels. Quantitative measurements are used for KRIs is an aspect that can improve the objectivity and precision of the KRIs, as it means that the KRIs are expressed in numerical or measurable values, such as percentages, probabilities, or monetary amounts. However, quantitative measurements may not be suitable or feasible for all types of risks or KRIs, and they may not capture or reflect the complexity or uncertainty of the risk levels. Qualitative definitions for KRIs are used is an aspect that can enhance the understanding and communication of the KRIs, as it means that the KRIs are expressed in descriptive or subjective terms, such as high, medium, or low, based on criteria such as likelihood, impact, or severity. However, qualitative definitions may not be consistent or comparable across different risks or KRIs, and they may not capture or reflect the magnitude or variation of the risk levels. References =
Key Risk Indicators: What They Are and How to Use Them
Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture
Key Risk Indicators: Types and Examples
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control
The individual responsible for control operation
The individual informed of the control effectiveness
The individual responsible for resting the control
The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness
A control is a measure or action that is implemented to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk event, or to enhance the benefits or opportunities of a risk event. A control owner is a person who is assigned the responsibility and authority for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of a control. The most appropriate person to be assigned ownership of a control is the individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness, which is the process of measuring and evaluating the performance and compliance of the control. By assigning the control ownership to the individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness, the organization can ensure that the control is aligned with the risk objectives, operates as intended, and delivers the expected results. References = 4
Which of the following is MOST important when considering risk in an enterprise risk management (ERM) process?
Financial risk is given a higher priority.
Risk with strategic impact is included.
Security strategy is given a higher priority.
Risk identified by industry benchmarking is included.
According to the ISACA CRISC Review Manual, an enterprise risk management (ERM) process is a holistic approach to identifying, analyzing, responding to, and monitoring all types of risk that affect the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives. The ERM process should consider all types of risk, including strategic, operational, financial, compliance, and reputational risks. Among these, strategic risks are the most important, as they have the potential to affect the enterprise’s mission, vision, and goals. Therefore, risk with strategic impact should be includedin the ERM process. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 17.
An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.
Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.
Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.
Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.
The risk practitioner’s first course of action when an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls should be A. Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite1
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk culture, strategy, and values2
When an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls, it means that the controls are not providing the expected level of protection or assurance for the information assets or processes. This may result in increased exposure or vulnerability to threats, or reduced ability to achieve objectives. Therefore, the risk practitioner should first determine whether the impact of the ineffective controls is outside the risk appetite, as this would indicate the need for urgent action or escalation3
The other options are not the first course of action when an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls, because:
•B. Requesting a formal acceptance of risk from senior management may be appropriate if the impact of the ineffective controls is within the risk appetite, and the organization decides to accept the risk as it is. However, this should not be the first course of action, as it may not address the root cause of the ineffective controls, or the potential consequences or opportunities for improvement4
•C. Reporting the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report may be part of the risk communication and reporting process, but it should not be the first course of action, as it may delay the resolution or mitigation of the issue, or the implementation of corrective actions. Moreover, the next audit report may not be timely or relevant for the decision-makers or stakeholders who need to be informed of the ineffective controls5
•D. Deploying a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies may be a possible risk response option, but it should not be the first course of action, as it may require further analysis, evaluation, and approval. Moreover, deploying a compensating control may not be the most effective or efficient solution, as it may introduce additional complexity, cost, or risk.
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100003 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 28 3: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 223 4: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 224 5: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 225 : CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 226
Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?
Implementing control activities
Monitoring control effectiveness
Conducting control self-assessments
Owning risk scenarios
The second line of defense is a group of functions that provide oversight, guidance, and monitoring of the risk management activities of the first line of defense. The second line of defense includes risk management, compliance, and internal control departments. Their key responsibility is to monitor the effectiveness of the control activities implemented by the first line of defense, and to report any issues or gaps to senior management and the board. The second line of defense also supports the first line of defense by providing frameworks, policies, tools,and techniques to identify, measure, and manage risks. The other options are not the key responsibility of the second line of defense, as explained below:
A. Implementing control activities is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which consists of the business units and process owners that own and manage the risks associated with their daily operations.
C. Conducting control self-assessments is a technique used by the first line of defense to evaluate the design and operation of their own controls, and to identify and report any deficiencies or improvement opportunities.
D. Owning risk scenarios is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which is accountable for the risks inherent in their business activities, and for developing and executing risk response strategies. References = Modernizing The Three Lines of Defense Model | Deloitte US, The second line of defence: fit for purpose, not an uncomfortable fit | Knowledge | Linklaters, COSO’s Take on the Three Lines of Defense | ERM - Enterprise Risk Management, Three Lines of Defense | Risk Management - Schneider Downs CPAs, What is the Three Lines of Defense Approach to Risk Management?
Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?
SWOT analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Cost-benefit analysis
Root cause analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA) is the most useful analysis for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets, because it evaluates the potential consequences of disruption tocritical business functions and processes. BIA helps to identify the most significant risks and the most urgent recovery needs. SWOT analysis, cost-benefit analysis, and root cause analysis are all useful tools for different purposes, but they do not directly address the impact of risk scenarios on business continuity and resilience. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 143
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?
Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process
Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives
Number of current test plans and procedures
Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test
The best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes is the percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives. Recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time period within which a business process or an IT service must be restored after a disruption. Recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time before the disruption. The percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO indicates how well the disaster recovery test meets the business continuity and recoveryrequirements and expectations, and how effectively the disaster recovery plan and procedures are executed. The percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO canalso help to identify the gaps, weaknesses, and opportunities for improvement in the disaster recovery capabilities. Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process, number of current test plans and procedures, and number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test are not as good as the percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO, as they do not directly measure the achievement of the recovery objectives, and may not reflect the actual impact and performance of the disaster recovery test. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
An organization becomes aware that IT security failed to detect a coordinated
cyber attack on its data center. Which of the following is the BEST course of
action?
Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).
Identify compensating controls
Conduct a root cause analysis.
Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds.
A risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:
update the risk rating.
reevaluate inherent risk.
develop new risk scenarios.
implement additional controls.
The most important action for the risk practitioner to take when a risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario is to update the risk rating. A risk rating is a measure of the overall level of risk, based on the combination of the probability and impact of the risk scenario. A risk rating helps to prioritize the risks, communicate the risk exposure, and monitor the risk response. Updating the risk rating is the most important action, because it reflects the current state and magnitude of the risk, and it triggers the review and revision of the risk response plan, if needed. Updating the risk rating also ensures that the risk register and the risk profile are accurate and complete, and that the risk management process is consistent and effective. The other options are not the most important action, although they may be related or subsequent steps in the risk management process. Reevaluating inherent risk is a part of the risk analysis process, which estimates the probability and impact of the risk scenario before considering the existing controls. Reevaluating inherent risk can help to identify the root causes and drivers of the risk, and to assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, but it does not change the overall level of risk or the risk response plan. Developing new risk scenarios is a part of the risk identification process, which identifies and describes the potential events or situations that could affect the achievement of the objectives. Developing new risk scenarios can help to expand the scope and coverage of the risk management process, and to address the emerging or changing risks, but it does not update the existing risk scenarios or the risk response plan. Implementing additional controls is a part of the risk response process, which selects and executes the appropriate actions to reduce, avoid, share, or exploit the risk. Implementing additional controls can help to mitigate the risk and achieve the desired risk level, but it is not the first or the only option, as it depends on the risk appetite, tolerance, and capacity of the organization, and the cost-benefit analysis of the controls. References = Risk Register Template and Examples | Prioritize and Manage Risk, How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:
procedures to monitor the operation of controls.
a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.
real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.
monitoring activities for all critical assets.
Perform a controls assessment.
The best answer is C. real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions. Real-time monitoring is a process of continuously collecting and analyzing data and information on the occurrence and impact of risk events and control exceptions, using automated tools and techniques, such as dashboards, alerts, or analytics12. Real-time monitoring can help to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and to prevent or mitigate the potential consequences. Real-time monitoring can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to provide timely and accurate reporting and communication to the stakeholders. Real-time monitoring is the best answer, because itrepresents a leading-edge practice in risk monitoring, as it leverages the latest technology and innovation, and it enables a proactive and agile approach to risk management. The other options are not the best answer, although they may be useful or necessary for risk monitoring. Procedures to monitor the operation of controls are a part of the risk monitoring process, but they are not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as they may not be able to capture and address the risks and the issues in a timely manner, and they may rely on manual or periodic methods, rather than automated or continuous ones. A tool for monitoring critical activities and controls is a resource or a device that supports the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to collect and analyze the data and information in real time, and it may depend on the quality and reliability of the tool. Monitoring activities for all critical assets is a scope or a coverage of the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and it may require a lot of resources and efforts. Performing a controls assessment is a process of evaluating and testing the design and operation of the controls, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to detect and report the risks and the issues in real time, and it may follow a predefined or scheduled plan, ratherthan a dynamic or adaptive one. References = Real-Time Risk Monitoring - ISACA, Real-Time Risk Monitoring: A Case Study - ISACA
A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations
Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis
Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers
Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)
The risk practitioner shouldfirst review the methodology of the BIAbecause the BIA identifies critical processes and the impacts of disruptions. This ensures that any identified risks are grounded in reliable, updated business impact data.
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Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?
Customer notification plans
Capacity management
Access management
Impacts on IT project delivery
Capacity management is crucial when transitioning employees to remote work during a crisis. It involves ensuring that the IT infrastructure can handle increased loads and that resources are available to support remote operations effectively.
Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?
Complexity of the IT infrastructure
Value of information assets
Management culture
Threats and vulnerabilities
When determining an appropriate risk assessment approach, the most important factor to understand is the value of information assets. This is because the value of information assets determines the potential impact of risks and the level of protection required. The value of information assets can be assessed based on their confidentiality, integrity, availability, and relevance to the business objectives and processes. A risk assessment approach should be aligned with the value of information assets and the risk appetite of the organization. The other options are not the most important factors to understand when determining a risk assessment approach, although they may influence the choice of methods and tools. The complexity of the IT infrastructure may affect the scope and depth of the risk assessment, but it does not indicate the level of risk or the priority of risk management. The management culture may affect the risk tolerance and the risk communication, but it does not reflect the value of information assets or the risk exposure. The threats and vulnerabilities may affect the likelihood and severity of risks, but they do not measure the value of information assets or the risk acceptance. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 582
A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?
Reviewing access control lists
Authorizing user access requests
Performing user access recertification
Terminating inactive user access
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, authorizing user access requests is the process of granting or denying access to IT resources based on the user’s role, responsibilities, and business needs. Authorizing user access requests is a key control accountability that should be retained within the organization, as it helps to ensure that the principle of least privilege is applied, and that the access rights are aligned with the organization’s policies, standards, and risk appetite. Authorizing user access requests also helps to prevent unauthorized access, data leakage, fraud, and other potential risks associated with user access provisioning and termination. Therefore, the best control accountability to retain within the organizationwhen a third-party vendor offers to perform user access provisioning and termination is authorizing user access requests. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240.
It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:
perform a business impact analysis.
identify potential sources of risk.
establish risk guidelines.
understand control design.
It is most important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization’s processes in order to identify potential sources of risk, as this enables the risk practitioner to understand the objectives, activities, resources, dependencies, and outputs of the processes, and how they may be affected by internal or external factors that create uncertainty or variability. Identifying potential sources of risk is the first step in the risk identification process, which aims to find, recognize, and describe the risks that could affect the achievement of the organization’s goals. The other options are not the most important reasons for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization’s processes, although they may be related or beneficial aspects of it. Performing a business impact analysis is a part of the risk analysis process, which aims to understand the nature and extent of the risks and their consequences on the organization’s objectives and functions. Establishing risk guidelines is a part of the risk governance process, which aims to define and communicate the risk management principles, policies, and roles across the organization. Understanding control design is a part of the risk response process, which aims to select and implement the appropriate actions to modify the risk level or achieve the risk objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 47.
An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:
guidance of the risk practitioner.
competence of the staff involved.
approval of senior management.
maturity of its risk culture.
The factor that primarily influences an organization’s capability to implement a risk management framework is the maturity of its risk culture, as it reflects the degree of awareness, understanding, and commitment of the organization’s stakeholders towards the risk management objectives, values, and practices, and affects the adoption and integration of the risk management framework across the organization. The other options are not the primary factors, as they are more related to the guidance, competence, or approval of the risk management framework, respectively, rather than the influence of the risk management framework. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 99.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure?
It provides a cost-benefit analysis on control options available for implementation.
It provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers.
It provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning.
It provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail.
Using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail, as it considers the combined effect of the server failure on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. The risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies. By aggregating the risk associated with server failure, the risk register can help to estimate the worst-case scenario and to prioritize the risk response accordingly. It provides a cost-benefit analysis on controloptions available for implementation, it provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers, and it provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning are not the primary benefits of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure, but rather the possible outcomes or actions of using the risk register. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control –Question220; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 220.
Which organization is implementing a project to automate the purchasing process, including the modification of approval controls. Which of the following tasks is lie responsibility of the risk practitioner*?
Verify that existing controls continue to properly mitigate defined risk
Test approval process controls once the project is completed
Update the existing controls for changes in approval processes from this project
Perform a gap analysis of the impacted control processes
A risk practitioner is a person who is responsible for performing risk management activities, such as identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and communicating risks. When an organization is implementing a project to automate the purchasing process, including the modification of approval controls, the task that is the responsibility of the risk practitioner is to verify that the existing controls continue to properly mitigate the defined risk. This means thatthe risk practitioner should ensure that the automation and modification of the approval controls do not introduce new risks or change the existing risk profile, and that the controls are still effective and adequate for the purchasing process. The risk practitioner should also monitor the performance and compliance of the controls, and recommend any improvements or adjustments as needed. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 177.
The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:
to achieve the desired level of maturity.
the materiality of the risk.
the ability to mitigate risk.
the cost of the control.
The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is the ability to mitigate risk, because it is the measure of how well the control can prevent or reduce the occurrence or impact of the risk, and how effectively the control can achieve the desired level of security and protection for the system and the data. The ability to mitigate risk is the most important criterion for selecting a security control, as it directly relates to the purpose and value of the control. The other options are not the primary basis, because:
Option A: To achieve the desired level of maturity is a goal of selecting a security control, but not the primary basis. The desired level of maturity is the state or condition of the security control that reflects its quality, consistency, and reliability, and it should be aligned with the organization’s security objectives and standards. The desired level of maturity is a result of selecting a security control, not a reason for selecting it.
Option B: The materiality of the risk is a factor of selecting a security control, but not the primary basis. The materiality of the risk is the degree or extent of the risk that affects the organization’s performance, reputation, and value, and it should be considered when selecting a security control, but it is not the only or the most important factor. The materiality of the risk is an input to selecting a security control, not an output of selecting it.
Option D: The cost of the control is a constraint of selecting a security control, but not the primary basis. The cost of the control is the amount of resources and expenditure that are required to implement and maintain the control, and it should be balanced with the benefit and effectiveness ofthe control, but it is not the only or the most important constraint. The cost of the control is a limitation of selecting a security control, not a motivation for selecting it. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 211.
A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?
The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.
The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.
The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.
The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.
The most important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site for a company that has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault is that the alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart, as it ensures that the alternative site is not affected by the same earthquake event that may disrupt the primary site, and that the business continuity and recovery objectives can be met. The other options are not the most important considerations, as they are more related to the backup, priority, or readiness of the alternative site, respectively, rather than the location of the alternative site. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
Which of the following is MOST important when discussing risk within an organization?
Adopting a common risk taxonomy
Using key performance indicators (KPIs)
Creating a risk communication policy
Using key risk indicators (KRIs)
A common risk taxonomy is a framework that defines and categorizes the sources, types, and impacts of risks within an organization1. It helps to establish a consistent and shared understanding of risk across the organization, and to facilitate effective risk identification, assessment, reporting, and communication2. A common risk taxonomy also enables comparison and aggregation of risks at different levels and domains, and supports alignment of risk management with business objectives and strategies3. Using key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs) are important for measuring and monitoring risk and performance, but they are not the most important factor when discussing risk within an organization. KPIs and KRIs should be derived from the common risk taxonomy and aligned with theorganization’s riskappetite and tolerance4. Creating a risk communication policy is also important for ensuring that risk information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time and in the right format, but it is not the most important factor either. A risk communication policy should be based on the common risk taxonomy and the risk roles and responsibilities within the organization5. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: Risk Taxonomy, pp. 25-29.
Concerned about system load capabilities during the month-end close process, management requires monitoring of the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings. What type of measure has been established?
Service level agreement (SLA)
Critical success factor (CSF)
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Key performance indicator (KPI)
Monitoring the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings during the month-end close process aligns with the definition of a Key Performance Indicator (KPI).
Understanding KPIs:
Performance Measurement:KPIs are used to measure how effectively a company is achieving its key business objectives. Monitoring the average time to complete tasks during the month-end close process provides a performance metric.
Tracking Efficiency:By reporting these findings monthly, management can track the efficiency and performance of the system load capabilities.
Specific Measure:
Task Completion Time:The average time to complete tasks is a specific, measurable indicator of performance. It helps in understanding how well the system handles load and identifies areas for improvement.
Continuous Improvement:Regular monitoring and reporting encourage continuous improvement, which is a core aspect of using KPIs.
A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:
identification.
treatment.
communication.
assessment
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the results of a risk analysis in a matrix format, using colors and symbols to indicate the level and priority of the risks. A risk heat map can show the distribution and comparison of the risks based on various criteria, such as likelihood, impact, category, source, etc.
A risk heat map is most commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk assessment, which is the process of determining the significance and urgency of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk assessment involves measuring and comparing the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their magnitude and importance.
A risk heat map can help to facilitate risk assessment by providing a visual and intuitive representation of the risk profile, and highlighting the most critical and relevant risks that need to be addressed or monitored. A risk heat map can also help to communicate and report the riskanalysis results to different stakeholders, and to support the decision making and planning for the risk response and treatment.
The other options are not the most common uses of a risk heat map as part of an IT risk analysis, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of a risk heat map, which is to facilitate risk assessment.
Risk identification is the process of finding and describing the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk identification involves defining the risk sources, events, causes, and impacts, and documenting them in a risk register. A risk heat map is not commonly used to facilitate risk identification, because it does not provide the detailed and comprehensive information that is needed to identify and describe the risks, and it may not cover all the relevant or potential risks that may exist or emerge.
Risk treatment is the process of selecting and implementing the appropriate actions or plans to address the risks that have been identified, analyzed, and evaluated. Risk treatment involves choosing one of the following types of risk responses: mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept. A risk heat map is not commonly used to facilitate risk treatment, because it does not provide the specific and feasible information that is needed to select and implement the risk responses, and it may not reflect the cost-benefit or feasibility analysis of the risk responses.
Risk communication is the process of exchanging and sharing the information and knowledge about the risks and their responses among the relevant stakeholders. Risk communication involves informing, consulting, and involving the stakeholders in the risk management process, and ensuring that they understand and agree on the risk objectives, criteria, and outcomes. A risk heat map is not commonly used to facilitate risk communication, because it does not provide the complete and accurate information that is needed to communicate and share the risks and their responses, and it may not address the different needs, expectations, and perspectives of the stakeholders. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 169
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?
The impact of the risk
The replacement cost of the business asset
The cost of risk mitigation controls
The classification of the business asset
The primary basis for prioritizing risk responses is the impact of the risk. The impact of the risk is the consequence or effect of the risk on the organization’s objectives or operations, such as financial loss, reputational damage, operational disruption, or legal liability. The impact of therisk is one of the key dimensions of risk analysis, along with the likelihood of the risk. The impact of the risk helps to determine the severity and priority of the risk, and to select the most appropriate and effective risk response. The impact of the risk also helps to evaluate the cost-benefit and trade-off of the risk response, and to measure the residual risk and the risk performance. The other options are not the primary basis for prioritizing risk responses, although they may be considered or influenced by the impact of the risk. The replacement cost of the business asset, the cost of risk mitigation controls, and the classification of the business asset are all factors that could affect the value or importance of the business asset, but they do not necessarily reflect the impact of the risk on the business asset or the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-25.
In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:
Review and evaluate the risk management program.
Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.
Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.
Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.
The second line of defense provides oversight to ensure risks and controls are effectively managed. This includes compliance, risk management policies, and performance monitoring, aligning withRisk Governanceframeworks and enhancing the organization’s risk resilience.
When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:
create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios
confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management
review alignment with the organization's investment plan
Enterprise IT risk management is the process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the IT-related risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. Enterprise IT risk management should be aligned with the organization’s overall riskmanagement framework and strategy, and support the organization’s value creation and protection2.
When evaluating enterprise IT risk management, it is most important to confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to take in order to meet its strategic objectives3. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that an organization is willing to accept around its risk appetite4. By confirming the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, the evaluation can:
Ensure that the enterprise IT risk management is consistent and compatible with the organization’s risk culture and vision
Provide clear and measurable criteria and boundaries for assessing and prioritizing the IT risks and their impacts
Guide the selection and implementation of the appropriate risk responses and controls that balance the costs and benefits of risk mitigation
Enable the monitoring and reporting of the IT risk performance and outcomes, and the adjustment of the IT risk strategy and objectives as needed5
References = Enterprise IT Risk Management - ISACA, Enterprise Risk Management - Wikipedia, Risk Appetite - COSO, Risk Tolerance - COSO, Risk Appetite and Tolerance - IRM
A risk practitioner has been made aware of a problem in an IT system that was missed during a routine risk assessment. Which of the following is the practitioner's BEST course of action?
Record the problem as a new issue in the risk management system
Record a new issue but backdate it to the original risk assessment date
Report the vulnerability to the asset owner's manager
Document the issue during the next risk assessment
Thebest practiceis torecord the problem immediately as a new issuein the risk management system. ISACA emphasizes maintaining an up-to-date risk register to ensure emerging issues are tracked and addressed in a timely manner.
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A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization'senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?
Align applications to business processes.
Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).
Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).
Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.
Shadow systems are IT systems, solutions, devices, or technologies used within an organization without the knowledge and approval of the corporate IT department1. They are often the result ofemployees trying to address specific functionality gaps in the organization’s official systems, such as the ERP system. However, shadow systems can pose significant risks to the organization, such as:
Data security and privacy breaches, as shadow systems may not comply with the organization’s security policies and standards, or may expose sensitive data to unauthorized parties2.
Data quality and integrity issues, as shadow systems may not synchronize or integrate with the organization’s official systems, or may create data inconsistencies or redundancies3.
Compliance and regulatory violations, as shadow systems may not adhere to the organization’s legal or contractual obligations, or may create audit or reporting challenges4.
Cost and resource inefficiencies, as shadow systems may duplicate or conflict with the organization’s official systems, or may consume more IT resources than necessary5.
The best way to reduce the risk associated with shadow systems is to implement an enterprise architecture (EA), which is a comprehensive framework that defines the structure, processes, principles, and standards of the organization’s IT environment6. By implementing an EA, the organization can:
Align the IT systems with the organization’s goals and strategy, and ensure that they support the business needs and requirements6.
Establish a governance structure and process for IT decision making, and ensure that all IT systems are approved, monitored, and controlled by the IT department7.
Enhance the communication and collaboration between the IT department and the business units, and ensure that the IT systems meet the expectations and preferences of the end users5.
Optimize the performance and efficiency of the IT systems, and ensure that they are scalable, flexible, and interoperable6.
References =
Shadow IT: What Are the Risks and How Can You Mitigate Them? - Ekran System
How to Reduce Risks of Shadow IT by Applying Governance to Public Clouds – BMC Software | Blogs
What is shadow IT? - Article | SailPoint
The Risks of Shadow IT and How to Avoid Them | SiteSpect
Start reducing your organization’s Shadow IT risk in 3 steps
What is enterprise architecture (EA)? - Definition from WhatIs.com
Enterprise Architecture Governance - CIO Wiki
A risk practitioner is reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry. Which of the following information is MOST important to include to enable an informed response decision by key stakeholders?
Methods of attack progression
Losses incurred by industry peers
Most recent antivirus scan reports
Potential impact of events
The potential impact of events is the estimated magnitude and likelihood of the consequences that may result from a risk scenario. The potential impact of events can help key stakeholders understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and prioritize the appropriate response actions. The potential impact of events can be expressed in quantitative or qualitative terms, such as financial loss, operational disruption, reputational damage, legal liability, etc. The potential impact of events is the most important information to include when reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry, as it can help stakeholders assess the level of risk exposure and the adequacy of the existing controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Analysis, p. 87-89.
A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?
Assessing risk with no controls in place
Showing projected residual risk
Providing peer benchmarking results
Assessing risk with current controls in place
Showing projected residual risk is the most helpful way to respond to the request of explaining how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. Projected residual risk is the estimated level of risk that will remain at a future point in time, based on the assumptions and expectations of the risk responses2. By showing projected residual risk, the risk practitioner can:
Demonstrate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk treatment plans, and how they reduce the risk level from the inherent risk (the risk before the risk responses) to the residual risk3.
Compare the projected residual risk with the risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives4. This can help to determine whether the projected residual risk is acceptable or not, and whether the risk treatment plans are consistent and proportional to the risk level5.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may affect the achievement of the projected residual risk, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions or contingency plans6.
The other options are not the most helpful ways to respond to the request, because:
Assessing risk with no controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the current or future risk posture of the organization. Controls are the measures or actions that are implemented to modify the risk, such as prevent, detect, correct, or mitigate the risk7. Assessing risk with no controls in place can help to measure the inherent risk, but it does not show the impact or outcome of the risk treatment plans.
Providing peer benchmarking results is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the specific or unique risk profile of the organization. Peer benchmarking is the process ofcomparing the organization’s risk level and performance with its peers or competitors, based on a common set of criteria or indicators8. Providing peer benchmarking results can help to provide a reference or a standard for the risk posture, but it does not show the effect or result of the risk treatment plans.
Assessing risk with current controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the future or projected risk posture of the organization. Assessing risk with current controls in place can help to measure the current residual risk, but it does not show the expected or estimated residual risk at the end of the year.
References =
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Projected Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Control - CIO Wiki
Benchmarking - CIO Wiki
[Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?
Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.
Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.
Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.
Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.
To make well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions, it is most important to determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios. A risk rating is a measure of the severity and priority of a risk, based on the combination of its impact and likelihood. A risk scenario is a description of a potential event or situation that could adversely affect the organization’s objectives, assets, or processes. By determining and understanding the risk rating of scenarios, the organization can identify the most critical and urgent risks, and select the appropriate risk response strategies accordingly. The other options are not as important as determining and understanding the risk rating of scenarios, because they do not provide a clear and comprehensive view of the risk, butrather focus on specific or partial aspects of the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 45.
An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?
Secure encryption protocols are utilized.
Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.
The solution architecture is approved by IT.
A risk transfer clause is included in the contact
Utilizing secure encryption protocols is the most important factor to mitigate risk associated with data privacy when implementing a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution, as it ensures that the data is protected from unauthorized access, interception, or modification during the transmission and storage in the cloud. Setting up multi-factor authentication for users, approving the solution architecture by IT, and including a risk transfer clause in the contract are not the most important factors, as they may not address the data privacy issue, but rather the data access, quality, or liability issue, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?
Reviewing the results of independent audits
Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center
Performing a due diligence review
Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders
The most helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization’s key IT applications in a cloud environment is conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders. A risk workshop is a facilitated session that involves brainstorming, discussing, and analyzing the potential risks and opportunities related to a specific topic or project. A risk workshop helps to identify and prioritize the most relevant and significant risk scenarios, as well as to explore the possible causes, impacts, and responses. A risk workshop also helps to engage and align the key stakeholders, such as the business owners, IT managers, cloud providers, and risk experts, and to leverage their knowledge, experience, and perspectives. The other options are not as helpful as conducting a risk workshop, although they may provide some inputor information for the risk scenario development. Reviewing the results of independent audits, performing a site visit to the cloud provider’s data center, and performing a due diligence review are all activities that can help to assess the current state and performance of the cloud environment, but they do not necessarily generate or evaluate the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:
a root cause analysis is required
controls are effective for ensuring continuity
hardware needs to be upgraded
no action is required as there was no impact
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control documents, the risk practitioner should conclude that no action is required as there was no impact. The fact that there have been no interruptions to business operations despite the increasing hardware failure incidents indicates that the built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture are effective in ensuring continuity.
Options A and C are not necessary in this scenario. A root cause analysis (Option A) might be considered if there were actual interruptions or impact on business operations. However, since there were no interruptions, a root cause analysis may not be immediately required. Similarly, upgrading hardware (Option C) may not be necessary if the existing controls are effectively preventing business disruptions.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?
An email from the user accepting the account
Notification from human resources that the account is active
User privileges matching the request form
Formal approval of the account by the user's manager
According to the CRISC Review Manual, formal approval of the account by the user’s manager is the best evidence that a user account has been properly authorized, because it ensures that the user’s role and access rights are consistent with the business needs and the principle of least privilege. The user’s manager is responsible for verifying the user’s identity, job function, and access requirements, and for approving or rejecting the account request. The other options are not the best evidence of proper authorization, because they do not involve the user’s manager’s approval. An email from the user accepting the account is a confirmation of the account creation, but it does not indicate that the account was authorized by the user’s manager. Notification from human resources that the account is active is an administrative process that does not verify the user’s access rights and role. User privileges matching the request form is a verification of the account configuration, but it does not ensure that the request form was approved by the user’s manager. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.2, page 163.
Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:
a gap analysis
a root cause analysis.
an impact assessment.
a vulnerability assessment.
The most effective way to resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform a root cause analysis. A root cause analysis is a method of identifying and addressing the underlying factors or causes that led to the occurrence of a problem or incident1. In this case, the problem or incident is the malware infection that affected the organization. By performing a root cause analysis, the organization can determine how and why the malware was able to infect the systems, what vulnerabilities or weaknesses were exploited, what controls orprocesses failed or were missing, and what actions or decisions contributed to the situation. A root cause analysis can help the organization to prevent or reduce the recurrence of similar incidents, as well as to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process. A root cause analysis can also help the organization to define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, which is a set of actions or measures that are taken to modify the risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or accepting the risk2. Based on the findings and recommendations of the root cause analysis, the organization can select and implement the most appropriate risk treatment option for the malware risk, as well as for any other related or emerging risks. The risk treatment plan should also include the roles and responsibilities, resources, timelines, and performance indicators for the risk treatmentactions3. The other options are not the most effective ways to resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, as they are either less thorough or less relevant than a root cause analysis. A gap analysis is a method of comparing the current state and the desired state of a process, system, or organization, and identifying the gaps or differences between them4. A gap analysis can help the organization to identify the areas of improvement or enhancement, as well as the opportunities or challenges for achieving the desired state. However, a gap analysis is not the most effective wayto resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, as it does not address the causes or consequences of the malware infection, or the actions or measures to mitigate the risk. An impact assessment is a method of estimating the potential effects or consequences of a change, decision, or action on a process, system, or organization5. An impact assessment can help the organization to evaluate the benefits and costs, as well as the risks and opportunities, of a proposed or implemented change, decision, or action. However, an impact assessment is not the most effective way to resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, as it does not investigate the origin or nature of the malware infection, or the solutions or alternatives to manage the risk. A vulnerability assessment is a method of identifying and analyzing the weaknesses or flaws in a process, system, or organization that can be exploited by threats to cause harm or loss6. A vulnerability assessment can help the organization to discover and prioritize the vulnerabilities, as well as to recommend and implement the controls or measures to reduce or eliminate them. However, a vulnerability assessment is not the most effective way to resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, as it does not consider the root causes or impacts of the malware infection, or the risk treatment options or plans to address the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.8, Page 61.
An organization has recently hired a large number of part-time employees. During the annual audit, it was discovered that many user IDs and passwords were documented in procedure manuals for use by the part-time employees. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
Threat
Risk
Vulnerability
Policy violation
Documenting user IDs and passwords in procedure manuals is a vulnerability that exposes the organization to unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security risks. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in a system, process, or control that can be exploited by a threat. A threat is a potential cause of an unwanted incident that may harm the system or organization. A risk is the combination of the likelihood and impact of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. A policy violation is an act of non-compliance with a rule or standard that is established by the organization. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 67.
Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?
Implementing record retention tools and techniques
Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)
Sending notifications when near storage quota
Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control documents, implementing record retention tools and techniques is the best solution in this scenario. Record retention involves managing the lifecycle of records, including their creation, usage, storage, and disposal. By implementing record retention policies, organizations can define how long emails and other data should be retained before being deleted. This helps in efficiently managing storage space and reducing unnecessary storage costs.
Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP) (Option B) focuses more on legal and compliance aspects and may not directly address the issue of reducing storage costs. Sending notifications when near storage quota (Option C) is a reactive approach and may not prevent the exponential increase in storage costs. Implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) policy (Option D) is unrelated to the issue of email storage costs.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual
Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?
The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts
The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk
A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts
The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls1. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient2. Therefore, the most appropriate owner for a newly identified IT risk is the individual who has the authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk, asthey have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The other options are not the most appropriate owners for a newly identified IT risk, as they may not have the authority or the accountability to manage the risk. The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts may have the operational responsibility or the oversight of the risk management activities, but they may not have the authority to allocate the resources or approve the risk response. A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts may have the project management skills or the knowledge of the risk management process, but they may not have the accountability or the ownership of the risk or its outcomes. The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge may have the technical expertise or the understanding of the risk and its causes, but they may not have the decision-making power or the responsibility to manage the risk or its controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 822
Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?
Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.
Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.
Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.
Qualitative measures are easier to update.
Qualitative measures are methods of expressing risk levels using descriptive terms, such as high, medium, or low, based on subjective criteria, such as likelihood, impact, or severity. Qualitative measures are often used to identify and prioritize risks, and to communicate risk information to stakeholders1.
Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, and the need for further action or monitoring2.
Emerging threats are new or evolving sources or causes of risk that have the potential to adversely affect the organization’s objectives, assets, or operations. Emerging threats are oftencharacterized by uncertainty, complexity, and ambiguity, and may require innovative or adaptive risk responses3.
The best reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats is that qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment. Expert judgment is the opinion or advice of a person or a group of people who have specialized knowledge, skills, or experience in a particular domain or field. Expert judgment can help to:
Provide insights and perspectives on the nature and characteristics of the emerging threats, and their possible causes and consequences
Assess the likelihood and impact of the emerging threats, and their interactions and dependencies with other risks
Evaluate the suitability and effectiveness of the risk responses, and their alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
Identify and recommend the best practices and lessons learned for managing the emerging threats, and for improving the risk management process45
Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment than quantitative measures, which are methods of expressing risk levels using numerical or measurable values, such as percentages, probabilities, or monetary amounts. Quantitative measures are often used to estimate and analyze risks, and to support risk decision making1. However, quantitative measures may not be suitable or feasible for expressing residual risk levels related to emerging threats, because:
Quantitative measures require reliable and sufficient data and information, which may not be available or accessible for the emerging threats
Quantitative measures rely on mathematical models and techniques, which may not be able to capture or reflect the complexity and uncertainty of the emerging threats
Quantitative measures may create a false sense of precision or accuracy, which may not be justified or warranted for the emerging threats
Quantitative measures may be influenced or manipulated by biases or assumptions, which may not be valid or appropriate for the emerging threats67
Therefore, qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment, which can enhance the understanding and management of the residual risk levels related to emerging threats.
The other options are not the best reasons to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats, but rather some of the advantages or disadvantages of qualitative measures. Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring than quantitative measures, because they are simpler and easier to apply and update. However, this does not mean that qualitative measures can eliminate or reduce the need for monitoring, which is an essential part of the risk management process. Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements than quantitative measures, because they are more consistent and comparable across different domains and contexts. However, this does not mean that qualitative measures can satisfy or comply with all the regulatory requirements, which may vary depending on theindustry or sector. Qualitative measures are easier to update than quantitative measures, because they do not depend on complex calculations or formulas. However, this does not mean that qualitative measures can always reflect the current or accurate risk levels, which may change over time or due to external factors. References =
Qualitative Risk Analysis vs. Quantitative Risk Analysis - ISACA
Residual Risk - ISACA
Emerging Threats - ISACA
Expert Judgment - ISACA
Expert Judgment in Project Management: Narrowing the Theory-Practice Gap
Quantitative Risk Analysis - ISACA
Quantitative Risk Analysis: A Critical Review
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following should be reported periodically to the risk committee?
System risk and control matrix
Emerging IT risk scenarios
Changes to risk assessment methodology
Audit committee charter
Reporting to the Risk Committee:
Role of Risk Committee: The risk committee is responsible for overseeing the organization’s risk management practices, including identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks.
Emerging IT Risks: Reporting emerging IT risk scenarios to the committee ensures that new and evolving threats are identified and addressed proactively.
Importance of Emerging IT Risk Scenarios:
Proactive Risk Management: By staying informed about emerging risks, the committee can implement preventive measures and avoid potential impacts.
Strategic Planning: Understanding emerging risks allows for better strategic planning and resource allocation to address these risks.
Comparison with Other Options:
System Risk and Control Matrix: Useful for ongoing monitoring but may not capture new and emerging risks.
Changes to Risk Assessment Methodology: Important for refining risk management processes but not as critical as identifying new risks.
Audit Committee Charter: Relevant for governance but not directly related to proactive risk management.
Best Practices:
Regular Updates: Provide the risk committee with regular updates on emerging IT risk scenarios.
Collaborative Approach: Engage various stakeholders in identifying and reporting emerging risks.
Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?
Batch job failure monitoring
Periodic network scanning
Annual penetration testing
Risk assessments
The best method for identifying vulnerabilities is periodic network scanning. Network scanning is a process of scanning and probing the network devices, systems, and applications to discover and analyze their security weaknesses, such as configuration errors, outdated software, or open ports. Network scanning can help to identify the vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, compromise data, or disrupt services. Periodic network scanning is the best method, because it can provide a regular and comprehensive view of the network security posture, and it can detect and address the new or emerging vulnerabilities in a timely manner. Periodic network scanning can also help to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements and standards for network security, such as the ISO/IEC 27001, the NIST SP 800-53, or the PCI DSS123. The other options are not the best method, although they may be useful or complementary to periodic network scanning. Batch job failure monitoring is a process of monitoring and reporting the failures or errors that occur during the execution of batch jobs, such as data processing, backup, or synchronization. Batch job failure monitoring can help to identify the operational or technical issues that affect the performance or availability of the network services, but it does not directly identify the security vulnerabilities or the potential threats. Annual penetration testing is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network devices, systems, and applications to evaluate their security defenses and resilience. Penetration testing can help to identify and exploit the vulnerabilities that could be used by attackers to compromise the network security, and to provide recommendations for improvement. However, annual penetration testing is not the best method, because it is not frequent or consistent enough to keep up with the changing and evolving network security landscape, and it may not cover all thenetwork components or scenarios. Risk assessments are a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with the network devices, systems, and applications. Risk assessments can help to estimate the probability and impact of the vulnerabilities and the threats, and to prioritize and respond to the risks accordingly. However, risk assessments are not the same as or a substitute for vulnerability identification, as they rely on the vulnerability information as an input, rather than an output. References = Vulnerability Testing: Methods, Tools, and 10 Best Practices, ISO/IEC 27001 Information Security Management, NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5
Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Identifying critical information assets
Identifying events impacting continuity of operations.
Creating a data classification scheme
Analyzing previous risk assessment results
The first step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is identifying critical information assets. A BIA is a process of analyzing the potential impacts of disruptive events on the business processes,functions, and resources. A BIA identifies the criticality, dependencies, recovery priorities, and recovery objectives of the business processes, and quantifies the financial and non-financial impacts of disruption. Information assets are the data, information, and knowledge that are essential for the operation and performance of the business processes. Identifying critical information assets is the first step of the BIA, as it helps to determine which information assets are vital for the continuity and recovery of the business processes, and whichinformation assets are most vulnerable or exposed to the disruptive events. Identifying critical information assets also helps to scope and focus the BIA on the most important and relevant information assets, and to avoid unnecessary or redundant analysis. Identifying events impacting continuity of operations, creating a data classification scheme, and analyzing previous risk assessment results are not the first steps of the BIA, as they are either the inputs or the outputs of the BIA, and they depend on the identification of critical information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?
The third party s management
The organization's management
The control operators at the third party
The organization's vendor management office
Outsourcing IT security operations is a common practice that can provide benefits such as cost savings, access to specialized skills, and improved service quality12. However, outsourcing also introduces risks such as loss of control, dependency, contractual issues, and service failures12.
When an organization outsources its IT security operations to a third party, it does not transfer the accountability for the risk associated with the outsourced operations. Accountability is the obligation to answer for the execution of one’s assigned responsibilities34.
The organization’s management is ultimately accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations, as they are responsible for defining the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, and objectives, and for ensuring that the organization’s IT security operations are aligned with them34.
The organization’s management is also accountable for selecting, contracting, and overseeing the third party, and for ensuring that the third party meets the agreed service levels, standards, and compliance requirements34.
The organization’s management is also accountable for monitoring and reporting the risk associated with the outsourced operations, and for taking corrective actions when necessary34.
The other options are not ultimately accountable, but rather have different roles and responsibilities in relation to the outsourced operations. For example:
The third party’s management is responsible for delivering the IT security services according to the contract, and for managing the risk within their own organization34. They are accountable to the organization’s management, but not to the organization’s stakeholders.
The control operators at the third party are responsible for implementing and operating the IT security controls according to the service specifications, and for reporting any issues orincidents to the organization’s management34. They are accountable to the third party’s management, but not to the organization’s management or stakeholders.
The organization’s vendor management office is responsible for facilitating the relationship between the organization and the third party, and for supporting the organization’s management in the outsourcing process34. They are accountable to the organization’s management, but not for the risk associated with the outsourced operations. References =
1: Outsourcing IT Security: A Risk Management Perspective, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2019
2: The Cyber Security Risks Of Outsourcing, Cybersecurity Intelligence, January 4, 2022
3: Accountability for Information Security Roles and Responsibilities, Part 1, ISACA Journal, Volume 5, 2019
4: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?
Ongoing availability of data
Ability to aggregate data
Ability to predict trends
Availability of automated reporting systems
Ongoing availability of data is the most important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time, as it ensures that the KRIs can provide timely and reliable information on the current and future risk status and performance. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposureand the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and they should be aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and objectives. Ongoing availability ofdatameans that the data sources and collection methods for the KRIs are consistent, accessible, and sustainable, and that the data quality and integrity are maintained and verified. Ability to aggregate data, ability to predict trends, and availability of automated reporting systems are not the most important considerations, as they do not affect the validity and usefulness of the KRIs, but rather the presentation and analysis of the KRI data. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question213; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 213.
Within the risk management space, which of the following activities could be
delegated to a cloud service provider?
Risk oversight
Control implementation
Incident response
User access reviews
Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?
An internal audit
A heat map
A business impact analysis (BIA)
A vulnerability report
A business impact analysis (BIA) is the most helpful tool to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk. A BIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of disruptions or incidents on the critical functions and processes of an organization. A BIA helps to estimate the financial, operational, and reputational impacts of risks, as well as the recovery time objectives and recovery point objectives for each function and process. A BIA also helps to prioritize the functions and processes based on their importance and urgency, and to allocate the resources needed to protect, restore,and resume them. A BIA can provide valuable information to management for developing and implementing risk mitigation strategies and plans. The other options are not the most helpful tools to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk, although they may be useful or complementary to the BIA. An internal audit is a process of evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the governance, risk management, and control systems of an organization, but it does not directly estimate the impacts of risks or the resources needed to mitigate them. A heat map is a graphical tool that displays the probability and impact of individual risks in a matrix format, but it does not provide the details of the functions and processes affected by the risks or the resources needed to protect them. A vulnerability report is a document that identifies and assesses the security weaknesses in an information system, but it does not measure the impacts of risks or the resources neededtomitigate them. References = Business Impact Analysis (BIA) | Ready.gov, Business Impact Analysis - ISACA, Business Impact Analysis - Risk Management from MindTools.com
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?
Accuracy of risk tolerance levels
Consistency of risk process results
Participation of stakeholders
Maturity of the process
The primary focus of an independent review of a risk management process is to evaluate the maturity of the process, which means the extent to which the process is aligned with the organization’s objectives, culture, and governance, and how well it is integrated, implemented, and monitored across the organization. A mature risk management process is one that is consistent, effective, efficient, and adaptable to changing circumstances and environments. A maturity assessment can help to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the risk management process, as well as the opportunities and challenges for improvement. The other options are not the primary focus, but they may be secondary or tertiary aspects of the review. Accuracy of risk tolerance levels is a measure of how well the organization defines and communicates its risk appetite and risk limits, which are important inputs for the risk management process, but not the main outcome. Consistency of risk process results is a measure of how reliable and repeatable the risk management process is, which reflects the quality and validity of the data, assumptions, methods, and tools used in the process, but not the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the process. Participation of stakeholders is a measure of how well the organization engages and involves its internal and external stakeholders in the risk management process, which enhancesthe awareness, ownership, andaccountability of the process, but not the alignment and integration of the process. References = Assessing the Risk Management Process, p. 9-10.
The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:
the risk register change log.
evidence of risk acceptance.
control effectiveness test results.
control design documentation.
Reviewing the risk register change log is the best way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed, because it helps to track and monitor the changes and updates that have been made to the risk register, and to verify that the risk response activities have been implemented and closed. A risk register is a document that captures, identifies, assesses and tracks risk as part of the risk management process4. A risk register change log is a record that documents the date, description, and reason for each change or update that is made to the risk register. A risk response activity is an action or task that is performed to implement the chosen risk response strategy for a specific risk, such as avoid, transfer, mitigate, or accept. Reviewing the risk register change log is the best way, as it helps to ensure that the risk register is accurate and current, and that the risk response activities have been completed and reported. Reviewing evidence of risk acceptance, control effectiveness test results, and control design documentation are all possible ways to validate whether risk response activities have been completed, but they are not the best way, as they may not cover all the risk response activities, and they may not reflect the changes or updates in the risk register. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 101
The design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system should be based on:
stakeholder risk tolerance.
benchmarking criteria.
suppliers used by the organization.
the control environment.
Fraudulent transactions are those that involve deception, manipulation, or misrepresentation of information or data to obtain an unauthorized or improper benefit or advantage1. Fraudulenttransactions can pose significant risks and losses for an organization, such as financial damages, legal liabilities, reputational damages, or operational disruptions2.
Enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems are integrated software applications that support the core business processes and functions of an organization, such as accounting, finance, human resources, supply chain, inventory, or customer relationship management3. ERP systems can facilitate the efficiency, accuracy, and security of business transactions, but they can also be vulnerable to fraudulent transactions, such as:
Creating fake vendors or customers and processing false invoices or payments
Manipulating or falsifying financial or accounting data or reports
Changing or deleting critical or sensitive information or records
Abusing or misusing access privileges or credentials
Bypassing or compromising the system controls or security measures4
The design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an ERP system should be based on the control environment. The control environment is the set of standards, processes, and structures that provide the basis for carrying out internal control across the organization. The control environment comprises the following elements:
The tone at the top, which reflects the leadership’s commitment and attitude towards internal control and ethical conduct
The organizational structure, which defines the roles and responsibilities, reporting lines, and authority levels for internal control
The human resource policies and practices, which ensure that the staff have the appropriate skills, competencies, and incentives for internal control
The risk assessment process, which identifies and evaluates the potential risks and threats to the organization’s objectives and transactions
The control activities, which are the specific policies, procedures, and mechanisms that prevent, detect, or correct errors or fraud in transactions
The information and communication systems, which provide reliable and timely data and information for internal control and decision-making
The monitoring and evaluation activities, which measure and report the performance and effectiveness of internal control and ensure continuous improvement
By basing the design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an ERP system on the control environment, the organization can:
Ensure that the procedures are aligned with the organization’s objectives, values, and expectations regarding internal control and fraud prevention
Provide clear and consistent guidance and instructions for the staff and stakeholders involved in the transactions and the ERP system
Implement adequate and appropriate controls and safeguards to mitigate the risks and vulnerabilities of the transactions and the ERP system
Monitor and evaluate the compliance and effectiveness of the procedures and the ERP system, and identify and address any issues or gaps
References = What is Fraud?, Fraud Risk Management - AICPA, What is ERP?, ERP Fraud: How to Prevent It - ERP Focus, [COSO – Control Environment - Deloitte], [How to use COSO to assess IT controls - Journal of Accountancy]
Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?
To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program
To detect increases in program costs
To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner
To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee
Continuously monitoring a critical security transformation program is crucial for a risk practitioner primarily to ensure that any risk events are identified and mitigated promptly. This ensures that the security transformation remains on track and that potential risks do not escalate to a level that could compromise the program’s success.
Identifying and Mitigating Risks:
Risk Identification:Continuously monitoring the program helps in the early identification of risks. This is essential because unidentified risks can lead to unexpected issues that might derail the program.
Timely Mitigation:Once risks are identified, it is crucial to mitigate them as quickly as possible. Delays in mitigation can allow risks to grow in impact, making them harder and more expensive to address.
Ensuring Program Continuity:
Maintaining Momentum:Security transformation programs often involve significant changes and can be disruptive. By ensuring that risks are mitigated in a timely manner, the risk practitioner helps maintain the program’s momentum and keeps it on schedule.
Preventing Escalation:Timely risk mitigation prevents minor issues from escalating into major problems that could halt the program.
Aligning with Strategic Goals:
Strategic Alignment:Ensuring timely mitigation of risks helps in keeping the program aligned with the strategic goals of the organization. It ensures that the security objectives are met without significant delays or cost overruns.
The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?
Escalate to senior management
Require a nondisclosure agreement.
Sanitize portions of the register
Determine the purpose of the request
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the IT-related risks that an organization faces, as well as the information and actions related to those risks, such as the risk description, assessment, response, status, and owner. An IT risk register is a valuable tool for managing andcommunicating IT risks and their impact on the organization’s objectives and operations. However, an IT risk register may also contain sensitive or confidential information that should not be disclosed or shared with unauthorized or irrelevant parties, as it may compromise the security, privacy, or reputation of the organization or its stakeholders. Therefore, the risk manager’s best approach to the request from the head of a business operations department to review the entire IT risk register is to determine the purpose of the request before sharing the register. This is a technique to understand and evaluate the reason and the need for the request, as well as the scope and the level of access that the requester requires or expects. By determining the purpose of therequest, the risk manager can ensure that the request is legitimate, appropriate, and relevant, and that the requester has a clear and valid interest or stake in the IT risk register. The risk manager can also ensure that the request is aligned with the organization’s policies, procedures, and standards for IT risk management and information sharing. The risk manager can also use the purpose of the request to decide what and how much information to share with the requester, and what conditions or restrictions to apply, such as confidentiality, accuracy, or timeliness. The other options are not the best approaches to the request from the head of a business operations department to review the entire IT risk register, as they may be premature, unnecessary, or ineffective. Escalating to senior management is a technique to involve or inform the higher-level authorities or decision makers about the request, which may be useful or required in some cases, but it may not be the first or the best step to take, as it may delay or complicate the process, or undermine the risk manager’s authority or responsibility. Requiring a nondisclosure agreement is a technique to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the information in the IT risk register by legally binding the requester to not disclose or misuse the information. However, a nondisclosure agreement may not be needed or appropriate in every case, and it may not prevent or address other issues or risks related to the information sharing, such as relevance, accuracy, or timeliness. Sanitizing portions of the register is a technique toremove or redact the sensitive or confidential information from the IT risk register before sharing it with the requester, which may be necessary or prudent in some cases, but it may not be sufficient or satisfactory, as it may affect the completeness, usefulness, or validity of the information, or raise questions or concerns from the requester.
A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?
Internal audit
Control owner
Senior management
Risk manager
A purchase order approval process is a set of procedures that companies use to authorize the purchase of goods or services from suppliers1. This process typically involves multiple levels of approvals, ensuring that purchases are compliant with company regulations and policies, and within budget limitations1. Sometimes, a department may be granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders, for example, due to urgency, emergency, or special circumstances2. However, such exceptions should not compromise the effectiveness and integrity of the purchase order approval process, and should be properly documented and justified2. Therefore, the risk practitioner should verify that the exception has been approved by senior management, as they are ultimately responsible for setting and overseeing the purchase order approval process, and for ensuring that the exceptions are reasonable and aligned with the company’s objectives and risk appetite3. Internal audit is not the correct answer, as they are not involved in approving the purchase order approval process or its exceptions. Internal audit’s role is to provide independent assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of thepurchase order approval process and its controls, and to report any issues or recommendations for improvement4. Control owner is not the correct answer, as they are not involved in approving the purchase order approval process or its exceptions. Control owner’s role is to design, implement, and operate the controls that support the purchase order approval process, and to monitor and report on the performance and compliance of the controls5. Risk manager is not the correct answer, as they are not involved in approving the purchase order approval process or its exceptions. Risk manager’s role is to identify, assess, and mitigate the risks associated with the purchase order approval process, and to communicate and report on the risk status and issues6. References = 1: A Step-by-Step Guide to a Purchase Order Approval Process2: Purchase Order Exceptions | Fordham3: Purchase Order (PO) Approval Process and Approval Workflow - ProcureDesk4: IT Risk Resources | ISACA5: CRISC Resources [updated 2021] | Infosec6: Riskand Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?
The skill level required of a threat actor
The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed
The ability to detect and trace the threat action
The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action
When assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited, the most important consideration is the skill level required of a threat actor. Here's an explanation:
Skill Level of Threat Actors:
The skill level required to exploit a vulnerability determines how accessible the exploit is to potential attackers.
If a vulnerability requires advanced technical skills to exploit, it is less likely to be targeted by less sophisticated attackers.
Conversely, if the exploit can be easily executed with minimal skills, it increases the likelihood of widespread exploitation.
Factors Influencing Likelihood of Exploitation:
Availability of Exploit Tools:If automated tools or scripts are available to exploit the vulnerability, even less skilled attackers can take advantage of it.
Publication of Exploit Details:If the vulnerability and its exploitation method are widely published, it becomes more accessible to a broader range of attackers.
Assessment of Likelihood:
Security teams assess the skill level required by analyzing whether the exploit is straightforward or complex.
They also consider the presence of exploit kits in the wild that could lower the barrier to entry for potential attackers.
Comparison with Other Factors:
Amount of PII Disclosed:While important, it relates more to the impact rather than the likelihood of exploitation.
Ability to Detect and Trace:This is crucial for response but does not directly influence the likelihood of exploitation.
Amount of Data Exposed:Similar to PII, this factor pertains to the impact rather than the likelihood of exploitation.
The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?
Perform a root cause analysis
Perform a code review
Implement version control software.
Implement training on coding best practices
A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and understanding the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in a problem or incident that has occurred or may occur in the organization. A root cause analysis can provide useful insights and solutions on the origin and nature of the problem or incident, and prevent or reduce its recurrence or impact.
Performing a root cause analysis is the risk practitioner’s best recommendation when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because it can help the organization to address the following questions:
Why did the application code require rework?
What were the errors or defects in the application code?
How did the errors or defects affect the functionality or usability of the application?
Who was responsible or accountable for the application code development and testing?
When and how were the errors or defects detected and reported?
What were the costs or consequences of the rework for the organization and its stakeholders?
How can the errors or defects be prevented or minimized in the future?
Performing a root cause analysis can help the organization to improve and optimize the application code quality and performance, and to reduce or eliminate the need for rework. It can also help the organization to align the application code development and testing with the organization’s objectives and requirements, and to comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the risk practitioner’s best recommendations when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of performing a root cause analysis, which is to identify and understand the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in the problem or incident.
Performing a code review is a process of examining and evaluating the application code for its quality, functionality, and security, using the input and feedback from the peers, experts, or tools. Performing a code review can help the organization to identify and resolve the errors or defects in the application code, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it doesnot indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing version control software is a process of using a software tool to manage and track the changes and modifications to the application code, and to ensure the consistency and integrity of the application code. Implementing version control software can help theorganization to control and monitor the application code development and testing, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing training on coding best practices is a process of providing and facilitating the learning and development of the skills and knowledge on the principles, guidelines, and standards for the application code development and testing. Implementing training on coding best practices can help the organization to enhance the competence and performance of the application code developers and testers, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 189
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of relevant risk scenarios?
Perform quantitative risk analysis of historical data.
Adopt an industry-recognized risk framework.
Use qualitative risk assessment methodologies.
Conduct brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders.
Brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders are the best way to facilitate the development of relevant risk scenarios, as they can generate diverse and creative ideas, perspectives, and insights about the potential risks and their impact on the organization’s objectives and operations. Brainstorming sessions can also foster collaboration, communication, and engagement among the stakeholders, and help to identify and prioritize the most significant and realistic risk scenarios. Brainstorming sessions can be guided by an industry-recognized risk framework, such as ISACA’s Risk IT, and supported by qualitative or quantitative risk assessment methodologies, but they are not sufficient by themselves to develop relevant risk scenarios.
Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?
The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools
Blocking the attack route immediately
The ability to trace the source of the attack
The timeliness of attack recognition
The most important factor for successful incident response is the timeliness of attack recognition. Incident response is the process of detecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and reporting on security incidents that could affect the organization’s IT systems or data. The timeliness of attack recognition is the speed and accuracy with which the organization can identify and confirm that an attack has occurred or is in progress. The timeliness of attack recognition is crucial for successful incident response, as it affects the ability and effectiveness of the organization to respond to and mitigate the attack, and to minimize the damage and impact of the attack. The other options are not as important as the timeliness of attack recognition, although they may also contribute to or influence the incident response. The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools, the ability to trace the source of the attack, and the blocking of the attack route immediately are all factors that could help or hinder the incident response, but they are not the most important factor for successful incident response. References = CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 5-32.
Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?
The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept
The effective management of risk and internal control environments
Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives
The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives
Risk appetite is defined as "the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, before action is deemed necessary to reduce the risk."1 It represents a balance between the potential benefits of innovation and the threats that change inevitably brings. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk attitude and its willingness to accept risk in specific scenarios, with a governance model in place for risk oversight. Risk appetite helps to guide the organization’s approach to risk and risk management, and to align its risk decisions with its business objectives and context. The other options are not the best descriptions of risk appetite, as they are either too vague (the effective management of risk and internal control environments), too narrow (acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives), or confusing (the acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives). References = Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference?
Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?
The effectiveness of compensating controls
The enterprise's capacity to absorb loss
The residual risk affected by preventive controls
The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. One of the elements of risk appetite is the enterprise’s capacity to absorb loss, which is the maximum amount of loss that an organization can withstand without jeopardizing its existence or strategic objectives. The effectiveness of compensating controls, the residual risk affected by preventive controls, and the amount of inherent risk considered appropriate are not elements of risk appetite, but rather factors that influence the risk assessment and responseprocesses. References = [CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version)], page 41; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, question 196.
The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:
operates as intended.
is being monitored.
meets regulatory requirements.
operates efficiently.
The main purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control operates as intended, as this can help to ensure that the control is effective and efficient in mitigating the risk, and that it meets the control objectives and requirements. Reviewing a control after implementation can also help to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise during the control operation, and to monitor and evaluate the performance and impact of the control. Reviewing a control after implementation can also provide feedback and information to the control owners and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the control design and implementation accordingly. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions andAnswers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question254. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 254. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?
Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)
Risk assessment results
A mapping of resources to business processes
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
The most comprehensive information for developing a risk profile for a system is the risk assessment results. A risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks that could affect the system’s objectives or operations. A risk assessment provides comprehensive information for developing a risk profile, because it helps to determine the likelihood and impact of the risks, and to prioritize them based on their severity and relevance. Arisk assessment also helps to select the most appropriate and effective controls to minimize the risks, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risks. A risk profile is a document that summarizes the key risks that the system faces or accepts, and their likelihood, impact, and priority. A risk profile helps to identify and prioritize the most critical or relevant risks, and to align them with the system’s objectives, strategy, and risk appetite. The other options are not as comprehensive as the risk assessment results, although they may be part of or derived from the risk profile. Results of a business impact analysis (BIA), a mapping of resources to business processes, and key performance indicators (KPIs) are all factors that could affect the system’s performance and improvement, but they do not necessarily identify, analyze, or evaluate the risks that could affect the system. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization's noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?
Identify risk response options.
Implement compensating controls.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Document the penalties for noncompliance.
The next step is toidentify risk response optionsto address the noncompliance and mitigate its impact. This may include corrective actions, implementing controls, or negotiating terms to reduce exposure.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''
To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle
To ensure controls arc operating effectively
To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level
To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits
The most important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan is to ensure that the residual risk is at an acceptable level. Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying a risk response. The risk response plan is the document thatdescribes the actions and resources needed to address the risk. Validating the risk response execution is the process of verifying that the risk response actions have been performed as planned, and that they have achieved the desired results. Validating the risk response execution helps to measure and monitor the residual risk, and to ensure that it is within the risk tolerance of the organization and its stakeholders. The other reasons are not as important as ensuring that the residual risk is at an acceptable level, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of validating the risk response execution. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.
The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.
The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.
The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.
According to the CRISC 351-400 topic3 Flashcards, the administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict, which should be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner. Segregation of duties is a principle that aims to prevent fraud, errors, or abuse of power by ensuring that no single person can perform incompatible functions, such as development, testing, and production. By having administrative access to a production application, a software developer can potentially modify the code, bypass the testing and approval process, and deploy the changes without proper authorization or documentation. This can compromise the integrity, availability, and security of the application, and expose the organization to operational, financial, legal, or reputational risks. Therefore, the answer is D. The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict. *References
Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?
Implementing a risk register
Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan
Assigning risk ownership
Establishing executive management support
Establishing executive management support is the most important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization. This is because executive management support can help ensure that risk management is aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, as well as provide the necessary resources, authority, and accountability for riskmanagement activities. Executive management support can also help foster a risk-aware culture,promote stakeholder engagement, and facilitate risk communication and reporting. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key elements of IT governance is to obtain executive management support and commitment for risk management1. According to the web search results, executive management support is a critical success factor for risk management in various contexts and industries234.
Which of the following criteria is MOST important when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data?
The recovery time objective (RTO)
The likelihood of a recurring attack
The organization's risk tolerance
The business significance of the information
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the business significance of the information is the most important criterion when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data, as it determines the impact and severity of the attack on the organization’s objectives and performance. The business significance of the information helps to:
Assess the value and sensitivity of the data that is compromised or at risk of compromise
Evaluate the potential losses or damages that the organization may incur due to the data compromise
Prioritize the data recovery and restoration activities based on the criticality and urgency of the data
Communicate and coordinate the data breach response and notification with the relevant stakeholders, such as the data owners, the customers, the regulators, and the media
Enhance the data protection and security measures to prevent or mitigate future data compromise incidents
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 174-1751
A business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Recommend allowing the new usage based on prior approval.
Request a new third-party review.
Request revalidation of the original use case.
Assess the risk associated with the new use case.
A risk practitioner’s best course of action when a business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization is to assess the risk associated with the new use case. This is because the new use case may introduce different or additional risks that were not considered or addressed in the original approval. For example, the new use case may involve different data types, volumes, or sensitivities; different business processes, functions, or objectives; different regulatory or contractual requirements; or different technical or operational dependencies. Therefore, the risk practitioner should perform a vendor risk assessment (VRA) to identify, evaluate, and mitigate the potential risks of the new use case and ensure that the vendor solution meets the organization’s riskappetite and tolerance12. Recommending allowing the new usage based on prior approval is not the best course of action, as it may overlook or underestimate the risks of the new use case and expose the organization to unacceptable levels of risk. Requesting a new third-party review is not the best course of action,as it may be unnecessary or redundant if the vendor solution has already been reviewed and approved for another use case within the organization. Requesting revalidation of the original use case is not the best course of action, as it may not address the specific risks of the new use case and may also delay or disrupt the existing use case. References = Risk and Information SystemsControl Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
Whose risk tolerance matters MOST when making a risk decision?
Customers who would be affected by a breach
Auditors, regulators and standards organizations
The business process owner of the exposed assets
The information security manager
Whose risk tolerance matters most when making a risk decision depends on the context and the perspective of the decision-maker. However, in general, the business process owner of the exposed assets is the most important stakeholder to consider, as they are accountable for the risks and the outcomes of the risk decisions. The business process owner has the authority, responsibility, and knowledge to manage the risks that affect their business objectives, performance, and reputation. The business process owner also has the best understanding of the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and how to align the risk decisions with the organizational strategy and context. The other options are not the most important stakeholders to consider, although they may have some influence or interest in the risk decisions. Customers who would be affected by a breach are external stakeholders who may have different risk preferences and expectations than the organization, and who may not be fully aware of the risk exposure or mitigation options. Auditors, regulators, and standards organizations are alsoexternal stakeholders who may impose some requirements or constraints on the risk decisions, but who may not have the same level of involvement or impact as the business process owner. The information security manager is an internal stakeholder who may provide some technical expertise or guidance on the risk decisions, but who may not have the same level of authority or accountability as the business process owner. References = Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference?; Principles of risk decision-making; Risk Tolerance - Overview, Factors, and Types of Tolerance; Five Factors to Consider When Establishing Risk Tolerance; Risk Tolerance - Overview, Factors, and Types of Tolerance
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?
To provide input to the organization's risk appetite
To monitor the vendor's control effectiveness
To verify the vendor's ongoing financial viability
To assess the vendor's risk mitigation plans
The primary reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments is to monitor the vendor’s control effectiveness. A vendor risk assessment is a process of evaluating the risks associated with outsourcing a service or function to a third-party vendor. The assessment should be performed periodically to ensure that the vendor is complying with the contractual obligations, service level agreements, and security standards, and that the vendor’s controls are operating effectively to mitigate the risks. Providing input to the organization’s risk appetite, verifying the vendor’s ongoing financial viability, and assessing the vendor’s risk mitigation plans are otherpossible reasons, but they are not as important as monitoring the vendor’s control effectiveness. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?
Maturity of the enterprise architecture
Cost of control implementation
Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)
Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)
When selecting a risk mitigation option, management should consider the cost of control implementation, as well as the benefits and residual risks. The cost of control implementation includes the direct costs of acquiring, installing, and maintaining the control, as well as the indirect costs of potential side effects, suchas reduced performance, increased complexity, or decreased user satisfaction. The cost of control implementation should be balanced with theexpected reduction in risk exposure and the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. The maturity of the enterprise architecture, the reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs), and the reliability of key risk indicators (KRIs) are relevant factors for risk identification and assessment, but not for risk response selection. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 149.
What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?
Source information is acquired at stable cost.
Source information is tailored by removing outliers.
Source information is readily quantifiable.
Source information is consistently available.
The most important consideration when selecting KPIs for control monitoring is that the source information is consistently available, meaning that it can be obtained regularly, reliably, and timely from the same or equivalent data sources. This ensures that the KPIs can measure the performance of the controls over time and across different units or functions, and provide meaningful and comparable results. Source information that is acquired at stable cost, tailored by removing outliers, or readily quantifiable are also desirable, but not as essential as consistency.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?
Frequency of anti-virus software updates
Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software
Number of false positives detected over a period of time
Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions
An anti-virus program is a software that detects and removes malicious software, such as viruses, worms, or ransomware, from the IT assets, such as computers, servers, or networks. The effectiveness of an anti-virus program can be measured by the key performance indicators (KPIs) that reflect the achievement of the program objectives and the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. The best KPI to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program is the percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions. Malware definitions are the files or databases that contain the signatures or patterns of the known malicious software, and they are used by the anti-virus program to scan and identify the malware. The percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions indicates how well the anti-virus program is able to protect the IT assets from the latest or emerging threats, and reduce the exposure and impact of the risks associated with the malware. The other options are not as good as the percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions, as they may not reflect the quality or timeliness of the protection, or the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2.1, pp. 171-172.
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?
Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).
Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).
Interview the risk owner.
Conduct a gap analysis
The best way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization is to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. KRIs can help to monitor the changes in risk levels over time, identify emerging risks, and trigger risk response actions when the risk exceeds the acceptable thresholds2. KRIs can also help to align the risk management strategy with the business objectives and context. The other options are not the best ways to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization, as they do not provide the same level of insight and guidance as KRIs. Monitoring key performance indicators (KPIs) may show the results or outcomes of the business processes, but not the risks or uncertainties that affect them. Interviewing the risk owner may provide some subjective or qualitative information on the risk perception or attitude, but not the objective or quantitative data on the risk exposure or impact. Conducting a gap analysis may show the difference between the current and desired state of the organization, but not the causes or sources of the risk. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide
Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects personally identifiable information (Pll)?
A privacy impact assessment has not been completed.
Data encryption methods apply to a subset of Pll obtained.
The data privacy officer was not consulted.
Insufficient access controls are used on the loT devices.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, access controls are the policies, procedures, practices, and technologies that are designed and implemented to prevent unauthorized or inappropriate access to IT resources and data. Access controls are essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data, especially personally identifiable information (Pll), which is any information that can be used to identify, locate, or contact an individual. Insufficient access controls are the greatest concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects Pll, as they can expose the data to various risks and threats, such asdata leakage, theft, loss, corruption, manipulation, or misuse. Insufficient access controls can also cause legal, regulatory, ethical, or reputational issues for the organization, if the data privacy rights and expectations of the individuals are violated or compromised. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240, 253.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?
Reviewing control objectives
Aligning with industry best practices
Consulting risk owners
Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite
The best way to facilitate the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program is to evaluate KPIs in accordance with risk appetite. KPIs are metrics that measure the performance and effectiveness of the risk management program, and help monitor and report on the achievement of the risk objectives and outcomes. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite helps to identify the appropriate KPIs, because it helps to align the KPIs with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the KPIs reflect the organization’s risk tolerance and threshold. Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite also helps to communicate and coordinate the KPIs with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, and business units, and to facilitate the risk decision-making and reporting processes. The other options are not as effective as evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite, although they may be part of or derived from the KPI identification process. Reviewing control objectives, aligning with industry best practices, and consulting risk owners are all activities that can help to define or refine the KPIs, but they are not the best way to facilitate the identification of appropriate KPIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.5.1, page 4-38.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using artificial intelligence (AI) language models?
The model could be hacked or exploited.
The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.
Staff could become overly reliant on the model.
It could lead to biased recommendations.
Biased recommendations from AI models pose significant risks to decision-making and organizational ethics. Such biases can propagate systemic issues and impact regulatory compliance, emphasizing the need for robust controls in AI development and deployment underEmerging Technology Risks.
Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?
Risk appetite and tolerance
Risk framework and methodology
Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Risk communication plan
The most important factor for senior management to review during an acquisition is the risk appetite and tolerance of the target organization. The risk appetite and tolerance reflect the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By reviewing the risk appetite and tolerance of the target organization, senior management can determine if they are compatible with their own, and if the acquisition will create any significant risk exposure or opportunity for the acquiring organization. Risk framework and methodology, key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds, and risk communication plan are other factors that may be reviewed, but they are not as important as the risk appetite and tolerance. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
When an organization's business continuity plan (BCP) states that it cannot afford to lose more than three hours of a critical application's data, the three hours is considered the application’s:
Maximum tolerable outage (MTO).
Recovery point objective (RPO).
Mean time to restore (MTTR).
Recovery time objective (RTO).
TheRecovery Point Objective (RPO)specifies the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost due to an incident. In this case, the organization is indicating that it cannot afford to lose more than three hours of data, defining its RPO.
An application development team has a backlog of user requirements for a new system that will process insurance claim payments for customers. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for a risk-based review of the user requirements?
Number of claims affected by the user requirements
Number of customers impacted
Impact to the accuracy of claim calculation
Level of resources required to implement the user requirements
According to the CRISC Review Manual, one of the key objectives of risk identification is to assess the potential impact of risk events on the achievement of business objectives2. In this case, the business objective of the system is to process insurance claim payments for customers, which depends on the accuracy of claim calculation. Therefore, the impact to the accuracy ofclaim calculation should be the most important consideration for a risk-based review of the user requirements. The other options are less relevant or less critical for the business objective.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?
Prepare a report for senior management.
Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.
Update the risk register.
Avoid recurrence of the incident.
The primary reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident is to avoid recurrence of the incident. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause of the incident, the organization can prevent or reduce the likelihood of similar incidents in the future. This can also help to improve the security posture and resilience of the organization. The other options are not the primary reason, but they may be secondary or tertiary reasons. Preparing a report for senior management is an important step in communicating the incident and its impact, but it does not address the root cause. Assigning responsibility and accountability for the incident is a way to ensure that the appropriate actions are taken to remediate the incident and prevent recurrence, but it is not the reason to establish the root cause. Updating the risk register is a part of the risk management process, but it does not necessarily prevent recurrence of the incident. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Response and Reporting, Section 4.3: Incident Management, p. 223-224.
Which of The following BEST represents the desired risk posture for an organization?
Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance.
Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance.
Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance.
Residual risk is lower than risk tolerance.
The best representation of the desired risk posture for an organization is when the residual risk is lower than the risk tolerance. Residual risk is the remaining risk after the implementation of risk responses or controls. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of risk that the organization is willing to take or bear. Thedesired risk posture is when the organization has reduced the residual risk to a level that is equal to or lower than the risk tolerance, which means that the organization has achieved its risk objectives and is comfortable with the remaining risk exposure. The other options are not the best representation of the desired risk posture, as they indicate that the organization has not effectively managed its risk. Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance means that the organization has not identified or assessed its risk properly, as inherent risk is the risk before any controls or responses are applied. Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance means that the organization has not implemented or monitored its risk responses or controls adequately, as operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes,people, and systems. Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance means that the organization has not aligned its risk appetite and risk tolerance, as accepted risk is the risk that the organization chooses to retain or take without any further action. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 2-23.
Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?
Re-evaluate current controls.
Revise the current risk action plan.
Escalate the risk to senior management.
Implement additional controls.
A risk action plan is a document that outlines the actions to be taken to mitigate or avoid a risk. A risk action plan should be revised when the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing, as this indicates that the current plan is not effective or sufficient. Revising the risk action plan can help identify the root causes of the risk increase, evaluate the effectiveness of current controls, and implement additional or alternative controls as needed. Re-evaluatingcurrent controls, escalating the risk to senior management, and implementing additional controls are possible steps in the revision process, but they are not the first course of action. The first course of action should be to update the risk action plan to reflect the current risk situation and the appropriate risk response.
When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?
Perform a background check on the vendor.
Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.
Require the vendor to have liability insurance.
Clearly define the project scope
When using a third party to perform penetration testing, the most important control to minimize operational impact is to clearly define the project scope. This means specifying the objectives,boundaries, methods, and deliverables of the testing, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved. A clear project scope helps to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, and disruptions that could compromise the security, availability, or integrity of the systems undertest. It also helps to ensure that the testing is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and compliance requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3.2, Page 137.
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?
Inaccurate record management data
Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Lack of accountability for data ownership
Users having unauthorized access to data
The greatest risk associated with inappropriate classification of data is users having unauthorized access to sensitive information. Proper data classification ensures that access controls are applied appropriately, protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.
Importance of Data Classification
Data classification involves categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity and the impact that unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction would have on the organization.
It ensures that appropriate security measures are applied according to the data's classification.
Risks of Inappropriate Classification
Unauthorized Access: If data is not classified correctly, sensitive information may not receive the necessary protections, leading to unauthorized access.
Lack of Accountability: Misclassification can result in unclear responsibilities for data protection, but the primary concern remains unauthorized access.
Inaccurate Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs): While important, this is secondary to the risk of unauthorized access.
Inaccurate Record Management Data: This can affect operational efficiency but is not as critical as unauthorized access.
Implementing Effective Classification
Organizations must have a clear data classification policy and ensure it is followed consistently.
Regular audits and reviews should be conducted to verify that data is classified appropriately and that access controls are enforced.
References
CISM Review Manual Full text.html, emphasizing the importance of proper data classification and the risks associated with misclassification, especially unauthorized access to data.
During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.
Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.
Implement key control indicators (KCIs).
Escalate the control failures to senior management.
The first step is to assess whether the ineffective controls result in residual risk exceeding the risk appetite. This establishes the urgency and priority of remediation efforts and ensures alignment with enterprise risk thresholds, reflecting principles ofRisk Assessment and Prioritization.
Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?
Control owner
Risk manager
Control operator
Risk treatment owner
The control owner is the person who is accountable for ensuring that a control is designed, implemented, and operated effectively to mitigate risk. The control owner is also responsible for monitoring the performance of the control and reporting any issues or deficiencies. The risk manager is the person who oversees the risk management process and ensures that risks are identified, assessed, and treated appropriately. The control operator is the person who executes the control activities on a day-to-day basis. The risk treatment owner is the person who is accountable for implementing the risk response strategy and ensuring that the residual risk is within the acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, p. 181.
A business delegates its application data management to the internal IT team. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?
Data controllers
Data custodians
Data analysts
Data owners
In this context, the internal IT team acts as data custodians. Data custodians are responsible for the safe custody, transport, storage, and overall safeguarding of data. They ensure that data is properly maintained and that access controls are in place, but they do not make decisions about data usage—that responsibility lies with data owners.
A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?
Monitoring of service costs
Provision of internal audit reports
Notification of sub-contracting arrangements
Confidentiality of customer data
The MOST critical requirement to include in the contract is the confidentiality of customer data, because it is a legal and ethical obligation of the bank to protect the privacy and security of its customers’ personal and financial information. Outsourcing the statement printing function to an external service provider exposes the customer data to potential unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the service provider or its sub-contractors. Therefore, the contract should specify the terms and conditions for the handling, storage, and disposal of the customer data, as well as the penalties for any breach of confidentiality. The other options are not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, because:
Option A: Monitoring of service costs is an important requirement to ensure that the service provider delivers the statement printing function within the agreed budget and scope, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which has legal and reputational implications for the bank.
Option B: Provision of internal audit reports is a useful requirement to verify that the service provider complies with the internal and external standards and regulations for the statement printing function, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is a core value of the bank and its customers.
Option C: Notification of sub-contracting arrangements is a relevant requirement to ensure that the service provider does not delegate the statement printing function to another party without the bank’s consent and oversight, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is the primary responsibility of the bank and its service provider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 197.
Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?
Solutions for eradicating emerging threats
Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats
Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)
Source and identity of attackers
•External sources of emerging threats are sources that provide information about the latest cyberattacks, hacking techniques, malware, and vulnerabilities that can affect an organization’s IT systems and data. Examples of external sources are security blogs, forums, newsletters, reports, and alerts from reputable organizations such as ISACA, Imperva, Aura, and BitSight123.
•The most useful information an organization can obtain from external sources is the indicators for detecting the presence of threats. Indicators are observable signs or patterns that can help identify, prevent, or mitigate cyberattacks. Examples of indicators are IP addresses, domain names, file hashes, network traffic, system logs, and user behavior4.
•Indicators for detecting the presence of threats are more useful than the other options because they can help an organization to:
oMonitor and analyze its IT environment for any suspicious or malicious activity
oRespond quickly and effectively to any potential or actual incidents
oReduce the impact and damage of cyberattacks
oImprove its security posture and resilience
•Solutions for eradicating emerging threats are not the most useful information because they may not be applicable or effective for every organization, depending on its specific context, needs,and resources. Moreover, solutions may not be available or known for some new or sophisticated threats.
•Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats is not the most useful information because it does not help an organization to identify or prevent cyberattacks. Cost is only one factor to consider when deciding how to manage IT risk, and it may not reflect the true value or impact of the threats.
•Source and identity of attackers are not the most useful information because they may not be relevant or accurate for every organization. Source and identity of attackers are often difficult to trace or verify, and they may not affect the organization’s risk level or response strategy.
References =
•Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Identification, pp. 83-84
•Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12 Month Subscription, ISACA, 2020, Question ID: 100000
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?
Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.
Review the software development life cycle.
Involve the development team in planning.
Assign more developers to the project team.
Involve the development team in planning is the best recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project. This is because involving the development team in planning can help ensure that the project scope, requirements, resources, and timeline are realistic, feasible, and agreed upon by all stakeholders. It can also help improve the communication, collaboration, and commitment of the development team, as well as identify and mitigate potential risks and issues early in the project life cycle. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk identification techniques for IT projects is to involve the project team and other relevant parties in the risk assessment process1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, involving the development team in planning is the correct answer to this question2.
Implementing a tool to track the development team’s deliverables, reviewing the software development life cycle, and assigning more developers to the project team are not the best recommendations to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns. These are possible actions that can be taken during or after the planning phase, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of involvement of the development team in planning. Implementing a tool to track the development team’s deliverables can help monitor the project progress and performance, but it does not guarantee that the deliverables are aligned with the project objectives and expectations. Reviewing the software development life cycle can help ensure that the project follows a structured and standardized process, but it does not account for the specific needs and challenges of the project. Assigning more developers to the project team can help increase the project capacity and productivity, but it can also introduce new risks such as coordination, communication, and quality issues.
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?
Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.
Risk ownership is identified and assigned.
Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.
Residual risk is within risk tolerance.
Risk treatment options are the actions or plans that are implemented to modify or reduce the risk exposure of the organization. Risk treatment options receive adequate funding when the organization allocatessufficient resources and budget to support the risk response actions, and to ensure that the risk controls are effective and efficient. This is the best evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in the organization, as it shows that the organizationprioritizes and values the risk management process, and that it aligns its risk strategy and objectives with its business goals and value creation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 245. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 245. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 245.
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?
Implement a replacement control.
Adjust residual risk rating.
Escalate to senior management.
Review compensating controls.
Upon discovering that an IT control has failed, the risk practitioner's most important action is to review compensating controls. This involves assessing whether other existing controls can mitigate the risk associated with the failed control. Evaluating compensating controls helps determine the immediate impact of the control failure and guides decisions on necessary remediation steps.
After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:
record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.
validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.
reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.
perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.
According to the LDR514: Security Strategic Planning, Policy, and Leadership Course, after mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the next course of action should be to validate the risk scenarios for business applicability. This is because generic risk scenarios are not specific to the organization’s context, objectives, and environment, and they may not capture the unique threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that the organization faces. Therefore, validating the risk scenarios for business applicability will help to ensure that the risk scenarios are relevant, realistic, and consistent with the organization’s security policies. Validating the risk scenarios will also help to identify any gaps, overlaps, or conflicts between the risk scenarios and the security policies, and to resolve themaccordingly. References = LDR514: Security Strategic Planning, Policy, and Leadership Course, Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative
Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing an initial set of risk scenarios for an organization?
Refer to industry standard scenarios.
Use a top-down approach.
Consider relevant business activities.
Use a bottom-up approach.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for prioritizing risk treatment plans when faced with budget limitations?
Inherent risk and likelihood
Management action plans associated with audit findings
Residual risk relative to appetite and tolerance
Key risk indicator (KRI) trends
When prioritizing risk treatment plans under budget constraints, the focus should be onresidual risk relative to appetite and tolerance. This ensures that resources are allocated to risks that exceed the organization’s risk appetite, aligning treatment efforts with strategic objectives and minimizing critical exposure.
Who is MOST likely to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy?
Chief financial officer
Information security director
Internal audit director
Chief information officer
The chief information officer (CIO) is the most likely person to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy, because the CIO is the senior executive who oversees the information technology (IT) function and aligns it with the organization’s strategy, objectives, and operations. The CIO is also responsible for ensuring that the IT function delivers value, supports innovation, and manages IT risks effectively and efficiently. The CIO can coordinate the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy by communicating and collaborating with other business leaders, establishing and implementing IT governance frameworks and policies, and monitoring and reporting on IT performance and risk indicators. The other options are not as likely as the CIO to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy, because they have different or limited roles and responsibilities in relation to IT and business risk management, as explained below:
A. Chief financial officer (CFO) is the senior executive who oversees the financial function and manages the financial risks of the organization. The CFO may be involved in the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy, especially when it comes to budgeting, funding, or reporting on IT-related projects and initiatives, but the CFO is not the primary person who oversees the IT function and aligns it with the organization’s strategy and objectives.
B. Information security director is the senior manager who oversees the information security function and manages the information security risks of the organization. The information security director may be involved in the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy, especially when it comes to protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets and systems, but the information security director is not the primary person who oversees the IT function and aligns it with the organization’s strategy and objectives.
C. Internal audit director is the senior manager who oversees the internal audit function and provides independent assurance on the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s governance, risk management, and control processes. The internal audit director may be involved in the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy, especially when it comes to auditing, reviewing, or testing the IT-related processes and controls, but the internal audit director is not the primary person who oversees the IT function and aligns it with the organization’s strategy and objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.1.1, page 7. The Strategic CIO: Balancing Business and ITPriorities, Technology’s Role in Enterprise Risk Management, Aligning Enterprise Cyber Risk and Business Strategy
When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?
List of recent incidents affecting industry peers
Results of external attacks and related compensating controls
Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment
Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry
The best thing to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile is the gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment, as this shows the stakeholders the extent and impact of the changes, and the actions and resources needed to address them. The control environment is the set of policies, processes, and systems that provide reasonableassurance that the IT risks are identified, assessed, and treated effectively and efficiently. The current state of the control environment reflects the existing level and performance of the controls, and the residual risk that remains after the controls are applied. The desired state of the control environment reflects the target level and performance of the controls, and the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment indicate the areas of improvement or enhancement for the IT risk management process, and the priorities and strategies for risk response. The other options are not the best things to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile, although they may be useful or relevant information. A list of recent incidents affecting industry peers can provide some context and comparison for the IT risk profile, but it does not measure or explain the changes in the IT risk level or the control environment. Results of external attacks and related compensating controls can demonstrate the security and resilience of the IT systems and networks, but they do not cover the entire scope or spectrum of the IT risk profile or the control environment. A review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry can provide some insights and benchmarks for the IT risk management process, but it does not reflect thespecific situation or needs of the organization or the stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 181.
Which of the following would qualify as a key performance indicator (KPI)?
Aggregate risk of the organization
Number of identified system vulnerabilities
Number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days
Number of attacks against the organization's website
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization is achieving its key objectives. A KPI should be relevant, specific, measurable, achievable, and time-bound. The number of identified system vulnerabilities is a KPI that measures the security posture and performance of the organization’s information systems. It also helps to identify the areas that need improvement or remediation. The number of identified system vulnerabilities is relevant to the organization’s objective of protecting its information assets, specific to the system level, measurable by using tools or methods, achievable by implementing security controls or practices, and time-bound by setting a target or threshold. Aggregate risk of the organization, number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days, and number of attacks against the organization’s website are not KPIs, as they are either too broad, not relevant, or not measurable. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.1.1, page 1741
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 647.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?
Including trend analysis of risk metrics
Using an aggregated view of organizational risk
Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data
Ensuring relevance to organizational goals
The most important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management is ensuring relevance to organizational goals. This means that the risk information presented should align with the strategic objectives and priorities of the organization, and demonstrate how risk management supports the achievement of those goals. Executive management is responsible for setting the direction and vision of the organization, and therefore needs to understand how risk management contributes to the value creation and protection of the organization. By ensuring relevance to organizational goals, risk management updates can help executive management make informed decisions, allocate resources, and communicate with stakeholders.
Some of the ways to ensure relevance to organizational goals are:
Linking risk management updates to the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy
Highlighting the key risks and opportunities that affect the organization’s performance and competitiveness
Providing clear and concise risk reports that focus on the most critical and material risks
Using a common risk language and framework that is understood by executive management
Providing actionable recommendations and solutions to address the identified risks
Aligning risk management updates with the organization’s reporting cycle and governance structure
References =
The Importance of Integrating Risk Management with Strategy
Four steps for managing risk at the CEO level
5 Key Principles of Successful Risk Management
An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?
Scale of technology
Risk indicators
Risk culture
Proposed risk budget
The risk practitioner’s primary consideration when participating in development of a new IT risk strategy should be the risk culture of the organization. Risk culture is the set of values, beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors that shape how the organization perceives, manages, and responds to risks. Risk culture influences the organization’s risk appetite, risk objectives, risk policies, risk processes, and risk performance. The risk practitioner should consider the risk culture whendeveloping a new IT risk strategy, because it helps to align the IT risk strategy with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the IT risk strategy is supported and accepted by the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, employees, customers, regulators, etc. The risk practitioner should also consider the risk culture when developing a new IT risk strategy, because it helps to identify and addressany gaps, issues, or challenges that may affect the implementation and effectiveness of the IT risk strategy, such as lack of awareness, communication, coordination, or accountability. The other options are not the primary consideration for the risk practitioner, although they may be related to the IT risk strategy. Scale of technology, risk indicators, and proposed risk budget are all factors that could affect the feasibility and sustainability of the IT risk strategy, but they do not necessarily reflector influence the organization’s risk culture. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-9.
An engineer has been assigned to conduct data restoration after a server storage failure. However, the procedure was not successful. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of this situation?
Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Failure to prepare a business continuity plan (BCP)
Insufficient data captured in the business impact analysis (BIA)
Insufficient definition of the recovery point objective (RPO)
The RPO defines how much data loss is acceptable during system failure. If not clearly defined, restoration may skip key data, leading to incomplete recovery. ISACA guidelines highlight that alignment of RPO/RTO with business objectives is critical for viable DR planning
Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:
helping personnel make better-informed decisions
assisting the development of a risk register.
improving the effectiveness of IT controls.
increasing participation in the risk assessment process.
Effective risk communication best benefits an organization by helping personnel make better-informed decisions. Risk communication is the process of exchanging information and opinions among stakeholders about the nature, magnitude, significance, or control of a risk. By communicating risk information clearly and consistently, the organization can enhance the understanding and awareness of the risk, and enable the personnel to make decisions that are aligned with the risk appetite and objectives of the organization. Assisting the development of a risk register, improving the effectiveness of IT controls, and increasing participation in the risk assessment process are other possible benefits, but they are not as important as helping personnel make better-informed decisions. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
The PRIMARY focus of an ongoing risk awareness program should be to:
enable better risk-based decisions.
define appropriate controls to mitigate risk.
determine impact of risk scenarios.
expand understanding of risk indicators.
The primary focus of an ongoing risk awareness program should be to enable better risk-based decisions, as this can help the organization to achieve its objectives, optimize its performance, and manage its risks effectively. An ongoing risk awareness program is a process of educating, communicating, and engaging the stakeholders about the organization’s risk management framework, methodology, and practices. An ongoing risk awareness program can help the stakeholders to understand the risk context, criteria, appetite, and profile of the organization, and to identify, assess, treat, monitor, and review the risks that may affect their roles and responsibilities. By doing so, an ongoing risk awareness program can empower the stakeholders to make informed and rational decisions that balance the benefits and costs of risk-taking, and that align with the organization’s strategy and goals.
Which of the following is BEST used to aggregate data from multiple systems to identify abnormal behavior?
Cyber threat intelligence
Anti-malware software
Endpoint detection and response (EDR)
SIEM systems
Understanding the Question:
The question asks which tool is best for aggregating data from multiple systems to identify abnormal behavior.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Cyber threat intelligence:Provides information on potential threats but does not aggregate data from multiple systems for behavior analysis.
B. Anti-malware software:Focuses on detecting and removing malware, not aggregating data from multiple sources.
C. Endpoint detection and response (EDR):Monitors endpoints for suspicious activity but is more limited in scope compared to SIEM systems.
D. SIEM systems:Security Information and Event Management systems collect, aggregate, and analyze data from various sources to identify and respond to abnormal behavior.
SIEM Systems:SIEM systems are designed to aggregate and analyze security data from multiple sources such as network devices, servers, and applications. They provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by hardware and software.
Functionality:SIEM systems use advanced analytics to correlate data from different sources and detect patterns that indicate abnormal behavior. This makes them highly effective in identifying and responding to security incidents.
Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?
Previous audit reports
Control objectives
Risk responses in the risk register
Changes in risk profiles
Understanding the Question:
The question seeks to identify which source provides the most useful information for evaluating the effectiveness of existing controls.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Previous audit reports:Provide historical data but might not reflect current risks.
B. Control objectives:These are standards to be achieved, not current evaluations.
C. Risk responses in the risk register:Useful but focused on specific responses rather than overall effectiveness.
D. Changes in risk profiles:Reflect current and emerging risks, providing a dynamic view of control effectiveness.
Risk Profiles:Evaluating changes in risk profiles helps understand how effective existing controls are against current threats. If risk levels are increasing, it may indicate that controls are insufficient or need updating.
Proactive Adjustment:By monitoring changes in risk profiles, organizations can proactively adjust their controls to address new or evolving risks.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness program?
To demonstrate senior management support
To enhance organizational risk culture
To increase awareness of risk mitigation controls
To clearly define ownership of risk
A risk awareness program is a set of activities and communication methods that aim to increase the understanding and knowledge of risk among the stakeholders of an organization. The primary objective of a risk awareness program is to enhance the organizational risk culture, which is the shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that influence how risk is perceived and managed in the organization. A risk awareness program can help to promote a risk-aware culture by:
•Educating stakeholders on the concepts and benefits of risk management
•Aligning risk management with the organization’s vision, mission, and objectives
•Encouraging stakeholder participation and collaboration in risk management processes
•Fostering a positive attitude towards risk taking and learning from failures
•Reinforcing risk management roles and responsibilities
•Recognizing and rewarding good risk management practices
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?
Time between backups for critical data
Sensitivity of business data involved
Cost of downtime due to a disaster
Maximum tolerable data loss after an incident
The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable length of time that a system can be down after a failure or disaster. Determining the RTO involves assessing the cost of downtime and its impact on business operations to ensure that recovery strategies are cost-effective and aligned with business needs.
An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization's customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management's decision?
Time zone difference of the outsourcing location
Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company
Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country
Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location
The most significant factor that would impact management’s decision when conducting an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization’s customer service operations overseas is the cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country. Cross-border information transfer restrictions are the laws, regulations, standards, or contracts that govern the collection, processing, storage, or transmission of information across national or regional boundaries. Cross-border information transfer restrictions may affect the organization’s outsourcing initiative, because they may impose limitations, obligations, or penalties on the organization or the outsourcing company, such as requiring consent, notification, or authorization, or prohibiting or restricting certain types or categories of information. Cross-border information transfer restrictions may also create challenges or risks for the organization’s outsourcing initiative, such as compliance, legal, reputational, or operational risks, or conflicts orinconsistencies with the organization’s own policies, regulations, standards, or contracts. The other options are not as significant as the cross-border information transfer restrictions, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the organization’s outsourcing initiative. Time zone difference of the outsourcing location, ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company, and historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location are all factors that could affect the efficiency and effectiveness of the outsourcing initiative, but they do not directly affect the legality or security of the outsourcing initiative. References = 3
A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?
The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.
The CSA was not sample-based.
The CSA did not test control effectiveness.
The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.
A compliance-based CSA focuses on ensuring that the business unit follows the policies and procedures established by the enterprise, regardless of the actual risk level or impact of the controls.
A risk-based CSA focuses on identifying and evaluating the risks that may affect the business unit’s objectives, and designing and implementing controls that are appropriate to mitigate those risks.
A compliance-based CSA may not capture all the high-risk issues that exist in a business unit, especially if they are not aligned with the enterprise’s standards or expectations.
A risk-based CSA may identify more high-risk issues than a compliance-based CSA, because it considers both internal and external factors that may affect the business unit’s performance or security.
Therefore, a difference in results between a previous control self-assessment (CSA) and an audit indicates that either one of them was not risk-based, but rather compliance-based.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 9
Information Technology & Security, page 3
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 1
An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:
senior management has oversight of the process.
process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.
segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.
risk owners have decision-making authority.
According to the 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, risk ownership is best established by mapping risk to specific business process owners. Details of the risk owner should be documented in the risk register. Results of the risk monitoring should be discussed and communicated with the risk owner as they own the risk and are accountable for maintaining the risk within acceptable levels. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is most important that risk owners have decision-making authority, as this enables them totake timely and appropriate actions to manage the risk and ensure that it is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Without decision-making authority, risk owners may not be able to implement the necessary risk responses or escalate the issues to the relevant stakeholders. Therefore, the answer is D. risk owners have decision-making authority. References = 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, The Importance of Effective Risk Governance in the C-suite - Aon
Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?
Obtaining logs m an easily readable format
Providing accurate logs m a timely manner
Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems
implementing an automated log analysis tool
The most important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) using log analysis is providing accurate logs in a timely manner, because this ensures that the risk data is reliable, relevant, and up-to-date. Logs are records of events or activities that occur in IT systems, such as network traffic, user actions, system errors, or security incidents. Log analysis is the process of reviewing and interpreting logs to identify and assess risks, such as performance issues,operational failures, compliance violations, or cyberattacks. By providing accurate logs in a timely manner, an organization can monitor the current status and trends of its KRIs, which are metrics that measure the level and impact of risks. Accurate logs mean that the logs are complete, consistent, and free of errors or anomalies that may distort the risk data. Timely logs mean that the logs are available as soon as possible after the events or activities occur, and that they are updated frequently to reflect the latest changes. Providing accurate logs in a timely manner can help an organization to detect and respond to risks promptly, and to support risk-based decision making and reporting. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 22
A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?
Implement monitoring techniques.
Implement layered security.
Outsource to a local processor.
Conduct an awareness campaign.
The best way to mitigate the risk of customer identity theft is to implement layered security. Layered security is a defense-in-depth approach that applies multiple and diverse security controls at different levels and stages of the information system and the data lifecycle. Layered security can include physical, technical, and administrative controls, such as locks, firewalls, encryption, authentication, authorization, backup, audit, and policy. Layered security can help to protect the customer data and identity from unauthorized access, use, modification, disclosure, or destruction, by creating multiple barriers and deterrents for potential attackers, and by reducing the impact and likelihood of a successful breach. Layered security can also help to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements and standards for data privacy and protection, such as the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), and the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)123.The other options are not the best way to mitigate the risk of customer identity theft, although they may be useful or complementary to layered security. Implementing monitoring techniques is a part of the layered security approach, but it is not sufficient, as it mainly focuses on detecting and responding to the incidents, rather than preventing or deterring them. Outsourcing to a local processor is a business decision that may or may not improve the security of the customer data and identity, depending on the quality and reliability of the service provider, and the terms and conditions of the outsourcing contract. Conducting an awareness campaign is a good practice that can help to educate and inform the customers and the employees about the common types, methods, and indicators of identity theft, and the best practices and precautions to prevent or report it, but it does not directly apply or enforce any security controls to the information system or the data.
Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs)'
Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance
Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends
Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements
Providing an early warning to take proactive actions
The most important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs) is providing an early warning to take proactive actions, because this helps organizations to prevent or mitigate potential risks that may impact their operations, objectives, or performance. KRIs are specific metrics that measure the level and impact of risks, and provide timely signals that something may be going wrong or needs urgent attention. By monitoring and analyzing KRIs, organizations can identify and assess emerging or existing risks, and initiate appropriate risk responses before the risks escalate intosignificant issues. This can enhance the organization’s resilience, competitiveness, and value creation. The other options are less important benefits of KRIs. Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance is a benefit of KRIs, but it is not the most important one. Risk governance is the framework and process that defines how an organization manages its risks, including the roles, responsibilities, policies, and standards. KRIs can help to evaluate and improve the effectiveness and efficiency of risk governance, but they are not the only factor that influences it. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends is a benefit of KRIs, but it is not the most important one. Documenting and analyzingtrends can help organizations to understand the patterns, causes, and consequences of risks, and to learn from their experiences. However, this benefit is more relevant for historical or retrospective analysis, rather than for proactive action. Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements is a benefit of KRIs, but it is not the most important one. Compliance is the adherence to the laws, regulations, and standards that apply to an organization’s activities and operations. KRIs can help to monitor and demonstrate compliance, but they are not the only tool or objective for doing so. References = Why Key Risk Indicators Are Important for Risk Management 1
Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?
User access may be restricted by additional security.
Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.
Security administration may become more complex.
User privilege changes may not be recorded.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, single sign-on (SSO) is a method of authentication that allows a user to access multiple systems or applications with a single set of credentials. SSO can improve user convenience and productivity, but it also introduces some security risks. The greatest concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation is that unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems, as this can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and resources stored on those systems. If an attacker obtains the SSO credentials of a user, either by phishing, malware, or other means, they can Laccess all the systems or applications that the user is authorized for, without any additional authentication or verification. This can expose the organization to various threats, such as data leakage, theft, loss, corruption, manipulation, or misuse2345. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240, 253.
Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service
provider during a vendor risk assessment?
Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
Independent audit report
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
A vendor risk assessment is a process of evaluating and managing the risks associated with outsourcing IT services or functions to a third-party provider, such as a cloud service provider.
One of the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment is an independent audit report. This is a report that provides an objective and reliable assurance on the quality, security, and performance of the cloud service provider’s operations, processes, and controls, based on the standards and criteria established by an independent auditor or a recognized authority, such as ISACA, ISO, NIST, etc.
An independent audit report helps to verify the compliance and effectiveness of the cloud service provider’s risk management practices, identify any gaps or issues that may affect the service delivery or security, and recommend improvements or corrective actions.
The other options are not the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment. They are either secondary or not essential for vendor risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 22
Information Technology & Security, page 16
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 14
While reviewing a contract of a cloud services vendor, it was discovered that the vendor refuses to accept liability for a sensitive data breach. Which of the following controls will BES reduce the risk associated with such a data breach?
Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key
Engaging a third party to validate operational controls
Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor
Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key
Encryption is a technique that transforms data into an unreadable format using a secret key, so that only authorized parties can access and decrypt the data. Encryption can help to protectsensitive data from unauthorized access or disclosure, especially when the data is stored or transmitted in the cloud1.
Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key is a control that will best reduce the risk associated with a data breach, because it can help to:
Prevent the vendor from accessing or disclosing the sensitive data, intentionally or unintentionally
Limit the exposure or impact of the data breach, even if the vendor’s systems or networks are compromised by hackers or malicious insiders
Maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the sensitive data, regardless of the vendor’s liability or responsibility
Enhance the trust and confidence of the customers and stakeholders, who may be concerned about the vendor’s refusal to accept liability for a data breach23
The other options are not as effective as ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key for reducing the risk associated with a data breach. Engaging a third party to validate operational controls is a control that can help to verify and improve the vendor’s security practices and processes, but it does not guarantee that the vendor will prevent or respond to a data breach adequately or timely. Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor is not a control, but rather a business decision that may increase the risk associated with a data breach, as the vendor may have access to or disclose the sensitive data of both parties, or may favor one party over the other. Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key is a control that can help to encrypt specific fields or columns of data, such as names, addresses, or credit card numbers, but it does not prevent the vendor from accessing or disclosing the data, as the vendor has the encryption key4. References =
Encryption - ISACA
Cloud Encryption: Using Data Encryption in The Cloud
Cloud Encryption: Why You Need It and How to Do It Right
Field-Level Encryption - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Report the issue to internal audit.
Submit a request to change management.
Conduct a risk assessment.
Review the business impact assessment.
The first course of action for a risk practitioner when discovering a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched is to conduct a risk assessment. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that could affect the achievement of the objectives of the system or the organization. A risk assessment helps to determine the level and nature of the risk exposure, and to prioritize and respond to the risks. Conducting a risk assessment is the first course of action, as it helps to understand the source, cause, and impact of the deficiency, and to estimate the likelihood and consequences of the risk events that could exploit the deficiency. Conducting a risk assessment also helps to identify and evaluate the existing or potential controls or mitigations that could address the deficiency, and to recommend the appropriate risk treatment options. Reporting the issue to internal audit, submitting a request to change management, and reviewing the business impact assessment are not the first courses ofaction, as they are either the outputs or the inputs of the risk assessment process, and they do not address the primary need of assessing the risk situation and status. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
A bank wants to send a critical payment order via email to one of its offshore branches. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the message reaches the intended recipient without alteration?
Add a digital certificate
Apply multi-factor authentication
Add a hash to the message
Add a secret key
A digital certificate is a document that contains the public key and the identity of the owner of the public key, and is signed by a trusted third party called a certificate authority (CA)1. A digital certificate can be used to ensure the message reaches the intended recipient without alteration, by using the following steps2:
The sender encrypts the message with the recipient’s public key, which can only be decrypted by the recipient’s private key. This ensures the confidentiality of the message, as only the intended recipient can read it.
The sender signs the message with their own private key, which can be verified by anyone who has their public key. This ensures the integrity and authenticity of the message, as it proves that the message has not been tampered with and that it comes from the sender.
The sender attaches their digital certificate to the message, which contains their public key and their identity, and is signed by a CA. This ensures the validity and trustworthiness of the sender’s public key and identity, as it confirms that they have been verified by a CA.
The recipient receives the message and the digital certificate, and verifies the signature of the CA on the digital certificate. This ensures that the digital certificate is genuine and has not been forged or revoked.
The recipient uses the public key from the digital certificate to verify the signature of the sender on the message. This ensures that the message has not been altered and that it comes from the sender.
The recipient uses their own private key to decrypt the message. This ensures that they can read the message.
Therefore, adding a digital certificate is the best way to ensure the message reaches the intended recipient without alteration, as it provides encryption, digital signature, and certificate verification, which are the three main components of secure email communication3. Applying multi-factor authentication, adding a hash to the message, and adding a secret key are not the best ways to ensure the message reaches the intended recipient without alteration, as they do not provide all the components of secure email communication. Applying multi-factor authentication is a technique that requires the user to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity, such as a password, a code, or a biometric factor4. Multi-factor authentication can enhance the security of the email account, but it does not protect the message itselffrom being intercepted, modified, or impersonated. Adding a hash to the message is a technique that involves applying a mathematical function to the message to generate a fixed-length value, called a hash or a digest, that uniquely represents the message5. A hash can be used to verify the integrity of the message, as any change in the message will result in a different hash. However, ahash does not provide confidentiality or authenticity of the message, as it does not encrypt themessage or identify the sender. Adding a secret key is a technique that involves using a single key, known only to the sender and the recipient, to encrypt and decrypt the message6. A secret key can provide confidentiality of the message, as only the sender and the recipient can read it. However, a secret key does not provide integrity or authenticity of the message, as it does not prevent the message from being altered or spoofed. Moreover, a secret key requires a secure way of exchanging the key between the sender and the recipient, which may not be feasible or reliable over email. References = 1: What is a digital certificate? | Norton2: How to Send Secure Emails in 2023 | A Guide to Secure Email - ProPrivacy3: Secure Email: A Complete Guide for 2023 - StartMail4: What is Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? | Duo Security5: What is a Hash Function? | Definition and FAQs6: [What is Symmetric Encryption? | Definition and FAQs]
Which of the following will BEST communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives to senior management?
Business case
Balanced scorecard
Industry standards
Heat map
A business case will BEST communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives to senior management, because it provides a clear and concise justification of the objectives, benefits, costs, and risks of the proposed initiatives. A business case helps to align the risk mitigation initiatives with the enterprise’s strategy and goals, and to obtain the necessary approval and support from senior management. The other options are not as effective as a business case, because:
Option B: A balanced scorecard is a tool to measure and monitor the performance of the enterprise across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. It does not communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives, but rather the outcomes and impacts of them.
Option C: Industry standards are benchmarks or best practices that define the minimum requirements or expectations for a certain domain or activity. They do not communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives, but rather the compliance or alignment of them with the external environment.
Option D: A heat map is a tool to visualize and prioritize the risks based on their likelihood and impact. It does not communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives, but rather the severity and distribution of the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 118.
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Improving risk awareness
Obtaining buy-in from risk owners
Leveraging existing metrics
Optimizing risk treatment decisions
The main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs) is improving risk awareness, as it helps to communicate the risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance of the organization to the relevant parties. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. By involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, the risk practitioner can ensure that the KRIs are aligned with the stakeholder expectations, needs, and objectives, and that they reflect the most significant risks that affect the organization. This also helps to foster a risk culture and a shared understanding of risk among the stakeholders, which can enhance the risk management process and performance. The other options are not the main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, although they may be some of the outcomes or advantages of doing so. Obtaining buy-in from risk owners, leveraging existing metrics, and optimizing risk treatment decisions are all important aspects of risk management, but they are not the primary reason for involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide; The 10 Types of Stakeholders That You Meet in Business; What are Stakeholders? Stakeholder Definition | ASQ
Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization's risk register?
Limit access to senior management only.
Encrypt the risk register.
Implement role-based access.
Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.
A risk register is a document that contains information about potential cybersecurity risks that could threaten a project’s success, or even the business itself2. Therefore, it is important to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the risk register from unauthorized or inappropriate access, modification, or disclosure. One way to do this is to implement role-based access, which is a method of restricting access to the risk register based on the roles or responsibilities of the users1. This way, only authorized users who need to view or edit the risk register for legitimate purposes can do so, and the access rights can be revoked or modified as needed. This would most effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in the risk register. The other options are not as effective or feasible as option C, as they do not address the need to balance the security and availability of the risk register. Option A, limiting access to senior management only, would compromise the availability and usefulness of the risk register, as other stakeholders such as project managers, risk owners, or auditors may need to access therisk register for risk identification, analysis, response, or monitoring purposes3. Option B, encrypting the risk register, would enhance the security of the risk register, but it would not prevent authorized users from exposing the vulnerabilities to unauthorized parties, either intentionally or unintentionally. Encryption also adds complexity and cost to the risk register management process, and may affect the performance or usability of the risk register4. Option D, requiring users to sign a confidentiality agreement, would rely on the compliance and ethics of the users, but it would not prevent or detect any breaches of the agreement. A confidentiality agreement also does not specify the access rights or roles of the users, and may not be legally enforceable in some cases5.
An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?
Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place
Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process
Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.
Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.
The best course of action to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor is to ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process. This can help to avoid ambiguity, confusion, or disputes over the ownership, responsibility, and liability of the data and the data transfer process. Meeting with the business leaders, collecting requirements, and working with the information security officer are important activities, but they are not as effective as ensuring the contractual agreement is clear and enforceable. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk related to an organization's use of AI technology?
The AI system's contract does not include a right-to-audit clause
The AI system is being used beyond its intended purpose
The AI system is on unsupported infrastructure
The AI system results have not been validated
Unvalidated AI outputs pose considerable integrity and operational risks, potentially leading to erroneous decisions or compliance lapses. ISACA CRISC guidance underscores that ensuring results validity is a highest-priority control for new technologies such as AI.
Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?
Human resources (HR) manager
System administrator
Data privacy manager
Compliance manager
The HR manager is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to collect, process, and protect the personal data of the employees in the organization. The HR managerhelps to manage the employee personal data, because they help to establish and enforce the data policies and standards for the employees, and to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements, such as the GDPR. The HR manager also helps to monitor and report on the data performance and compliance for the employees, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the data management activities. The other options are not the best person to manage the employee personal data, although they may be involved in the process. System administrator, data privacy manager, and compliance manager are all examples of roles or functions that can help to support or implement the data management activities, but they do not necessarily have the authority or responsibility to collect, process, or protect the employee personal data
Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?
The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident
The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.
The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.
The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.
The greatest concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization is that the risk profile was last reviewed two years ago. A risk profile is a snapshot of the current risk exposure and appetite of the organization, based on the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that could affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives. A risk profile should be reviewed and updated regularly, atleast annually, or whenever there are significant changes in the internal or external environment, such as new projects, strategies, regulations, or incidents. A risk profile that was last reviewed two years ago may not reflect the current risk situation and status of the organization, and may lead to inaccurate or incomplete risk assessment and response. The risk profile not being updated after a recent incident, the risk profile being developed without using industry standards, and the risk profile not containing historical loss data are also concerns, but they are not as critical as the risk profile being outdated. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 48.
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?
Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.
Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization
Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management
Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices
Managing cyber risk according to the organization’s risk management framework is the best recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile, as it helps to integrate and align the cybersecurity risk management (CSRM) and the enterprise risk management (ERM) processes. A risk management framework is a set of principles, policies, and practices that guide and support the risk management activities within an organization. A risk management framework helps to establish a consistent, comprehensive, and coordinated approach to risk management across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
Managing cyber risk according to the organization’s risk management framework helps to ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile by providing the following benefits:
It enables a holistic and comprehensive view of the cyber risk landscape and its interdependencies with the business processes and functions.
It facilitates the communication and collaboration among the business and IT stakeholders and enhances their understanding and awareness of the cyber risk exposure and control environment.
It supports the development and implementation of effective and efficient cyber risk response and mitigation strategies and actions that are aligned with the business risk appetite and objectives.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the cyber risk management and control processes and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best recommendations to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile. Defining cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization is a good practice to clarify and assign the duties and accountabilities for the cyber risk management and control processes, but it does not directly address the cyber risk assessment and integration with the enterprise-level risk profile. Conducting cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management is a useful method to educate and engage the senior management in the cyber risk management and control processes, but it does not provide asystematic or consistent way to assess and reflect the cyber risk in the enterprise-level risk profile. Implementing a cyber risk program based on industry best practices is a possible action to improve and enhance the cyber risk management and control processes, but it does not ensure the alignment or integration with the organization’s risk management framework or the enterprise-level risk profile. References = Integrating Cybersecurity and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) - NIST, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Identifying and Estimating Cybersecurity Risk for Enterprise Risk …
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?
Time between control failure and failure detection
Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count
Time spent on internal control assessment reviews
Number of internal control failures within the measurement period
The effectiveness of a control monitoring program can be measured by how quickly it can detect and correct any control failures that may compromise the achievement of the organization’s objectives. A shorter time between control failure and failure detection means that the control monitoring program is able to identify and report the issues promptly, and initiate the remediation actions accordingly. This can reduce the impact and likelihood of the risks associated with the control failures, and enhance the performance and reliability of the controls. The other options are not as good indicators of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program, because they do not reflect the timeliness and responsiveness of the program, but rather the scope, effort, or frequency of the program. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130.
Of the following, who is BEST suited to assist a risk practitioner in developing a relevant set of risk scenarios?
Internal auditor
Asset owner
Finance manager
Control owner
The asset owner is the best suited to assist a risk practitioner in developing a relevant set of risk scenarios. The asset owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for the IT assets that support the business processes. The asset owner can provide valuable information on the business objectives, requirements, and expectations that the IT assets should meet. The asset owner can also help identify the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that may affect the IT assets and the business processes. The asset owner can also suggest possible risk responses and mitigation strategies to address the risk scenarios. The other options are not as relevant as the asset owner, as they may not have the same level of knowledge, interest, or involvement in the IT assets and the business processes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Scenarios, page 23.
Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?
Risk assessment results
Adherence to governing policies
Regular stakeholder briefings
Independent audit results
The best evidence of an effective internal control environment is the independent audit results. Independent audit results are the outcomes or findings of an external or independent party that evaluates the design, implementation, and operation of the internal controls. Independent audit results can provide an objective, reliable, and consistent assessment of the internal control environment, and identify the strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or issues of the internal controls. Independent audit results can also provide assurance, recommendations, or improvement opportunities for the internal control environment. The other options are not as good as independent audit results, as they are related to the inputs, processes, oroutputs of the internal control environment, not the evaluation or verification of the internal controlenvironment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?
Lack of alignment to best practices
Lack of risk assessment
Lack of risk and control procedures
Lack of management approval
Risk assessment is a key process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks associated with the implementation of an emerging technology. It helps to determine the potential impact and likelihood of the risks, as well as the appropriate risk responses and controls. Lack of risk assessment can lead to poor decision making, inadequate risk mitigation, and unexpected consequences. Therefore, it should be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, p. 226-227
An organization has recently updated its disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk if the new plan is not tested?
External resources may need to be involved.
Data privacy regulations may be violated.
Recovery costs may increase significantly.
Service interruptions may be longer than anticipated.
Testing a disaster recovery plan is essential to ensure its effectiveness and identify any gaps or weaknesses that might hinder the recovery process. Without testing, the organization may face longer service interruptions than anticipated, which could result in loss of revenue, customer dissatisfaction, reputational damage, and regulatory penalties. Some of the best practices for disaster recovery testing are1:
Test many scenarios
Test regularly
Document everything
Keep everyone updated
Define metrics
Evaluate the results
Test your disaster recovery plan
References = Best Practices For Disaster Recovery Testing | Snyk
Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?
Manual vulnerability scanning processes
Organizational reliance on third-party service providers
Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)
Risk-averse organizational risk appetite
The situation that presents the greatest challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization is having inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA). EA is the blueprint that describes the structure and operation of an organization, including its business processes, information systems, technology infrastructure, and governance. EA helps to align the IT strategy and objectives with the business strategy and objectives, and to identify and manage the IT risks and opportunities. Having inaccurate documentation of EA could lead to incomplete, inconsistent, or misleading information about the organization’s IT environment, which could affect the quality and reliability of the IT risk profile. The other situations are not as challenging as having inaccurate documentation of EA, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the IT risk profile. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-12.
Which of the following risk register elements is MOST likely to be updated if the attack surface or exposure of an asset is reduced?
Likelihood rating
Control effectiveness
Assessment approach
Impact rating
The risk register element that is most likely to be updated if the attack surface or exposure of an asset is reduced is the likelihood rating, as this reflects the probability or frequency of a risk event occurring. The attack surface or exposure of an asset is the measure of the extent and accessibility of the asset to potential threats or attackers. If the attack surface or exposure of an asset is reduced, the likelihood of the asset being compromised or damaged by a risk event is also reduced. Therefore, the likelihood rating of the risk should be updated accordingly. Theother options are not the risk register elements that are most likely to be updated if the attack surface or exposure of an asset is reduced, although they may be affected or influenced by it. Control effectiveness is the measure of how well the risk controls reduce the risk level or achieve the control objectives. Assessment approach is the method or technique used to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks. Impact rating is the measure of the magnitude or severity of the consequences of a risk event on the asset or the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 54.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action for a system administrator who suspects a colleague may be intentionally weakening a system's validation controls in order to pass through fraudulent transactions?
Implement compensating controls to deter fraud attempts.
Share the concern through a whistleblower communication channel.
Monitor the activity to collect evidence.
Determine whether the system environment has flaws that may motivate fraud attempts.
The best course of action for a system administrator who suspects a colleague may be intentionally weakening a system’s validation controls in order to pass through fraudulent transactions is B. Share the concern through a whistleblower communication channel1
According to the CRISC Review Manual, a whistleblower communication channel is a mechanism that allows employees to report suspected fraud or unethical behavior without fear of retaliation or reprisal. A whistleblower communication channel is part of an effective fraud detection and prevention framework, and it helps to promote a culture of integrity and accountability within the organization2
The other options are not as effective or appropriate as sharing the concern through a whistleblower communication channel, because:
•A. Implementing compensating controls to deter fraud attempts may not address the root cause of the problem, and it may also create additional complexity and cost for the system. Moreover, it may not prevent the colleague from finding other ways to bypass the controls or collude with external parties.
•C. Monitoring the activity to collect evidence may expose the system administrator to legal or ethical risks, especially if the monitoring is done without proper authorization or due process. Itmay also delay the reporting and resolution of the issue, and potentially allow more fraudulent transactions to occur.
•D. Determining whether the system environment has flaws that may motivate fraud attempts may be useful for understanding the context and the factors that contribute to the fraud risk, but it does not address the immediate concern of reporting the suspected fraud. It may also imply that the system administrator is trying to justify or rationalize the colleague’s behavior, rather than holding them accountable.
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100002 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 224
A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?
The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.
The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.
The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.
The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.
A contingency plan is a set of actions and procedures that aim to ensure the continuity of critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. An alternate processing site is a location where the organization can resume its information systems operations in case the primary site is unavailable or damaged. The most important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site for a company located on a moderate earthquake fault is to ensure that the alternative site does not reside on the same fault, no matter how far apart they are. This is because an earthquake can affect a large area along the fault line, and potentially damage both the primary and the alternative site, rendering them unusable. By choosing an alternative site that is not on the same fault, the company can reduce the risk of losing both sites, and increase the likelihood of restoring its operations quickly and effectively. The other options are not as important as the alternative site location, because they do not address the main threat of an earthquake, but rather focus on specific or partial aspects of the contingency plan, as explained below:
A. The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately is a consideration that relates to the availability and readiness of the alternative site, but it does not ensure that the site is safe and secure from an earthquake. A hot site is a type of alternative site that has the necessary hardware, software, and network components to resume the information systems operations with minimal or no downtime. However, if the hot site is on the same fault asthe primary site, it may not be accessible or functional after an earthquake, and the company may lose both sites and the data stored on them.
B. The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site is a consideration that relates to the integrity and recoverability of the data, but it does not ensure that the site is safe and secure from an earthquake. Backup media are devices or systems that store copies of the data and information that are essential for the organization’s operations. Taking backup media to the alternative site can help the company to restore its data and resume its operations in case the primary site is damaged or destroyed. However, if the alternative site is on the same fault as the primary site, it may not be accessible or functional after an earthquake, and the company may lose both sites and the backup media.
C. The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site is a consideration that relates to the performance and reliability of the alternative site, but it does not ensure that the site is safe and secure from an earthquake. A shared cold site is a type of alternative site that has the necessary space and infrastructure to accommodate the information systems operations, but does not have the hardware, software, or network components installed. A shared cold site is shared by multiple organizations, and may not be available or suitable for the company’s high priority applications, which require more resources and customization. However, if the alternative site is on the same fault as the primary site, it may not be accessible or functional after an earthquake, and the company may lose both sites and the ability to resume its high priority applications. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. How to conduct a contingency planning process - IFRC, CP-4(2): Alternate Processing Site - CSF Tools - Identity Digital, Information System Contingency Planning Guidance - ISACA
A risk practitioner finds that data has been misclassified. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Unauthorized access
Data corruption
Inadequate retention schedules
Data disruption
The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:
financial risk.
data risk.
operational risk.
strategic risk.
Understanding Strategic Risk:
Strategic risk refers to the potential losses that can arise from adverse business decisions, improper implementation of decisions, or lack of responsiveness to changes in the business environment.
Reputational Impact of Cybersecurity Breaches:
A cybersecurity breach can severely damage an organization's reputation, affecting customer trust, investor confidence, and market value.
Such impacts go beyond immediate financial losses and can have long-term strategic implications for the organization's competitive position and strategic objectives.
Classification of Risk:
Financial Risk:Direct financial losses due to a breach (e.g., fines, legal costs) but does not cover reputational impacts.
Data Risk:Focuses on the loss or compromise of data but not the broader strategic impact.
Operational Risk:Pertains to disruptions in business operations, while reputational damage influences the organization’s strategic direction and goals.
Strategic Risk and Reputation:
Reputational damage from a cybersecurity breach can lead to a loss of customer base, reduced market share, and difficulties in strategic partnerships, all of which are strategic concerns.
Addressing reputational risk requires strategic planning, proactive communication, and long-term efforts to rebuild trust and credibility.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights that reputational risk is a significant aspect of strategic risk, especially following cybersecurity incidents (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.1.3 Importance and Value of IT Risk Management).
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?
To provide data for establishing the risk profile
To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies
To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur
To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness
Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that measure the performance and effectiveness of the controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks. KCIs can help to monitor the status and health of the controls, as well as to identify any issues or gaps that need to be addressed. The primary reason to adopt KCIs in the risk monitoring and reporting process is to provideassessments of mitigation effectiveness, meaning that they can help to evaluate how well the controls are reducing the risk exposure and achieving the desired outcomes. KCIs can also help to support the risk management decision making and improvement actions, as well as to demonstrate the value and benefits of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1.2, p. 115-116
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?
Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.
New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.
The risk environment is subject to change.
The information security budget must be justified.
The primary reason to perform ongoing risk assessments is that the risk environment is subject to change. The risk environment is the external and internal factors that influence the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces1. These factors include economic, political, social, technological, legal,and environmental aspects, as well as the organization’s objectives, strategies, culture, and resources2. The risk environment is dynamic and unpredictable, and may change due to various events, trends, ordevelopments that create new or modify existing risks3. Therefore, it is important to perform ongoing risk assessments to identify, analyze, and evaluate the changes in the risk environment, and to adjust the risk response and management accordingly. Ongoing risk assessments help to ensure that the organization’s risk profile is up to date and reflects the current reality, and that the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance are aligned with the changing risk environment4. The other options are not the primary reason to perform ongoing risk assessments, as they are either less comprehensive or less relevant than the changing risk environment. Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management. This option is a consequence or outcome of performing ongoing risk assessments, not a reason for doing so. Emerging risk is a new or evolving risk that has the potential to affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance5. Ongoing risk assessments can help to identify and monitor emerging risks, and to report them to management for decision making and action. However, this is not the main reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not cover the existing or modified risks that may also change due to the risk environment. Newsystem vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals. This option is a specific or narrow example of a changing risk environment, not a general or broad reason for performing ongoing risk assessments. System vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws in the design, implementation, or operation of information systems that can be exploited by threats to cause harm or loss6. Ongoing risk assessments can help to discover and assess new system vulnerabilities that may emerge due to technological changes, cyberattacks, or human errors. However, this is not the primary reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not encompass the other types or sources of risks that may also change due to the risk environment. The information security budget must be justified. This option is a secondary or incidental benefit of performing ongoing risk assessments, not a primary or essential reason for doing so. The information security budget is the amount of money that the organization allocates for implementing and maintaining information security measures and controls7. Ongoing risk assessments can help tojustify the information security budget by demonstrating the value and effectiveness of the security measures and controls in reducing the risks, and by identifying the gaps or needs for additional or improved security measures and controls. However, this is not the main reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not address the purpose or objective of risk assessment, which is to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks and their impact on the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, Page 47.
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Management approval
Annual review
Relevance
Automation
The most important factor to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs) is relevance. KPIs are metrics that measure the achievement of the objectives or the performance of the processes. Relevance means that the KPIs are aligned with and support the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, and that they reflect the current and desired state of the outcomes or outputs. Relevance also means that the KPIs are meaningful and useful for the decision makers and stakeholders, and that they provide clear and actionable information for improvement or optimization. The other options are not as important as relevance, as they arerelated to the approval, review, or automation of the KPIs, not the quality or value of the KPIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is MOST important to review the:
risk mitigation approach
cost-benefit analysis.
risk assessment results.
vulnerability assessment results
To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is most important to review the risk assessment results, which are the outputs of the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that affect a project or an organization. The riskassessment results provide information on the sources, causes, impacts, likelihood, and severity of the risks, as well as the existing controls and their effectiveness. The risk assessment results help to determine the risk level and priority of each risk scenario, and to select the most appropriate risk response strategy. The risk assessment results are the basis for creating and updating the risk register, which is a document that records and tracks theidentified risks, their characteristics, responses, owners, and status12. The other options are not the most important factors to review, as they are either derived from or dependent on the risk assessment results. The risk mitigation approach is the plan and actions to reduce the impact or likelihood of the risks, and it is based on the risk assessment results. The cost-benefit analysis is the comparison of the costs and benefits of implementing the risk response strategy, and it is influenced by the risk assessment results. The vulnerability assessment results are the identification and measurement of the weaknesses or gaps in the information systems or resources, and they are part of the risk assessment results. References = Risk Assessment in Project Management | PMI; RiskAssessment Process: Definition, Steps, and Examples; Risk Assessment - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics; Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana; What Is a Risk Register? | Smartsheet
An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?
Risk profile
Risk tolerance
Risk capacity
Risk appetite
The risk profile is the most important thing to reassess when an organization implements new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation (RPA). The risk profile is a comprehensive and dynamic view of the organization’s risks, their ratings, responses, and status. RPA can introduce new risks or change the existing risks related to the organization’s objectives, operations, and performance. For example, RPA can create risks such as system failures, databreaches, compliance violations, human errors, or ethical dilemmas. Therefore, the organization should reassess its risk profile to identify, assess, treat, monitor, and review the risks associated with RPA, and to ensure that the risk management strategy is aligned with the business needs and expectations.
An organization has established a contract with a vendor that includes penalties for loss of availability. Which risk treatment has been adopted by the organization?
Acceptance
Avoidance
Transfer
Reduction
The organization has adopted the risk treatment of transfer, which means that it has shifted some or all of the potential negative consequences of a risk event to another party, such as a vendor, an insurer, or a partner. By including penalties for loss of availability in the contract, the organization has transferred the financial impact of a service disruption to the vendor, who will be liable for compensating the organization for the loss. Transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the organization’s exposure to the risk.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?
Cost and benefit
Security and availability
Maintainability and reliability
Performance and productivity
The most important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners is the cost and benefit of the risk response options. Technology end-of-life is the situation when a technology product or service is no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, and may pose security, compatibility, or performance issues. The risk practitioner should communicate the cost and benefit of the possible risk responses, such as replacing, upgrading, or maintaining the technology, to the business owners, and help them to make informed and rational decisions. Security and availability, maintainability and reliability, and performance and productivity are other possible considerations, but they are not as important as the cost and benefit. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?
Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.
Communicate to those who test and promote changes.
Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.
Assess the maturity of the change management process.
A change management process is a set of procedures and activities that ensure that any changes to the IT systems or applications are planned, approved, tested, implemented, and documented in a consistent and controlled manner.
A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. This means that the process has been improved or modified to include new or additional steps or methods for verifying and validating the changes before they are deployed to the production environment.
The next course of action after updating the change management process with new testing procedures is to communicate to those who test and promote changes. This means that the change management team or function should inform and educate the people who are involved or affected by the changes, such as the developers, testers, users, customers, etc., about the new testing procedures, their purpose, benefits, requirements, and expectations.
Communicating to those who test and promote changes helps to ensure that the new testing procedures are understood and followed by all the parties, that the changes are tested and promoted in accordance with the process standards and criteria, and that the changes are delivered with the expected quality and performance.
The other options are not the next courses of action after updating the change management process with new testing procedures. They are either secondary or not essential for change management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 27
Information Technology & Security, page 21
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 19
Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?
Vulnerability analysis
Control analysis
Scenario analysis
Heat map analysis
Scenario analysis is a technique that helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization by creating and exploring plausible alternative futures. Scenario analysis can help anticipate and prepare for potential changes, opportunities, or threats in the internal or external environment, such as technological, economic, social, political, legal, or environmental factors.Scenario analysis can also help evaluate the impact and likelihood of different risk scenarios, and test the effectiveness and robustness of various risk response strategies. Scenario analysis can provide a comprehensive and holistic view of risks and their interrelationships, and support the decision making and planning process for risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: IT Risk Scenarios, p. 49-50.
Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to change the likelihood rating in the risk register?
Risk appetite
Control cost
Control effectiveness
Risk tolerance
The likelihood rating in the risk register is a measure of how probable it is that a risk event will occur, given the current conditions and controls. The risk practitioner should change the likelihood rating if there is a significant change in the effectiveness of the controls that are implemented to prevent or reduce the risk. For example, if a control becomes obsolete, ineffective, or bypassed, the likelihood rating should increase, as the risk event becomes more likely to happen. Conversely, if a control becomes more efficient, reliable, or robust, the likelihood rating should decrease, as the risk event becomes less likely to happen. The other options are not likely to cause a change in the likelihood rating, as they are not directly related to the probability of the risk event. Risk appetite is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Control cost is the amount of resources that are required to implement and maintain a control. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that an organization is willing to allow for a risk to deviate from its desired level or expected outcome. These factors may influence the risk response or the risk acceptance, but not the likelihood rating. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: Risk Register, p. 25-26.
Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment?
Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs)
Introducing an established framework for IT architecture
Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)
Involving the business process owner in IT strategy
IT and business misalignment is the risk that the IT objectives, plans, and activities are not aligned with the business goals, needs, and expectations. This can result in wasted resources, missed opportunities, poor performance, and customer dissatisfaction. One of the best ways to mitigate this risk is to involve the business process owner in IT strategy. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for a specific business process and its outcomes. By involving the business process owner in IT strategy, the organization can ensure that the IT initiatives and solutions are relevant, effective, and beneficial for the business process and its stakeholders. The business process owner can also provide valuable input, feedback, and support for the IT strategy and its implementation. The other options are not the best ways to mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment, although they may be helpful and complementary. Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs) is a technique to measure and monitor the achievement of business objectives and outcomes. However, KPIs do not necessarily ensure that the IT strategy is aligned with the business strategy or that the IT activities support the business activities. Introducing an established framework for IT architecture is a method to design and implement the IT infrastructure, systems, and services in a consistent and coherent manner. However, an IT architecture framework does not guarantee that the IT architecture is aligned with the business architecture or that the IT capabilities meet the business requirements. Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) is a tool to monitor and communicate the level of exposure to a given risk or the potential impact of a risk. However, KRIs do not directly address the risk of IT and business misalignment or the actions needed to align them. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 22-231; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 76
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?
Cost of controls
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Probability definition
Risk response strategy is the approach that an organization takes to address the risks that it faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. Risk response strategy involves selecting and implementingthe appropriate risk response options, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance, for each risk, based on the risk level, the risk appetite, and the cost-benefit analysis1.
The most important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy is the risk appetite of the organization. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk attitude and its willingness to take on risk in specific scenarios. Risk appetite is usually expressed in a qualitative statement approved by the board of directors2.
Considering the risk appetite of the organization is essential for developing a risk response strategy, because it can help to:
Align the risk response strategy with the overall business strategy and vision, and ensure that the risk response options support the achievement of the organizational objectives
Balance the risk response strategy with the expected benefits and opportunities, and ensure that the risk response options do not eliminate or reduce the potential value or performance of the organization
Enhance the risk response strategy with the stakeholder expectations and requirements, and ensure that the risk response options meet the needs and interests of the customers, suppliers, partners, regulators, and other parties
Optimize the risk response strategy with the available resources and capabilities, and ensure that the risk response options are feasible and cost-effective for the organization34
The other options are not as important as the risk appetite of the organization for developing a risk response strategy, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Cost of controls is the amount of resources and funds that are required to implement and maintain the risk response controls, such as policies, procedures, or technologies, that aim to prevent or reduce the negative effects of the risks. Cost of controls is a factor that can affect the selection and implementation of the risk response options, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. Risk tolerance is a factor that can measure the risk analysis and guide the risk response, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. Probability definition is the process of estimating the likelihood or frequency of the risk events, based on historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or other methods. Probability definition is anoutcome of the risk analysis that can inform the risk response, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. References =
Risk Response - ISACA
Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference? - ISACA
Risk Response Strategies: Types & Examples (+ Free Template)
Risk Response Strategy - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?
IT management
Internal audit
Process owners
Senior management
Process owners are the best suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives, as they have the responsibility and authority over the design, execution, and performance of business processes. Process owners are also accountable for the risks and controls associated with their processes, and they can provide valuable input and feedback on the likelihood and impact of IT-related events on the process outcomes and objectives.
The other options are not the best suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives. IT management is responsible for the delivery and support of IT services and solutions, but they may not have the full visibility or understanding of the business objectives and processes. Internal audit is responsible for providing independent and objective assurance and consulting services on the effectiveness and efficiency of governance, risk management, and control processes, but they may not have the direct involvement or influence on the business objectives and processes. Senior management is responsible for settingthe strategic direction and objectives of the organization, but they maynot have the detailed knowledge or experience of the business processes and their risks and controls. References = IT Risk Manager: Skills and Roles & Responsibilities, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Managing information technology risk | Business Queensland
The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
Insufficient risk tolerance
Optimized control management
Effective risk management
Over-controlled environment
The situation where the cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss is best described as an over-controlled environment, as it indicates that the control is not cost-effective and may be unnecessary or excessive. Insufficient risk tolerance, optimized control management, and effective risk management are not the best descriptions, as they do not reflect the imbalance between the control cost and the potential loss. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 149.
Which of the following BEST prevents control gaps in the Zero Trust model when implementing in the environment?
Relying on multiple solutions for Zero Trust
Utilizing rapid development during implementation
Establishing a robust technical architecture
Starting with a large initial scope
Zero Trust Model:
Zero Trust security model assumes that threats can exist both inside and outside the network. Every access request must be authenticated, authorized, and encrypted.
Preventing Control Gaps:
A robust technical architecture ensures comprehensive and consistent security controls across the entire network.
It integrates various security measures, such as microsegmentation, strong authentication, continuous monitoring, and least privilege access, to create a unified defense strategy.
Other Options:
Relying on Multiple Solutions:Can lead to fragmentation and inconsistencies in security controls.
Utilizing Rapid Development:May introduce vulnerabilities if security is not properly integrated.
Starting with a Large Initial Scope:Can be overwhelming and difficult to manage effectively, leading to potential gaps.
References:
The CISSP Study Guide emphasizes the importance of a strong and cohesive technical architecture in implementing Zero Trust effectively (Sybex CISSP Study Guide, Chapter 8: Principles of Security Models, Design, and Capabilities) .
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to confirm once a risk action plan has been completed?
The risk register has been updated.
The risk tolerance has been recalibrated.
The risk has been mitigated to the intended level.
The risk owner has reviewed the outcomes.
Confirming that the risk has been mitigated to the intended level is paramount to ensure that the risk response was effective. This ties toRisk Mitigation and Treatment, ensuring that controls implemented have reduced the risk to within the organization's appetite. Updating registers or recalibrating tolerances comes secondary to verifying the effectiveness of mitigation.
An external security audit has reported multiple findings related to control noncompliance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management?
A recommendation for internal audit validation
Plans for mitigating the associated risk
Suggestions for improving risk awareness training
The impact to the organization’s risk profile
The risk profile of an organization is a summary of the key risks that affect its objectives, operations, and performance. The risk profile can help senior management understand the current and potential exposure of the organization to various sources of uncertainty, and prioritize the risk response accordingly. An external security audit can reveal multiple findings related to control noncompliance, which indicate that the existing controls are not adequate, effective, or aligned with the organization’s risk appetite. These findings can have a significant impact on the organization’s risk profile, as they can increase the likelihood and/or impact of adverse events, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, regulatory fines, reputational damage, etc. Therefore, the most important information that the risk practitioner should communicate to senior management is the impact to the organization’s risk profile, as it can help them make informed decisions about the risk response and allocation of resources. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Risk Profile, p. 193-195.
A risk practitioner is collaborating with key stakeholders to prioritize a large number of IT risk scenarios. Which scenarios should receive the PRIMARY focus?
Scenarios with the highest number of open audit issues
Scenarios with the highest frequency of incidents
Scenarios with the largest budget allocation for risk mitigation
Scenarios with the highest risk impact to the business
When prioritizing IT risks, scenarios with thehighest impact on business objectivesshould be the primary focus. ISACA’s CRISC guidance notes that risks should be prioritized by considering both their likelihood and their potential impact on organizational goals. This ensures resources and attention are focused on the most significant threats.
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Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?
Organizational strategy
Cost-benefit analysis
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Business requirements
The first factor that should be considered when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies is the organizational strategy. The organizational strategy defines the vision, mission, goals, and objectives of the enterprise, and provides the direction and guidance for its activities and decisions. The adoption of emerging technologies should be aligned with the organizational strategy, and support its achievement and performance. The organizational strategy also helps to determine the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise, and the criteria for evaluating the risks and benefits of the emerging technologies. Cost-benefit analysis, control self-assessment, and business requirements are also important factors to consider when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies, but they are not the first factor to consider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1.1, page 181
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 656.
Which of the following would MOST likely cause management to unknowingly accept excessive risk?
Satisfactory audit results
Risk tolerance being set too low
Inaccurate risk ratings
Lack of preventive controls
Inaccurate risk ratings would most likely cause management to unknowingly accept excessive risk, as they may not reflect the true level of risk exposure and impact, and may lead to inappropriate risk responses or decisions. Satisfactory audit results, risk tolerance being set too low, and lack of preventive controls are not the most likely causes, as they may indicate a different risk management issue, such as over-reliance on audit assurance, misalignment of risk tolerance and appetite, or insufficient risk mitigation, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following BEST enables senior management lo compare the ratings of risk scenarios?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Risk heat map
A risk heat map is the best tool to enable senior management to compare the ratings of risk scenarios, as it provides a visual representation of the risk level and priority of each risk scenario, based on the combination of the likelihood and impact ratings, and the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. Key risk indicators (KRIs), key performance indicators (KPIs), and control self-assessment (CSA) are not the best tools, as they are more related to the measurement, monitoring, or testing of the risk scenarios, respectively, rather than the comparison of the risk scenarios. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?
Segregation of duties
Monetary approval limits
Clear roles and responsibilities
Password policies
Segregation of duties is a key control for preventing and detecting fraudulent transactions, especially in a large organization where there are many employees and transactions involved. Segregation of duties means that no single person has the authority or ability to initiate, approve, execute, and record a transaction without the involvement or oversight of another person. This reduces the opportunity and incentive for fraud, as well as the risk of errors or omissions. Segregation of duties also facilitates the detection of fraud by creating an audit trail and increasing the likelihood of whistleblowing.
The other options are not as effective as segregation of duties for mitigating risk related to fraudulent transactions. Monetary approval limits (B) are useful for controlling the amount and frequency of transactions, but they do not prevent unauthorized or fraudulent transactions from occurring. Clear roles and responsibilities © are important for defining the expectations and accountabilities of employees, but they do not ensure that employees comply with them or that their actions are monitored and verified. Password policies (D) are essential for securing access to systems and data, but they do not prevent fraudsters from exploiting weak or compromised passwords or from using legitimate passwords for fraudulent purposes.
Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?
Risk self-assessment
Risk register
Risk dashboard
Risk map
A risk dashboard is a graphical tool that displays the key indicators and metrics of the organization’s IT risk profile, such as the risk level, status, trend, performance, etc., using charts, graphs, tables, etc. A risk dashboard can help the organization to monitor and communicate the IT risk profile, and to support the decision making and planning for the IT risk management.
A risk dashboard is the most effective tool in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because it provides a visual and intuitive representation of the changes and variations in the IT risk profile over time, and highlights the most significant and relevant IT risks that need to be addressed or monitored. A risk dashboard can also help to compare and contrast the IT risk profile with the organization’s IT objectives and risk appetite, and to identify the gaps or opportunities for improvement.
The other options are not the most effective tools in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because they do not provide the same level of visibility and clarity that a risk dashboard provides, and they may not be updated or aligned with the organization’s IT objectives and risk appetite.
A risk self-assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the IT risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations, using the input and feedback from the individuals or groups that are involved or responsible for the IT activities or functions. A risk self-assessment can help the organization to understand and document the IT risk profile, and to align it with the organization’s IT strategy and culture, but it is not the most effective tool in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because it may not reflect the current or accurate state and performance of the IT risk profile, and it may not cover all the relevant or emerging IT risks that may exist or arise.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified IT risks and their responses. It includes the IT risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc. A risk register can help the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, and communicate the IT risks and their responses, and to align them with the organization’s IT strategy and culture, but it is not the most effective tool in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because it may not provide a visual and intuitive representation of the changes and variations in the IT risk profile over time, and it may not highlight the most significant and relevant IT risks that need to be addressed or monitored.
A risk map is a graphical tool that displays the results of the IT risk analysis in a matrix format, using colors and symbols to indicate the level and priority of the IT risks. A risk map can show the distribution and comparison of the IT risks based on various criteria, such as likelihood, impact, category, source, etc. A risk map can help the organization to assess and prioritize the IT risks, and to design and implement appropriate controls or countermeasures to mitigate or prevent the IT risks, but it is not the most effective tool in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because it may not provide a visual and intuitive representation of the changes and variations in the IT risk profile over time, and it may not reflect the organization’s IT objectives and risk appetite. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 180
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when awarding a project to a third-party service provider whose servers are located offshore?
Difficulty of monitoring compliance due to geographical distance
Cost implications due to installation of network intrusion detection systems (IDSs)
Delays in incident communication
Potential impact on data governance
The BEST way to improve a risk register is to ensure the register:
is updated based upon significant events.
documents possible countermeasures.
contains the risk assessment completion date.
is regularly audited.
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, responses, and owners. It is a living document that should be updated regularly to reflect the changes in therisk environment and the status of the risk responses12. The best way to improve a risk register is to ensure that it is updated based upon significant events, such as:
New risks are identified or existing risks are eliminated
Risk probabilities or impacts change due to internal or external factors
Risk responses are implemented or modified
Risk owners or stakeholders change
Risk incidents or issues occur
Risk thresholds or appetite change
Risk reporting or communication requirements change
Updating the risk register based upon significant events can help to:
Maintain the accuracy and relevance of the risk information
Enhance the risk awareness and accountability of the risk owners and stakeholders
Support the risk monitoring and reporting activities
Facilitate the risk evaluation and decision-making processes
Improve the risk management performance and maturity
References =
Risk Register - Project Management Knowledge
How to Create a Risk Register: A Step-by-Step Guide - ProjectManager.com
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to understand about an organization in order to create an effective risk
awareness program?
Policies and procedures
Structure and culture
Key risk indicators (KRIs) and thresholds
Known threats and vulnerabilities
Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?
Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).
Define recovery time objectives (RTO).
Analyze capability maturity model gaps.
Simulate a disaster recovery.
A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of a disaster on the critical functions and processes of an organization1. A BIA helps to forecast the operational, financial, legal, and reputational impacts of a disaster, as well as the recovery priorities and resources needed to resume normal operations2. A BIA also helps to determine the recovery time objectives (RTO), which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the critical functions and processes after a disaster3. Therefore, developing a BIA is the most important step for an organization to forecast the effects of a disaster and plan for its recovery. Defining RTOs is a part of the BIA process, not a separate activity. Analyzing capability maturity model gaps is a method to assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s processes and practices, but it does not directly forecast the effects of adisaster4. Simulating a disaster recovery is a way to test and validate the recovery plans and procedures, but it does not forecast the effects of a disaster either5. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.3: Business Continuity Planning, pp. 227-238.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of emerging risk?
Performing scenario-based assessments
Reviewing audit reports annually
Conducting root cause analyses
Engaging a risk-focused audit team
Performing scenario-based assessments is a proactive approach that allows organizations to anticipate potential future events and assess their impact. This method helps in identifying emerging risks by exploring hypothetical situations and their possible outcomes. It enables organizations to prepare for unforeseen events by understanding how different scenarios could affect their operations and objectives.
Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?
Extending the date of a future action plan by two months
Retiring a risk scenario no longer used
Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted
Changing a risk owner
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
A risk register update is a change or modification to the information or status of the risks and their responses in the risk register. It may be triggered by the occurrence or resolution of a risk event, the identification or evaluation of a new or emerging risk, the implementation or completion of a risk response, the monitoring or review of the risk performance, etc.
The most important risk register update for senior management to review is avoiding a risk that was previously accepted, which means that the organization has decided to eliminate or withdraw from the risk exposure or activity that may cause the risk, instead of tolerating or retaining the risk as before. This may indicate a significant change in the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, objectives, or environment, and it may have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value.
The other options are not the most important risk register updates for senior management to review, because they do not indicate a significant change or impact on the organization’s risk profile or performance.
Extending the date of a future action plan by two months means that the organization has postponed the implementation or completion of the planned actions or measures to address the risk, due to some reasons or constraints. This may indicate a delay or deviation from the expected or desired risk outcome, but it may not have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value, unless the risk is very urgent or critical.
Retiring a risk scenario no longer used means that the organization has removed or discarded the risk scenario that is no longer relevant or applicable to the organization’s objectives or operations, due to some changes or developments. This may indicate a reduction or improvement in the organization’s risk exposure or level, but it may not have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value, unless the risk scenario was very significant or influential.
Changing a risk owner means that the organization has assigned or transferred the responsibility and accountability for the risk and its response to a different person or role, due to some reasons or circumstances. This may indicate a change or improvement in the organization’s risk governance or culture, but it may not have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value, unless the risk owner was very ineffective or inappropriate. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 160
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:
risk scenarios.
risk tolerance.
risk policy.
risk appetite.
The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through risk scenarios, because they are the descriptions and illustrations of the potential events or situations that may affect the achievement of the business objectives and processes. Risk scenarios can help to demonstrate how the risk profile, which is the summary and representation of the identified and assessed risks, is relatedand relevant to the business objectives and processes, and how the risk responses and controls are designed and implemented to support and enable the business objectives and processes. The other options are not the best way, because:
Option B: Risk tolerance is the level of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcome that the organization is willing to accept or endure, but it does not demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives, which is the process of ensuring that the risk profile and the business objectives are consistent and compatible with each other.
Option C: Risk policy is the document that defines the principles, guidelines, and requirements for the risk management process and activities in the organization, but it does not demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives, which is the process of showing and proving that the risk profile and the business objectives are coherent and integrated with each other.
Option D: Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to take or pursue in order to achieve its objectives and goals, but it does not demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives, which is the process of establishing and maintaining that the risk profile and the business objectives are aligned and balanced with each other. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 104.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?
To assign control ownership of risk
To provide a centralized view of risk
To identify opportunities to transfer risk
To mitigate organizational risk
According to ISACA, a risk register is a tool to record and track the identified risks, their ratings, responses, and status. The primary purpose of a risk register is to provide a centralized view of risk for the organization, as it enables the consolidation, communication, and reporting of risk information across different levels, units, and functions. A risk register can also support the risk management process, such as risk identification, assessment, treatment, monitoring, and review.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?
Costs and benefits
Local laws and regulations
Security features and support
Business strategies and needs
Local laws and regulations should be the primary consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (IoT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (PII), because they define the legal and ethical obligations and boundaries for the protection and privacy of PII, and the potential consequences of non-compliance or violation. IoT devices are devices that are connected to the internet and can collect, transmit, or process data, such as smart watches, cameras, sensors, or appliances. PII is information that can be used to identify, locate, or contact an individual, such as name, address, phone number, or email address. PII is considered sensitive and confidential, and may be subject to various laws and regulations that govern how it should be collected, processed, stored, shared, or disposed, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. Therefore, local laws and regulations should be the primary consideration, as they provide the legal and ethical framework and guidance for the use of IoT devices to collect and process PII, and the potential risks and impacts of non-compliance or violation. Costs and benefits, security features and support, and business strategies and needs are all possible considerations when assessing the risk of using IoT devices to collect and process PII, but they are not the primary consideration, as they may vary or conflict depending on the situation or context, and may not override the local laws and regulations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?
Making data available to a larger audience of customers
Data not being disposed according to the retention policy
Personal data not being de-identified properly
Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into
Data Privacy Principles:
Consent and Purpose Limitation: According to data privacy regulations like GDPR, data subjects must provide explicit consent for specific purposes. Using data for purposes beyond what was consented to violates these principles, posing significant compliance risks.
Transparency and Accountability: Organizations must be transparent about how they use personal data and ensure accountability in data processing. Using data without consent undermines this transparency and accountability.
Greatest Risk of Noncompliance:
Legal and Regulatory Risks: Using personal data without consent can lead to severe penalties under laws like GDPR and CPRA. These laws impose heavy fines for noncompliance, making this scenario the highest risk.
Reputational Damage: Unauthorized use of personal data can severely damage an organization’s reputation, leading to loss of customer trust and potential financial losses.
Operational Impact: Ensuring compliance with consent requirements is fundamental to an organization's data processing activities. Failure to do so can disrupt business operations and necessitate significant remediation efforts.
Comparison with Other Options:
Making Data Available to a Larger Audience of Customers: While potentially risky, this does not inherently violate data privacy principles if done within consented uses.
Data Not Being Disposed According to the Retention Policy: This poses risks related to data minimization and retention principles but is less severe than unauthorized data use.
Personal Data Not Being De-identified Properly: This is a significant risk but typically involves fewer direct legal and regulatory implications compared to using data without consent.
A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?
Review the risk profile
Review pokey change history
interview the control owner
Perform control testing
The best course of action to determine the root cause of the high number of policy exceptions approved by senior management is to interview the control owner. The control owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for designing, implementing, and monitoring the controls that enforce the policy. The control owner can provide insight into the reasons, circumstances, and impacts of the policy exceptions, and the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls. The control owner can also suggest possible improvements or alternatives to the policy or the controls. The other options are not as useful as interviewing the control owner, as they are related to the review, analysis, or testing of the policy or the controls, not the investigation or understanding of the policy exceptions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?
To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization
To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations
To optimize risk management resources across the organization
To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization
The most important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization is to have a unified approach to risk management across the organization. An ERM function is a centralized and coordinated function that oversees and supports the risk management activities of the organization, such as risk identification, assessment, response, monitoring, and reporting. An ERM function helps to ensure that the risk management process is consistent, comprehensive, and integrated with the organization’s strategy, objectives, and culture. An ERM function also helps to align the risk management activities with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and to provide a holistic view of the organization’s risk profile and exposure. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.1.1, page 131
An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?
Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.
Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.
Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.
Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.
The risk practitioner’s BEST course of action is to validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change, because outsourcing the backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider does not eliminate the risk, but rather transfers it to the service provider. The risk practitioner should verify that the service provider has adequate controls and capabilities to handle the backup and recovery procedures, and that the contractual agreement specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties. The risk practitioner should also update the risk register to reflect the new risk owner and the residual risk level. The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Option A: Accepting the risk and documenting contingency plans for data disruption is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still responsible for the risk, even though it has been transferred to the service provider. Contingency plans are also reactive measures, rather than proactive ones.
Option B: Removing the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk has been eliminated, which is not the case. The risk still exists, but it has been transferred to the service provider. The risk register should reflect the current risk status and ownership.
Option C: Mitigating the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still involved in the risk management process, even though the risk has been transferred to the service provider. The risk practitioner should rely on the service provider’s controls and capabilities, andmonitor their performance and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 196.
Mapping open risk issues to an enterprise risk heat map BEST facilitates:
risk response.
control monitoring.
risk identification.
risk ownership.
A risk heat map is a visualization tool that shows the likelihood and impact of different risks on a matrix, using colors to indicate the level of risk. A risk heat map can help prioritize the risks that need the most attention and resources, and support the decision making and planning process for risk management. Mapping open risk issues to an enterprise risk heat map best facilitates risk response, which is the process of selecting and implementing the appropriate actions to address the risks. Risk response can include strategies such as mitigating, transferring, avoiding, or accepting risks. By mapping open risk issues to a risk heat map, an organization can identify the most suitable risk response for each risk, based on the risk appetite, criteria, and objectives. A risk heat map can also help evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, by showing the change in the level of residual risk after the risk response has been executed. References = What Is a Risk Heat Map & How Can It Help Your Risk Management Strategy, What Is a Risk Heat Map, and How Can It Help Your Risk Management Strategy, Risk Map (Risk Heat Map), How To Use A Risk Heat Map.
Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?
Risk policy requirements
A risk register
Control self-assessment
Key performance Indicators
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics that measure the achievement of objectives and the effectiveness of processes. KPIs can help management report on risk by providing quantitative and qualitative information on the risk profile, the risk appetite, the risk response, and the risk outcomes. KPIs can also help monitor and communicate the progress and results of risk management activities, such as risk identification, assessment, mitigation, and reporting. KPIs can be aligned with the strategic,operational, and tactical goals of the organization, and can be tailored to the specific needs and expectations of different stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Risk Indicators and Key Performance Indicators, p. 197-199.
Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?
To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors
To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk
To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance
To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the main reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk is to ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization’srisk appetite and risk tolerance. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, while the risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures linked to objectives. Continuous monitoring is a process that tracks the security state of an information system on an ongoing basis and maintains the security authorization for the system over time. Continuous monitoring helps to:
Provide ongoing assurance that the implemented security controls are operating effectively and efficiently
Detect changes in the risk profile of the information system and the environment of operation
Identify new or emerging threats and vulnerabilities that may affect the information system
Support risk-based decisions by providing timely and relevant risk information to stakeholders
Facilitate the implementation of corrective actions and risk mitigation strategies
Promote accountability and transparency in the risk management process
Enhance the security awareness and culture within the organization
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 213-2141
A cloud service provider has completed upgrades to its cloud infrastructure to enhance service availability. Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) for management to monitor?
Peak demand on the cloud service during business hours
Percentage of technology upgrades resulting in security breaches
Number of incidents with downtime exceeding contract threshold
Percentage of servers not patched per policy
Monitoring the number of incidents with downtime exceeding the contract threshold is a critical KRI for assessing the effectiveness of infrastructure upgrades aimed at enhancing service availability. This metric directly reflects the provider's ability to meet agreed-upon service levels and helps identify areas requiring further improvement.
Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?
Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations
Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit
Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value
Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance
Effective risk reporting to the board of directors requires communication that aligns with the organization's strategic goals and business value. By correlating risk information to corporate objectives, the board can better understand the implications of risks on the organization's performance and make informed decisions. This approach ensures that risk discussions are relevant and meaningful at the executive level.
Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?
Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios
Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution
Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans
Prioritization for implementing the action plans
The management’s primary consideration when approving risk response action plans should be the changes in residual risk after implementing the plans. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. It indicates the degree of exposure or uncertainty that the organization still faces, and the potential impact or consequences of the risk events. The management should evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the risk responses, and decide whether the residual risk is acceptable or not2. The management should also compare the residual risk with the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives3. The management should ensure that the residual risk is aligned with the risk appetite, and that the risk responses are consistent and proportional to the risk level4.
The other options are not the primary consideration when approving risk response action plans, because:
Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios is a desirable but not essential criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how a risk event could occur and what the consequences could be5. They can help to understand and communicate the nature and impact of the risks, and to design and evaluate the risk responses6. However, not all risk scenarios are equally likely or relevant, and some risk scenarios may be too complex or improbable to address. Therefore, the ability of the action plansto address multiple risk scenarios is not the primary consideration, but rather a secondary or supplementary one.
Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution is a practical but not critical criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk treatment is the process of selecting and applying appropriate measures to modify the risk7. It can involve different strategies, such as avoid, reduce, transfer, or accept the risk8. The ease of implementing the risk treatment solution depends on various factors, such as the availability of resources, the feasibility of the solution, or the cooperation of the stakeholders. However, the ease of implementation is not the primary consideration, but rather a supporting or facilitating one.
Prioritization for implementing the action plans is a useful but not vital criterion for approving risk response action plans. Prioritization is the process of ranking the action plans according to their importance, urgency, or impact. It can help to allocate the resources, schedule the activities, and monitor the progress of the action plans. However, prioritization is not the primary consideration, but rather a subsequent or follow-up one.
References =
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack - ISACA
Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
[Prioritization - CIO Wiki]
A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:
include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,
include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,
include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,
publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.
A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment, such as new or emerging risks, changes in risk levels, risk responses, or control effectiveness. The best way to engage stakeholder attention is to include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs, meaning that the report should highlight the key points and findings that are relevant and important for the stakeholder’s role, responsibility, and interest. The summary should also explain how the information affects the stakeholder’s objectives, expectations, and decisions. The summary should be concise, clear, and compelling, and should capture the stakeholder’s attention and interest. The report can also include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks, a roadmap to achieve operational excellence, or an option to publish the report on-demand for stakeholders, but these are not the best ways to engage stakeholder attention, as they may not be directly related to the stakeholder’s needs or may overwhelm the stakeholder with too much information. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, p. 124-125
When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?
An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events
An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations
A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls
A justification of corrective action taken
An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events is the most important information for the person responsible for managing the incident, as it can help to identify the source, scope, and impact of the security breach, and to determine the appropriate response actions. An analysis of the security logs can also provide evidence for forensic investigation and legal action, and help to prevent or mitigate future incidents by identifying the root causes and vulnerabilities. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 235. CRISC by Isaca Actual FreeExam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 235. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 235.
The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:
Identify new or emerging risk issues.
Satisfy audit requirements.
Survey and analyze historical risk data.
Understand internal and external threat agents.
The primary objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis is to identify new or emerging risk issues that may affect the enterprise’s objectives, processes, or resources. This helps to update the risk profile and prioritize the risk responses accordingly. Satisfying audit requirements, surveying and analyzing historical risk data, and understanding internal and external threat agents are secondary objectives that support the primary objective of risk identification. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, page 22; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 64.
A legacy application used for a critical business function relies on software that has reached the end of extended support Which of the following is the MOST effective control to manage this application?
Subscribe to threat intelligence to monitor external attacks.
Apply patches for a newer version of the application.
Segment the application within the existing network.
Increase the frequency of regular system and data backups.
Segmenting the application within the existing network is the most effective control to manage a legacy application that relies on software that has reached the end of extended support, as it isolates the application from the rest of the network and reduces the attack surface and the potential impact of a compromise. Subscribing to threat intelligence, applying patches for a newer version of the application, and increasing the frequency of regular system and data backups are not the most effective controls, as theymay not address the root cause of the risk, or may introduce additional costs or complexities, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?
Internal audit reports
Access reviews
Threat modeling
Root cause analysis
The risk landscape is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations, and create or influence the risks that the organization faces. The risk landscape is dynamic and complex, and it may change over time due to various drivers or events, such as technological innovations, market trends, regulatory changes, customer preferences, competitor actions, environmental issues, etc.
The best way to identify changes to the risk landscape is threat modeling, which is the process of identifying, analyzing, and prioritizing the potential threats or sources of harm that may exploit the vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the organization’s assets, processes, or systems, and cause adverse impacts or consequences for the organization. Threat modeling can help the organization to anticipate and prepare for the changes in the risk landscape, and to design and implement appropriate controls or countermeasures to mitigate or prevent the threats.
Threat modeling can be performed using various techniques, such as brainstorming, scenario analysis, attack trees, STRIDE, DREAD, etc. Threat modeling can also be integrated with the risk management process, and aligned with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite.
The other options are not the best ways to identify changes to the risk landscape, because they do not provide the same level of proactivity, comprehensiveness, and effectiveness of identifying and addressing the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization.
Internal audit reports are the documents that provide the results and findings of the internal audits that are performed to assess and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. Internal audit reports can provide useful information and recommendations on the current state and performance of the organization, and identify the issues or gaps that need to be addressed or improved, but they are not the best way to identify changes to the risk landscape, because they areusually retrospective and reactive, and they may not cover all the relevant or emerging threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization.
Access reviews are the processes of verifying and validating the access rights and privileges that are granted to the users or entities that interact with the organization’s assets, processes, orsystems, and ensuring that they are appropriate and authorized. Access reviews can provide useful information and feedback on the security and compliance of the organization’s access management, and identify and revoke any unauthorized or unnecessary access rights or privileges, but they are not the best way to identify changes to the risk landscape, because they are usually periodic and specific, and they may not cover all the relevant or emerging threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization.
Root cause analysis is the process of identifying and understanding the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in a problem or incident that has occurred or may occur in the organization. Root cause analysis can provide useful insights and solutions on the origin and nature of the problem or incident, and prevent or reduce its recurrence or impact, but it is not the best way to identify changes to the risk landscape, because it is usually retrospective and reactive, and it may not cover all the relevant or emerging threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 167
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?
Using the risk management process
Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance
Reviewing results of the annual company external audit
Adopting internationally accepted controls
Using the risk management process will best ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives, as it involves identifying, assessing, responding, and monitoring the risks that may affect the achievement of the business goals and objectives, and designing and implementing controls to mitigate those risks. Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance, reviewing results of the annual company external audit, and adopting internationally accepted controls are also good practices, but they are not the best, as they do not necessarily align the controls with the business goals and objectives. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 146.
Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?
Periodic assessments
Change management
Awareness training
Policy updates
Continuous risk management process improvement is the practice of evaluating and enhancing the risk management process on a regular basis, to ensure that it is effective, efficient, and aligned with the business objectives and strategy. Continuous risk management processimprovement can help identify and address the gaps, weaknesses, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and ensure that the process is responsive and adaptable to the changing risk environment. The most effective method for continuous risk management process improvement is periodic assessments, which are systematic and objective evaluations of the risk management process, performed at predefined intervals or after significant events. Periodic assessments can help measure and monitor the performance and maturity of the risk management process, using criteria such as the risk management framework, standards, policies, procedures, methods, tools, roles, responsibilities, and results. Periodic assessments can also help identify and analyze the strengths, weaknesses, threats, and opportunities of the risk management process, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement. Periodic assessments can also help communicate and report the status and progress of the risk management process to the stakeholders, and obtain their input and support for improvement actions. References = Continuous Risk Management Guidebook, p. 7-8, ISO 31000: riskmanagement and its continuous improvement, How Continuous Monitoring Drives Risk Management.
When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?
identification of control requirements
Alignment to business objectives
Consideration of new business strategies
inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance
Alignment to business objectives is the most important factor when developing a business case for a proposed security investment, because it demonstrates how the investment will support the enterprise’s mission, vision, and goals. A business case should show how the security investment will contribute to the value creation, risk reduction, and performance improvement of the enterprise. The other options are not the most important factors, although they may also be included in the business case. The identification of control requirements, the consideration of new business strategies, and the inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance are secondary factors that depend on the alignment to business objectives. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers
Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering?
Automated controls
Security awareness training
Multifactor authentication
Employee sanctions
The best control to reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering is security awareness training. Security awareness training is a program that educates and trains employees on the common types, techniques, and indicators of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, baiting, pretexting, and quid pro quo12. Security awareness training also teaches employees how to protect themselves and the organization from social engineering attacks, such as by verifying the identity and legitimacy of the sender or caller, avoiding clicking on suspicious links or attachments, reporting any suspicious or unusual activity, and following the organization’s security policies and procedures. Security awareness training can help to reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering, because it can increase the employees’ knowledge, skills, and confidence in recognizing and responding to social engineering attempts, and it can also foster a culture of security and responsibility among the employees. The other options are not the best control, although they may be useful or complementary to security awareness training. Automated controls are technical or procedural controls that are performed by a system or a device without human intervention, such as firewalls, antivirus software, encryption, and backups. Automated controls can help to protect the network from external or internal threats, but they may not be effective against social engineering attacks, which rely on humaninteraction and manipulation.Multifactor authentication is a security mechanism that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity and access a system or a service, such as a password, a token, a fingerprint, or a facial recognition. Multifactor authentication can help to prevent unauthorized access to the network, but it may not prevent social engineering attacks, which may persuade users to share or compromise their authentication factors. Employee sanctions are disciplinary actions that are taken against employees who violate the organization’s security policies and procedures, such as warnings, fines, suspensions, or terminations. Employee sanctions can help to deter and punish employees who fall victim to or facilitate social engineering attacks, but they may not prevent or reduce the likelihood of social engineering attacks, and they may also create a negative or fearful work environment. References = Avoiding Social Engineering and Phishing Attacks | CISA, What is Social Engineering | Attack Techniques & Prevention Methods …, 10 Types of Social Engineering Attacks - CrowdStrike
Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization's cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?
Analyzing cyber intelligence reports
Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants
Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register
Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment
The best tool to help prioritize investment efforts in the organization’s cybersecurity program is to review the outcome of the latest security risk assessment. A security risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s information assets and systems. By reviewing the outcome of the security risk assessment, senior management can identify the most critical and urgent risks, and allocate the resources and fundsaccordingly. Analyzing cyber intelligence reports, engaging independent cybersecurity consultants, and increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register are other possible tools, but they are not as effective as reviewing the outcome of the security risk assessment. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?
The methodology used to perform the risk assessment
Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment
Date and status of the last project milestone
The individuals assigned ownership of controls
Updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project must primarily capture action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment.
Risk Register Purpose:
Documentation of Risks:The risk register is a central repository for all identified risks and their respective treatment plans. It ensures that all risks are documented, tracked, and managed throughout the project lifecycle.
Action Plans:It is crucial to document action plans for risks that require treatment. This ensures that there are clear strategies in place to mitigate or manage these risks.
Importance of Action Plans:
Mitigation and Management:Action plans detail the steps necessary to mitigate identified risks, providing a clear path for risk management. This is vital for ensuring that risks do not negatively impact the project.
Accountability and Tracking:Including action plans in the risk register assigns responsibility and timelines for risk treatment, which is essential for accountability and tracking progress.
In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:
Review and evaluate the risk management program.
Ensure risk and controls are effectively managed.
Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.
Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.
The second line of defense provides oversight functions, ensuring that risks and controls are effectively managed. This includes policy enforcement, compliance monitoring, and risk program evaluation, aligning with the organizational risk governance structure as described in the CRISC framework.
Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?
Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.
Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.
Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.
Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, performing the assessment as it would normally be done is the best approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system, because it ensures that the risk practitioner maintains their objectivity, integrity, and professionalism. The risk practitioner should not compromise the quality or accuracy of the risk assessment, regardless of any external pressure or influence. The risk practitioner should follow the established risk assessment methodology and standards, and report the risk results and recommendations based on the facts and evidence. The other options are not the best approaches, because they may affect the credibility or reliability of the risk assessment. Conducting an abbreviated version of the assessment may result in incomplete or insufficient risk information, which may lead to poor riskdecisions or actions. Reporting the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation may escalate the situation or create a conflict of interest, which may hinder the risk assessment process or outcome. Recommending an internal auditor perform the review may transfer the responsibility or accountability of the risk practitioner, which may undermine their role or authority. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 74.
Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business
Cost of regulatory compliance
Projected impact of current business on future business
Expected costs for recovering the business
A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and assesses the effects that accidents, emergencies, disasters, and other unplanned, negative events could have on a business. The BIA (sometimes also called business impact assessment) predicts how a business will be affected by everything from a hurricane to a labor strike1.
One of the data that would be used when performing a BIA is the expected costs for recovering the business. This data can help to estimate the amount of resources and funds that would be needed to restore the normal operations and functions of the business after a disruption. The expected costs for recovering the business can include:
The costs of repairing or replacing damaged or lost assets, such as equipment, inventory, or facilities
The costs of hiring or training additional staff, or outsourcing some tasks or services
The costs of implementing alternative or backup systems or processes, such as cloud computing or manual procedures
The costs of communicating and coordinating with customers, suppliers, partners, regulators, and other stakeholders
The costs of complying with legal or contractual obligations, or paying fines or penalties
The costs of mitigating or preventing further losses or damages, such as insurance premiums or security measures23
The expected costs for recovering the business can help to determine the priority and urgency of the recovery activities, and to allocate the available resources and funds accordingly. The expected costs for recovering the business can also help to evaluate the cost-effectiveness and feasibility of the recovery strategies and options, and to justify the investment in the business continuity planning and management4.
The other options are not the data that would be used when performing a BIA, but rather the data that would be used for other purposes or processes. A cost-benefit analysis of running the current business is a data that would be used to compare the advantages and disadvantages of different business decisions or alternatives, such as launching a new product or service, or expanding to a new market. A cost-benefit analysis can help to assess the profitability and viability of the current business, but it does not measure the impact of a disruption on the business5. A cost of regulatory compliance is a data that would be used toestimate the amount of resources and funds that would be required to meet the rules and standards set by the authorities or agencies that govern the business, such as laws, regulations, or policies. A cost of regulatory compliance can help to ensure the legality and accountability of the business, but it does not measure the impactof a disruption on the business. A projected impact of current business on future business is a data that would be used to forecast the potential outcomes and consequences of the current business activities or strategies on the future business performance and growth, such as sales, revenue, market share, or customer satisfaction. A projected impact of current business on future business can help to plan and optimize the future business, but it does not measure the impact of a disruption on the current business. References =
Business Impact Analysis | Ready.gov
Business Impact Analysis Toolkit | Smartsheet
Business Impact Analysis (BIA): Prepare for Anything [2023] • Asana
How To Conduct Business Impact Analysis in 8 Easy Steps - G2
Cost Benefit Analysis - ISACA
[Regulatory Compliance - ISACA]
[Impact Analysis - ISACA]
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?
Reviewing the organization's policies and procedures
Interviewing groups of key stakeholders
Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders
Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues
The best approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application is to interview groups of key stakeholders, as this allows the risk practitioner to obtain direct and detailed information on the business processes, dependencies, resources, and requirements that are supported by the application. The risk practitioner can also clarify any doubts, address any concerns, and validate any assumptions during the interviews. The BIA is a process of identifying and analyzing the potential effects of disruptive events on the critical business functions and objectives. The BIA helps to determine the recovery priorities, strategies, and targets for the business continuity plan. The other options are not the bestapproaches for performing a BIA, although they may be useful or complementary methods. Reviewing the organization’s policies and procedures can provide some background and context for the BIA, but it may not reflect the current or accurate situation of the business processes and the application. Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders can be a convenient and efficient way to collect some data for the BIA, but it may not capture the complexity and nuances of the business processes and the application. Accepting IT personnel’s view of business issues can be biased and incomplete, as they may not have the full understanding or perspective of the business needs and expectations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 58.
While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:
control is ineffective and should be strengthened
risk is inefficiently controlled.
risk is efficiently controlled.
control is weak and should be removed.
Risk is inefficiently controlled when the annual cost of the control exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk, as this means that the organization is spending more on the control than the potential loss that the control is supposed to prevent or reduce. This indicates that the control is not cost-effective or optimal, and that the organization should consider alternative or complementary controls that can lower the cost or increase the benefit of the risk management. Control is ineffective and should be strengthened when the control does not reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk to an acceptable level, regardless of the cost. Risk is efficiently controlled when the annual cost of the control is equal to or less than the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk, as this means that the organization is spending less or equal on the control than the potential loss that the control is supposed to prevent or reduce. Control is weak and should be removed when the control does not provide any benefit or value to the risk management,regardless of the cost. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question205; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 205.
An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture to improve its security posture. Which of the following is the MOST important input to develop the architecture?
Cloud services risk assessments
The organization's threat model
Access control logs
Multi-factor authentication (MFA) architecture
A new risk practitioner finds that decisions for implementing risk response plans are not being made. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this situation?
Risk ownership is not being assigned properly.
The organization has a high level of risk appetite.
Risk management procedures are outdated.
The organization's risk awareness program is ineffective.
Which of the following controls BEST enables an organization to ensure a complete and accurate IT asset inventory?
Prohibiting the use of personal devices for business
Performing network scanning for unknown devices
Requesting an asset list from business owners
Documenting asset configuration baselines
IT asset inventory is the process of tracking and managing the financial, physical, licensing, and contractual aspects of IT assets throughout their life cycle1. IT assets include hardware, software, and network components that an organization values and uses to achieve its objectives2. A complete and accurate IT asset inventory can help an organization to optimize its IT budget, reduce security risks, ensure compliance, and improve performance3.
One of the best controls to enable an organization to ensure a complete and accurate IT asset inventory is performing network scanning for unknown devices. Network scanning is the process of identifying and collecting information about the devices connected to a network, such as their IP addresses, operating systems, open ports, services, and vulnerabilities4. Network scanning can help an organization to:
Discover and inventory all the IT assets on the network, including those that are unauthorized, unmanaged, or hidden
Detect and remove any rogue or malicious devices that may pose a threat to the network security or performance
Update and verify the asset inventory data regularly and automatically, and alert on any changes or discrepancies
Support the asset lifecycle management and maintenance activities, such as patching, upgrading, or retiring assets5
References = IT Asset Valuation, Risk Assessment and Control Implementation Model, ITAM: The ultimate guide to IT asset management, Navigating Security Threats with IT Inventory Management, Network Scanning - Wikipedia, 8 Best IT Asset Management Software (2024)
Which of the following statements in an organization's current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?
Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.
New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.
A risk profile report is a document that summarizes the current status and trends of the risks that an organization faces, as well as the actions taken or planned to manage them1. A risk profile report is a useful tool for senior management to monitor and oversee the organization’s risk management performance and to make informed decisions and adjustments as needed2. One of the key components ofa risk profile report is the key performance indicators (KPIs), which are metrics used to measure andevaluate the achievement of the organization’s objectives and strategies3. KPIs are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and they have specific targets or benchmarks that indicate the desired level of performance4. Therefore, if the KPIs are outside of targets, it means that the organization is not meeting its objectives and strategies, and that there may be gaps or issues in the risk management process or the risk response actions. This is a cause for further action by senior management, as they need to investigate the root causes of the deviation, assess the impact and implications of the underperformance, and take corrective or preventive measures to improve the situation and bringthe KPIs back to the targets. Incomplete KPI trend data, new KRIs, and lagging KRIs are not the most critical statements in a risk profile report that require further action by senior management, as they do not directly indicate a failure or a problem in the risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Incomplete KPI trend data means that there is missing or insufficient information on the historical or projected changes in the KPIs over time. This may affect the accuracy and reliability of the risk profile report, but it does not necessarily mean that the KPIs are outside of targets or that the objectives and strategies are not met. Senior management may need to request or obtain the complete KPI trend data, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. New KRIs means that there are additional or revised metrics used to measure and monitor the level of risk associated with a particular process, activity, or system within the organization. This may reflect the changes or updates in the risk environment, the risk appetite and tolerance, or the risk assessment methodology. However, new KRIs do not directly indicate a failure or a problem inthe risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Senior management may need to review and approve the new KRIs, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. Lagging KRIs means that there are metrics that measure and monitor the level of risk after a risk event has occurred or a risk response has been implemented. This may provide useful feedback and lessons learned for the risk management process, but it does not directly indicate a failure or a problem in the risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Senior management may need to analyze and evaluate the lagging KRIs, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Risk Reporting, pp. 201-205.
Which of the following is MOST useful when performing a quantitative risk assessment?
RACI matrix
Financial models
Management support
Industry benchmarking
Which of the following approaches will BEST help to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training?
Piloting courses with focus groups
Using reputable third-party training programs
Reviewing content with senior management
Creating modules for targeted audiences
The best approach to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training is to create modules for targeted audiences. This means that the risk awareness training should be customized and tailored to the specific needs, roles, and responsibilities of different groups of staff, such as business owners, process owners, IT staff, or external parties. Creating modules for targeted audiences helps to ensure that the risk awareness training is relevant, engaging, and applicable to the participants, and that it covers the appropriate level of detail and complexity. It also helps to enhance the learning outcomes and retention of the risk awareness training, and to foster aculture of risk awareness and responsibility within the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 2491
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?
Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests
Decreased number of reported security incidents
Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations
Number of employees that complete security training
The best indicator of an effective IT security awareness program is the decreased success rate of internal phishing tests. Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick the users into revealing their personal or confidential information, or clicking on malicious links or attachments, by impersonating a legitimate entity or person. Internal phishing tests are simulated phishing attacks that are conducted by the enterprise to test the awareness and behavior of the employees in response to phishing emails. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests means that fewer employees fall victim to the phishing attempts, and that they are more aware and vigilant of the phishing threats and techniques. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests also implies that the IT security awareness program has effectively educated and trained the employees on how to recognize and report phishing emails, and how to protect themselves and the enterprise from phishing attacks. A decreased number of reported security incidents, a number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations, and a number of employees that complete security training are not as good indicators of an effective IT security awareness program as a decreased success rate of internal phishing tests, as they do not directly measure theawareness and behavior of the employees in relation to phishing, and may be influenced by otherfactors such as reporting mechanisms, enforcement policies, and training availability. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 220.
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?
Distributed data sources
Manual data extraction
Incorrect data selection
Excessive data volume
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, data selection is the process of choosing the appropriate data sources and variables for data analysis. Data selection is the most critical step in data analytics, as it determines the quality and validity of the results and insights derived from the analysis. Incorrect data selection is the greatest risk associated with the use of data analytics, as it can lead to inaccurate, incomplete, irrelevant, or biased outcomes that can adversely affectthe decision making and performance of the organization. Incorrect data selection can also cause legal, regulatory, ethical, or reputational issues for the organization, if the data used for analysis is not authorized, reliable, or compliant. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 255.
Which of the following is the MOST important component in a risk treatment plan?
Technical details
Target completion date
Treatment plan ownership
Treatment plan justification
A risk treatment plan is a document that outlines the approach and actions to be taken to address the unacceptable risks identified in the risk assessment process1. A risk treatment plan should include the following components2:
The risk identification number and description
The risk treatment option chosen (e.g., avoid, reduce, share, or accept)
The risk treatment owner, who is responsible for implementing and monitoring the risk treatment
The risk treatment actions, which are the specific tasks or steps to be performed to execute the risk treatment
The risk treatment resources, which are the human, financial, or technical resources required to support the risk treatment
The risk treatment target date, which is the deadline for completing the risk treatment
The risk treatment performance indicators, which are the measures to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk treatment
The risk treatment status, which is the current progress or outcome of the risk treatment
Among the four options given, the most important component in a risk treatment plan is the treatment plan ownership. This is because the treatment plan ownership defines theaccountability and authority for the risk treatment, and ensures that the risk treatment actions are carried out as planned and reported as required3. The treatment plan ownership also facilitates the communication and coordination among the stakeholders involved in the risk treatment, and enables the escalation and resolution of any issues or challenges that may arise during the risk treatment process4.
References = Risk Treatment (With Examples), ISO 27001 Risk Assessment & Risk Treatment: The Complete Guide, Risk Management Framework - Treat Risks, Risk Management Plan Components
A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:
conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.
identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.
modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.
collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the best course of action when a risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations is to conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria, which is a method of comparing the current state of compliance with the desired or required state of compliance. Conducting a gap analysis against compliance criteria helps to:
Identify and evaluate the differences or discrepancies between the compliance requirements and the actual compliance practices and capabilities
Assess the impact and severity of the compliance gaps on the organization’s objectives and performance
Prioritize the compliance gaps based on their urgency and importance
Develop and implement appropriate actions or measures to close or reduce the compliance gaps
Monitor and measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the actions or measures taken to address the compliance gaps
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 34-351
The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:
the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value
there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control
the mitigation measures create compounding effects
the control eliminates the risk
The most important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value, because this determines the cost-benefit ratio of the control. A control should not be implemented if the cost of implementing and maintaining it is higher than the expected benefit of reducing the risk exposure. The other options are not the most important considerations, although they may also influence the control selection process. The availability of internal resources, the potential compounding effects, and the possibility of eliminating the risk are secondary factors that depend on the cost and value of the control. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?
Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.
Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.
Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.
Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract
Specifying cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract is the most effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud, because it establishes the roles and responsibilities of the cloud service provider and the customer in case of a data breach, and defines the compensation or remediation measures that the cloud service provider should provide. This control also creates an incentive for the cloud service provider to implement adequate security measures to protect the customer’s data and comply with the relevant laws and regulations. The other options are not the most effective controls, although they may also be helpful in reducing the risk of data privacy breaches. Establishing baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider, requiring the cloud service provider to disclose past data privacy breaches, and ensuring the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment are examples of preventive or detective controls that aim to reduce the likelihood or impact of a data breach, but they do not address the accountability or liability of the cloud service provider in case of a data breach. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Prior to selecting key performance indicators (KPIs), itis MOST important to ensure:
trending data is available.
process flowcharts are current.
measurement objectives are defined.
data collection technology is available.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics that provide information about the achievement of specific goals or objectives.
Prior to selecting KPIs, it is most important to ensure that measurement objectives are defined. This means that the desired outcomes and targets of the goals or objectives are clearly stated and aligned with the organization’s strategy and vision.
Defining measurement objectives helps to select the most relevant and meaningful KPIs that can accurately reflect the progress and performance of the goals or objectives. It also helps to establish the criteria and standards for evaluating and reporting the results and outcomes of the KPIs.
The other options are not the most important things to ensure prior to selecting KPIs. They are either secondary or not essential for KPIs.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 16
Information Technology & Security, page 10
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 8
To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:
obtain the appropriate stakeholders' commitment.
align the project with the IT risk framework.
obtain approval from business process owners.
update the risk register on a regular basis.
From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?
Residual risk is reduced.
Staff costs are reduced.
Operational costs are reduced.
Inherent risk is reduced.
From a risk management perspective, the primary benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools is that they reduce the inherent risk, which is the risk that exists before any controls are applied. Automated system configuration validation tools can help to ensure that the system settings are consistent, compliant, and secure, and that they match the predefined standards and policies. This can reduce the likelihood and impact of errors, misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, or deviations that may compromise the system’s functionality, performance, or integrity. The other options are not the primary benefits of using automated system configuration validation tools, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the controls are applied, and it may not be directly affected by the automated system configuration validation tools. Staff costs and operational costs are related to the efficiency and economy of the system configuration process, but they are not the main risk management objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 150.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining the appropriate data retention period throughout the data management life cycle?
Data storage and collection methods
Data owner preferences
Legal and regulatory requirements
Choice of encryption algorithms
Legal and regulatory requirements are paramount when determining data retention periods. Compliance with laws such as GDPR, HIPAA, or industry-specific regulations ensures that data is retained appropriately and disposed of when no longer necessary, thereby mitigating legal risks.
Which of the following BEST mitigates reputational risk associated with disinformation campaigns against an organization?
Monitoring digital platforms that disseminate inaccurate or misleading news stories
Engaging public relations personnel to debunk false stories and publications
Restricting the use of social media on corporate networks during specific hours
Providing awareness training to understand and manage these types of attacks
Understanding Reputational Risk:
Reputational risk arises from negative public perception, which can be fueled by disinformation campaigns. These campaigns spread false or misleading information about an organization, potentially damaging its reputation.
Mitigating Reputational Risk:
The best way to mitigate this risk is to actively counteract false information and restore public trust. This involves debunking false stories and correcting misinformation promptly and effectively.
Role of Public Relations:
Engaging public relations (PR) personnel is crucial in managing the organization's reputation. PR professionals are skilled in crafting messages, dealing with media, and using communication strategies to address and correct false narratives.
PR personnel can issue press releases, organize press conferences, and leverage social media to reach a wide audience, ensuring the correct information is disseminated.
Monitoring and Awareness Training:
While monitoring digital platforms and providing awareness training are important, they are more preventive measures. Monitoring helps in early detection, and training aids in internalmanagement of such risks. However, they do not actively counteract the false information once it is in the public domain.
Restricting Social Media:
Restricting social media usage on corporate networks does not address the core issue of disinformation campaigns. It may reduce internal risks but does not mitigate external reputational damage.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual discusses strategies for managing reputational risk and highlights the importance of proactive communication and public relations efforts (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.3.4 The Value of Risk Communication).
Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?
Collecting data for IT risk assessment
Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile
Utilizing a balanced scorecard
Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis
The best method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization is to establish and communicate the IT risk profile. An IT risk profile is a document that summarizes the key IT risks that the organization faces or accepts, and their likelihood, impact, and priority. An IT risk profile helps to identify and prioritize the most critical or relevant IT risks, and to align them with the organization’s objectives, strategy, and risk appetite. Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile is the best method to maintain a common view of IT risk, because it helps to create a shared understanding and awareness of the IT risks among the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. Establishing andcommunicating the IT risk profile also helps to facilitate the IT risk decision-making and reporting processes, and to monitor and control the IT risk performance and improvement. Theother options are not the best method to maintain a common view of IT risk, although they may be part of or derived from the IT risk profile. Collecting data for IT risk assessment, utilizing a balanced scorecard, and performing and publishing an IT risk analysis are all activitiesthat can help to support or update the IT risk profile, but they are not the best method to maintain a common view of IT risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, page 1-15.
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?
Inability to allocate resources efficiently
Inability to identify the risk owner
Inability to complete the risk register
Inability to identify process experts
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete is the inability to identify the risk owner. The risk owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to manage a specific risk or a group of related risks. The risk owner helps to identify, assess, and respond to the risks, and to monitor and report on the risk performance and improvement. The risk owner also helps to communicate and coordinate the risk management activities with the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. The risk owner is usually identified in the process documentation, which describes the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for each process. The inability to identify the risk owner is a major concern for the risk practitioner, because it may affect the accountability, transparency, and effectiveness of the risk management process, and may lead to confusion, conflicts, or gaps in the risk management activities. The other options are not as concerning as the inability to identify the risk owner, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the risk management process. Inability to allocate resources efficiently, inability to complete the risk register, and inability to identify process experts are all factors that could affect the quality and timeliness of the risk management process, but they do not necessarily affect the authority and responsibility of the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-11.
Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?
Proportion of end users having more than one account
Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)
Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts
Percentage of accounts that have not been activated
User Access Management:
Effective user access management ensures that accounts are properly created, managed, and disabled to prevent unauthorized access.
Monitoring the percentage of accounts disabled within the SLA helps ensure that the organization responds promptly to changes in user status, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
Importance of KPI:
This KPI measures the efficiency and effectiveness of the user access management process by tracking how quickly accounts are disabled when no longer needed.
A high percentage indicates timely action, reducing the risk of orphaned accounts being exploited.
Comparing Other KPIs:
Proportion of End Users Having More Than One Account:Useful but not directly related to the timeliness of disabling accounts.
Proportion of Privileged to Non-Privileged Accounts:Important for monitoring privilege distribution but does not measure process efficiency.
Percentage of Accounts Not Activated:Indicates potential inefficiencies but does not address the risk of active accounts.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the importance of timely account management to mitigate access risks (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3 User Access Management).
Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of employees unintentionally disclosing sensitive information to outside parties?
Regular employee security awareness training
Sensitive information classification and handling policies
Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices
An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)
Regular security awareness training educates employees about the importance of data protection and the potential consequences of unintentional disclosures. By increasing awareness, employees are more likely to recognize and avoid actions that could lead to data breaches, such as phishing attacks or mishandling sensitive information.
Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?
Board of directors
Human resources (HR)
Risk management committee
Audit committee
The group that has primary ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization is A. Board of directors. According to the CFA Institute, the board of directors is responsible for setting the tone at the top and ensuring that the company adheres to high ethical standards and values. The board of directors also oversees the company’s culture, governance, and risk management practices, and holds the management accountable for any misconduct or breach of trust1 The board of directors may delegate some of its oversight functions to other committees, such as the human resources, risk management, or audit committee, but ultimately, the board of directors bears the ultimate responsibility for the company’s reputation and integrity
Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization's risk profile?
A risk roadmap
A balanced scorecard
A heat map
The risk register
A heat map is a graphical representation of the organization’s risk profile that shows the relative level of risk for each risk category or event. A heat map uses colors, shapes, or symbols to indicate the magnitude and likelihood of each risk, as well as its trend and status. A heat map offers the simplest overview of changes in the organization’s risk profile, as it allows the risk decision-makers to quickly identify the most significant risks, theareas of improvement or deterioration, and the gaps or overlaps in risk management. A heat map can also be used to communicate the risk profile to senior management and other stakeholders in a clear and concise manner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Risk Assessment Methods and Techniques, Page 77; Future Risks: How organizations see changes in risk management - Aon.
The effectiveness of a control has decreased. What is the MOST likely effect on the associated risk?
The risk impact changes.
The risk classification changes.
The inherent risk changes.
The residual risk changes.
The most likely effect on the associated risk when the effectiveness of a control has decreased is that the residual risk changes. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses or controls. If the control becomes less effective, the residual risk will increase, as the risk exposure and impact will be higher than expected. The risk impact, the risk classification, and the inherent risk are not likely to change when the effectiveness of a control has decreased, as they are more related to the nature and characteristics of the risk, rather than the control performance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.4, page 541
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 652.
The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability assessments is to:
provide clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure.
determine the impact of potential threats.
test intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures.
detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise.
The primary purpose of vulnerability assessments is to detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise. A vulnerability assessment is a systematic review of security weaknesses in an information system. It evaluates if the system is susceptible to any known vulnerabilities, assigns severity levels to those vulnerabilities, and recommends remediation or mitigation, if and whenever needed1. By identifying and prioritizing the vulnerabilities, a vulnerability assessment helps to prevent or reduce the risk of cyberattacks that could exploit the vulnerabilities and compromise the system. The other options are not the primary purpose, but they may be secondary or tertiary outcomes or benefits of a vulnerability assessment. Providing clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure is a result of a successful vulnerability assessment and remediation process, but it is not the main objective. Determining the impact of potential threats is a part of the risk assessment process, which complements the vulnerability assessment process, but it is not the same as detecting the vulnerabilities. Testing intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures is a part of the penetration testing process, which simulates a real-world attack on the system to evaluate its security posture, but it is not the same as scanning the system for vulnerabilities. References = What is Vulnerability Assessment | VA Tools and Best Practices - Imperva
Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?
Review risk governance
Asset identification
Identify risk factors
Inherent risk identification
The first step in risk assessment is asset identification, which is the process of identifying and documenting the assets that are relevant and valuable to the organization, such as people, information, systems, processes, or infrastructure1. Asset identification can help to:
Establish the scope and boundaries of the risk assessment, and ensure that all the assets within the scope are considered and covered2.
Determine the criticality and priority of the assets, and assign them appropriate values or ratings based on their importance and contribution to the organization’s objectives3.
Identify the potential threats and vulnerabilities that may affect the assets, and assess their likelihood and impact on the assets4.
The other options are not the first step in risk assessment, because:
Review risk governance is not the first step, but rather a prerequisite or a foundation for risk assessment. Risk governance is the system of principles, policies, roles, and responsibilities that guide and oversee the risk management activities and initiatives of the organization5. Reviewing risk governance can help to ensure that the risk assessment is aligned with the organization’sriskstrategy, culture, and appetite, and that the risk assessment process is consistent, effective, and efficient6.
Identify risk factors is not the first step, but rather a subsequent or a parallel step to asset identification. Risk factors are the elements or conditions that influence or contribute to the occurrence or outcome of a risk event7. Identifying risk factors can help to understand the causes and sources of the risks, and to analyze and evaluate the risks based on their probability and severity.
Inherent risk identification is not the first step, but rather a later or a dependent step on asset identification and risk factor identification. Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists before the implementation of risk responses. Identifying inherent risk can help to measure the exposure or uncertainty of the assets, and to determine the need and extent of the risk responses.
References =
Risk Governance - CIO Wiki
Risk Governance Framework - CIO Wiki
Asset Identification - CIO Wiki
Asset Identification and Valuation - ISACA
Asset Criticality - CIO Wiki
Threat and Vulnerability Assessment - CIO Wiki
Risk Factor - CIO Wiki
[Risk Factor Analysis - CIO Wiki]
[Inherent Risk - CIO Wiki]
[Inherent Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?
Obtaining management sign-off
Demonstrating effective risk mitigation
Justifying return on investment
Providing accurate risk reporting
The main reason for documenting the performance of controls is to provide accurate risk reporting. Risk reporting is a process that communicates and discloses the relevant and reliable information about the risks and their management to the stakeholders and decision makers. Risk reporting is an essential component of the risk management process, as it helps to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring activities, as well as to support and inform the risk governance and oversight functions. Documenting the performance of controls is a technique that records and tracks the results and outcomes of the controls that are implemented to address the risks, such as the control objectives,
Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?
Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Risk trends
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Risk objectives
KRI thresholds are the levels or points that trigger an action or a response when a KRI reaches or exceeds them. They reflect the risk appetite of the organization, which is the amount and type of risk that it is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. A new privacy regulation may reduce the risk appetite of the organization, as it may impose stricter requirements and penalties for non-compliance. Therefore, the organization may need to adjust its KRI thresholds to lower levels, to ensure that it can identify and manage privacy risks more effectively and proactively
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?
To reduce the likelihood of insider threat
To eliminate the possibility of insider threat
To enable rapid discovery of insider threat
To reduce the impact of insider threat
The primary reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in is to reduce the likelihood of insider threat, as it informs the users of the policies, rules, andexpectations for the use of the organization’s IT resources, and deters them from engaging in unauthorized or malicious activities. The other options are not the primary reasons, as they are more related to the detection, prevention, or mitigation of insider threat, respectively, rather than the reduction of the likelihood of insider threat. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?
Percentage of unpatched IT assets
Percentage of IT assets without ownership
The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year
The number of IT assets procured during the previous month
The percentage of unpatched IT assets is a KPI that measures the effectiveness of the IT asset management process in ensuring that the IT assets are updated with the latest security patches and are protected from vulnerabilities. This KPI reflects the compliance of the IT assets with the enterprise’s security policy and standards, and the ability of the IT asset management process to identify and remediate any gaps or risks in the IT asset inventory. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 5. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 4. Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 4.
Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios?
A change in the risk management policy
A major security incident
A change in the regulatory environment
An increase in intrusion attempts
The most likely cause for a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios is a change in the regulatory environment. A regulatory environment is the set of laws, rules, and standards that apply to an organization and its activities, such as data privacy, security, compliance, or governance. A change in the regulatory environment can occur due to various factors, such as new legislation, court rulings, enforcement actions, or industry trends. A change in the regulatory environment can affect the risk scenarios that the organization faces, as it may introduce new or modified risks, or alter the probability or impact of existing risks. For example, a new regulation may require the organization to implement additional or different controls, or to report or disclose more information, which may increase the cost, complexity, or vulnerability of the organization’s processes and systems. A change in the regulatory environment may also affect the risk appetite, tolerance, and capacity of the organization, as it may impose different requirements or expectations for the organization’s risk management performance and outcomes. Therefore, a risk practitioner should reassess the risk scenarios when there is a change in the regulatory environment, to ensure that the risk scenarios are accurate, complete, and relevant, and that the risk response strategies and plans are appropriate, effective, and compliant. The other options are not the most likely cause, although they may be related or influential to the riskscenarios. A change in the risk management policy is a change in the rules and guidelines that define how the organization manages its risks, such as the roles and responsibilities, the processes and procedures, the tools and techniques, or the reporting and communication. A change in the risk management policy can affect the risk scenarios, as it may change the way the organization identifies, analyzes, evaluates, and responds to the risks, but it does not directly create or modify the risks themselves. A major security incident is an event or situation that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the organization’s information or systems, such as a data breach, a denial-of-service attack, or a ransomware infection. A major security incident can affect the risk scenarios, as it may indicate or reveal the existence or severity of the risks, or trigger or escalate the consequences of the risks, but it is not a cause, rather it is an effect of the risks. An increase in intrusion attempts is an increase in the frequency or intensity of the unauthorized or malicious attempts to access or exploit the organization’s information or systems, such as phishing, malware, or brute-force attacks. An increase in intrusion attempts can affect the risk scenarios, as it may increase the likelihood or impact of the risks, or expose or exacerbate the vulnerabilities of the organization’s processes and systems, but it is not a cause, rather it is a manifestation of the risks. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit -ISACA, How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA, The Impact of Regulatory Change on Business - Deloitte
Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?
Chief information officer (CIO)
Executive management team
Audit committee
Business process owner
Strategic decisions on risk management are the decisions that involve setting the direction, objectives, and priorities for risk management within an organization, as well as aligning them with the organization’s overall strategy, vision, and mission1. Strategic decisions on riskmanagement also involve defining the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and level of risk that the organization is willing and able to accept to achieve its goals2. The responsibility for strategic decisions on risk management should belong to the executive management team, which is the group of senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance3. The executive management team has the best understanding of the organization’s strategic context, environment, and stakeholders, and can make informed and balanced decisions that consider the benefits and costsof risk-taking4. The executive management team also has the ability and responsibility to communicate and cascade the strategic decisions on risk management to the rest of the organization, and to monitor and evaluate their implementation and outcomes5. The chief information officer (CIO), the audit committee, and the business process owner are not the best choices for being responsible for strategic decisions on risk management, as they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as the executive management team. The CIO is the senior leader who oversees the organization’s information andtechnology strategy, resources, and systems6. The CIO may be involved in providing input and feedback to the executive management team on the strategic decisions on risk management, especially those related to IT risk, but they do not have the final say or the overall responsibility for them. The audit committee is a subcommittee of the board of directors that oversees the organization’s financial reporting, internal controls, and external audits7. The audit committee may be involved in reviewing and approving the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as ensuring their compliance with the relevant laws and standards, but they do not have the authority or the expertise to make or implement them. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for a business process that supports or enables the organization’s objectives and functions. The business process owner may be involved in executing and reporting on the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as identifying and mitigating the risks related to their business process, but they do not have the perspective or the influence to make or communicate them. References = 1: Strategic Risk Management: Complete Overview (With Examples)2: [Risk Appetite and Tolerance - ISACA] 3: [Senior Management - Definition, Roles andResponsibilities] 4: Stanford Strategic Decision and Risk Management | Stanford Online5: A 7-Step Process for Strategic Risk Management — RiskOptics - Reciprocity6: [Chief Information Officer (CIO) - Gartner ITGlossary] 7: [Audit Committee - Overview, Functions, and Responsibilities] : [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Concepts, pp. 17-19.]
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy?
Leading industry frameworks
Business context
Regulatory requirements
IT strategy
A risk taxonomy is a classification or categorization system that defines and organizes the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. It includes the risk domains, categories, subcategories, elements, attributes, etc., and the relationships and dependenciesamong them. A risk taxonomy can help the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, and communicate the risks, and to align them with the organization’s strategy and culture.
The most important consideration when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy is the business context, which is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that influence and shape the organization’s objectives, operations, and performance. It includes the organization’s vision, mission, values, goals, stakeholders, resources, capabilities, processes, systems, etc., as well as the market, industry, regulatory, social, environmental, etc., factors and conditions that affect the organization.
Considering the business context when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy ensures that the risk taxonomy is relevant, appropriate, and proportional to the organization’s needs and expectations, and that it supports the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to ensure that the risk taxonomy is consistent and compatible with the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions, and that it reflects the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
The other options are not the most important considerations when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the risk taxonomy is suitable and acceptable for the organization.
Leading industry frameworks are the established or recognized models or standards that provide the principles, guidelines, and best practices for the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. Leading industry frameworks can provide useful references and benchmarks when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be specific or applicable to the organization’s business context, and they may not reflect the organization’s objectives and values.
Regulatory requirements are the rules or obligations that the organization must comply with, as imposed or enforced by the relevant authorities or regulators. Regulatory requirements can provide important inputs and constraints when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be comprehensive or sufficient for the organization’s business context, and they may not support the organization’s objectives and values.
IT strategy is the plan or direction that the organization follows to achieve its IT objectives and to align its IT resources and capabilities with its business objectives and needs. IT strategy canprovide important inputs and alignment when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but it is not the most important consideration, because it may not cover all the relevant or significant risks that may affect the organization’s business context, and it may not reflect the organization’s objectives and values. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 175
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?
It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.
It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.
It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.
It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.
The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:
exceeding availability thresholds
experiencing hardware failures
exceeding current patching standards.
meeting the baseline for hardening.
The best metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers meeting the baseline for hardening. Hardening is the process of applying security configurations and settings to servers to reduce their attack surface and vulnerability. A baseline is a standard or benchmark that defines the minimum level of security required for servers. By measuring the number of servers that meet the baseline, the organization can assess the effectiveness of its hardening efforts and identify any gaps or deviations. The other metrics, such as exceeding availability thresholds, experiencing hardware failures, or exceeding current patching standards, are not directly related to the security configuration of servers, but rather to their performance, reliability, or maintenance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.2, page 2-25.
When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:
business process objectives have been met.
control adheres to regulatory standards.
residual risk objectives have been achieved.
control process is designed effectively.
When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is most important to verify whether the residual risk objectives have been achieved, as this indicates the extent to which the control processes have reduced the risk to an acceptable level. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls, and it should be aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. Business process objectives, regulatory standards, and control process design are not the most important factors to verify,as they do not directly measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the control processes in managing the risk. References = CRISCPractice Quiz and Exam Prep; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 209.
What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?
Seek approval from the control owner.
Update the action plan in the risk register.
Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.
Validate that the control has an established testing method.
The first thing that a risk practitioner should do upon learning that a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan is to reassess the risk level associated with the new control. This is because the new control may have a different effect on the likelihood and impact of the risk, and may introduce new risks or modify existing ones. The risk practitioner should evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the newcontrol, and compare the residual risk with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The risk practitioner should also communicate the results of the risk reassessment to the relevant stakeholders, and update the risk register and action plan accordingly. The other options are not the first things that a risk practitioner should do, although they may be necessary or appropriate at a later stage. Seeking approval from the control owner is important, but it does not address the potential changes in the risk level or the alignment with the risk management objectives. Updating the action plan in the risk register is a good practice, but it should be done after the risk reassessment and with the consent of the risk owner. Validating that the control has an established testing method is a part of the control assurance process, but it does not provide information on the risk level or the risk response effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 151.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying loss magnitude during risk analysis of a new system?
Recovery time objective (RTO)
Cost-benefit analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Cyber insurance coverage
Business impact analysis (BIA) is the most helpful tool in identifying loss magnitude during risk analysis of a new system, as it involves estimating the potential financial and operational losses resulting from the disruption or degradation of the system. Recovery time objective (RTO), cost-benefit analysis, and cyber insurance coverage are not the most helpful tools, as they are more related to the recovery, evaluation, andtransfer of the risk, respectively, rather than the identification of the loss magnitude. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Recommend avoiding the risk.
Validate the risk response with internal audit.
Update the risk register.
Evaluate outsourcing the process.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the risk register is a tool that records the results of risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment. The risk register should be updated whenever there is a change in the risk profile, such as when a risk response is implemented or a new risk is identified. Updating the risk register allows the organization to monitor the current status of risks and the effectiveness of risk responses. Therefore, the next step for the risk practitioner after identifying a risk with high impact and very low likelihood that is covered by insurance is to update the risk register with the new information. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 191.
A risk register BEST facilitates which of the following risk management functions?
Analyzing the organization's risk appetite
Influencing the risk culture of the organization
Reviewing relevant risk scenarios with stakeholders
Articulating senior management's intent
Purpose of a Risk Register:
A risk register consolidates all identified risks, their status, and mitigation actions in one place. It serves as a tool for tracking and managing risks systematically.
Facilitating Risk Management Functions:
By documenting risk scenarios, a risk register provides a comprehensive view of potential threats and their impact on the organization.
It enables effective communication and review of these scenarios with stakeholders, ensuring that all relevant parties are aware of and understand the risks.
Engaging Stakeholders:
Reviewing the risk register with stakeholders helps in validating the risks, assessing their impact, and determining appropriate responses.
It fosters collaboration and ensures that risk management activities are aligned with the stakeholders' expectations and the organization's objectives.
Comparing Other Functions:
Analyzing Risk Appetite:While important, this is not the primary function of a risk register.
Influencing Risk Culture:The risk register contributes to risk culture but is primarily a tracking and communication tool.
Articulating Senior Management's Intent:This is more related to policy and strategy documents, whereas the risk register is a practical tool for managing specific risks.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the role of the risk register in consolidating risk information and facilitating stakeholder engagement (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.6 Risk Register) .
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?
Standards-based policies
Audit readiness
Efficient operations
Regulatory compliance
The greatest benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place is efficient operations, as EA provides a holistic view of the organization’s business processes, information systems, and technology infrastructure, and enables alignment, integration, and optimization of these components. Standards-based policies, audit readiness, and regulatory compliance are also benefits of EA, but they are not the greatest benefit. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 145.
Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:
it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.
structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.
structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.
technical specifications are defined during this phase.
Controls are the mechanisms or procedures that ensure the security, reliability, and quality of an IT system or process. Controls can be preventive, detective, or corrective, and can be implemented at various levels, such as physical, logical, administrative, or technical. Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase. The design phase is the stage where the system requirements are translated into a detailed technical plan, which includes the system architecture, database structure, user interface, and system components. The design phase also defines the system objectives, goals, and performance criteria. Defining controls during the design phase can help ensure that the controls are aligned with the system requirements and objectives, and that they are integrated into the system design from the start. Defining controls during the design phase can also help avoid or reduce the costs and risks associated with implementing controls later in the development or operation phases, such as rework, delays, errors, failures, or breaches. References = THE SYSTEM DEVELOPMENT LIFE CYCLE (SDLC), p. 2-3, System Development LifeCycle - GeeksforGeeks, 7.3: Systems Development Life Cycle - Engineering LibreTexts, What Is SDLC? 7 Phases of System Development Life Cycle - Intetics.
Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?
User awareness of policies and procedures
Implementation of proper controls
Senior management support
Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, senior management support is the commitment and involvement of the top-level executives and leaders in the risk management process. Senior management support is the most important enabler of effective risk management, as it helps to establish and communicate the risk vision, strategy, and culture of the organization. Senior management support also helps to allocate the necessary resources, authority, and accountability for risk management, and to ensure the alignment of the risk management objectives and activities with the organization’s strategy, goals, and values. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 198.
Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk associated with inadvertent data leakage by users who work remotely?
Conducting training on the protection of organizational assets
Configuring devices to use virtual IP addresses
Ensuring patching for end-user devices
Providing encrypted access to organizational assets
Providing encrypted access to organizational assets is the best method to mitigate the risk of inadvertent data leakage by remote workers. Encryption ensures that data remains secure, even if accessed over unsecured networks.
A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Report it to the chief risk officer.
Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.
follow incident reporting procedures.
Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.
The best course of action for the risk practitioner is to follow the incident reporting procedures established by the organization. This will ensure that the incident is properly documented, escalated, and resolved in a timely and consistent manner. Reporting the incident to the chief risk officer, advising the employee to forward the email to the phishing team, or advising the employee to permanently delete the email are not the best courses of action, as they may not comply with the organization’s policies and standards, and may not address the root cause and impact of the incident. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2.1, page 193.
An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?
Most recent IT audit report results
Replacement cost of IT assets
Current annualized loss expectancy report
Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report
The most important information for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes when the organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance is the current annualized loss expectancy report, as it provides an estimate of the potential financial loss or impact that theorganization may incur due to a cyber risk event in a given year, and helps to determine the optimal coverage and premium of the cyber insurance. The other options are not the most important information, as they are more related to the audit, asset, or industry aspects of the cyber risk, respectively, rather than the financial aspect of the cyber risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
Which of the following BEST contributes to the implementation of an effective risk response action plan?
An IT tactical plan
Disaster recovery and continuity testing
Assigned roles and responsibilities
A business impact analysis
A governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution is an integrated system that supports the management of governance, risk, and compliance activities across the enterprise. A GRC solution can provide benefits such as improved efficiency, consistency, transparency, andaccountability. The best justification to invest in the development of a GRC solution is to facilitate risk-aware decision making by stakeholders. By providing a holistic view of the enterprise’s risk profile, a GRC solution can enable stakeholders to make informed decisions that are aligned with the enterprise’s objectives, risk appetite, and tolerance. A GRC solution can also help to monitor and report on the performance and outcomes of the risk management program, and provide feedback and assurance to the board of directors and senior management. The other options are not as compelling as the facilitation of risk-aware decision making, as they may not directly contribute to the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives or the management of its risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.1.2.1, pp. 12-13.
Vulnerabilities have been detected on an organization's systems. Applications installed on these systems will not operate if the underlying servers are updated. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Recommend the business change the application.
Recommend a risk treatment plan.
Include the risk in the next quarterly update to management.
Implement compensating controls.
A risk treatment plan typically includes the following elements2:
Risk description: A brief summary of the risk, its causes, and its consequences.
Risk owner: The person or entity who is responsible for managing the risk and implementing the risk treatment plan.
Risk response: The strategy or method chosen to deal with the risk, such as avoid, reduce, transfer, or accept.
Risk actions: The specific tasks or steps that need to be performed to execute the risk response.
Risk resources: The human, financial, technical, or other resources that are required or available to support the risk actions.
Risk timeline: The schedule or deadline for completing the risk actions and achieving the desired risk level.
By recommending a risk treatment plan, the risk practitioner can help the organization to:
Analyze and prioritize the vulnerabilities detected on the systems, and determine their impact and likelihood.
Evaluate and compare the possible risk responses, and select the most suitable and feasible one for each vulnerability.
Define and assign the roles and responsibilities for the risk treatment process, and ensure the accountability and collaboration of the stakeholders.
Monitor and measure the progress and effectiveness of the risk treatment process, and report the results and outcomes to the management.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Recommending the business change the application is not a realistic or practical option, as it may be costly, time-consuming, or technically challenging to modify the application to make it compatible with the updated servers. It may also create other issues or risks, such as compatibility problems with other systems, performance degradation, or user dissatisfaction.
Including the risk in the next quarterly update to management is not a proactive or timely option, as it may delay or defer the risk treatment process and increase the exposure or vulnerability of the systems. It may also indicate a lack of urgency or importance of the risk, and undermine the credibility or trust of the management.
Implementing compensating controls is not a sufficient or comprehensive option, as it may not address the root cause or the source of the risk. Compensating controls are alternative or additionalcontrols that are implemented when the primary or preferred controls are not feasible or effective3. They may reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk, but they may not eliminate or resolve the risk.
References =
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan Template - ISACA
Compensating Control - CIO Wiki
The MOST significant benefit of using a consistent risk ranking methodology across an organization is that it enables:
allocation of available resources
clear understanding of risk levels
assignment of risk to the appropriate owners
risk to be expressed in quantifiable terms
The most significant benefit of using a consistent risk ranking methodology across an organization is that it enables a clear understanding of risk levels, as this facilitates the comparison and prioritization of risks, the communication and reporting of risks, and the alignment of risk management with the enterprise’s objectives and strategy. A consistent risk ranking methodology is a set of criteria and scales that are used to measure and rate the likelihood and impact of risks, as well as other factors such as urgency, velocity, and persistence. A consistent risk ranking methodology ensures that the risk assessment results are objective, reliable, and comparable across different business units, processes, and projects. The other options are not the most significant benefits of using a consistent risk ranking methodology,although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 97.
When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:
high impact scenarios.
high likelihood scenarios.
treated risk scenarios.
known risk scenarios.
When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log the known risk scenarios, because they are the risk scenarios that have been identified and assessed in the IT risk assessment process. The risk register should document and track the known risk scenarios, their characteristics, their status, and their responses. The other options are not the ones that should be logged, because:
Option A: High impact scenarios are the risk scenarios that have a high potential impact on the business objectives and processes, but they are not the only ones that should be logged. The risk register should include all the known risk scenarios, regardless of their impact level.
Option B: High likelihood scenarios are the risk scenarios that have a high probability of occurrence, but they are not the only ones that should be logged. The risk register should include all the known risk scenarios, regardless of their likelihood level.
Option C: Treated risk scenarios are the risk scenarios that have been addressed by the risk response actions, but they are not the only ones that should be logged. The risk register shouldinclude all the known risk scenarios, regardless of their treatment status. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 108.
A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?
Risk manager
Control owner
Control tester
Risk owner
The control owner is the person who is responsible for ensuring that the control is designed to effectively address risk. The control owner is also responsible for implementing, operating, monitoring, and maintaining the control. The control owner should ensure that the control is aligned with the risk owner’s risk appetite and tolerance, and that the control is periodically reviewed and updated to reflect changes in the risk environment. The risk manager, the control tester, and the risk owner are not directly responsible for the design of the control, although they may provide input, feedback, or approval. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 1-15.
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