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ISA ISA-IEC-62443 ISA/IEC 62443 Cybersecurity Fundamentals Specialist Exam Practice Test

Demo: 68 questions
Total 227 questions

ISA/IEC 62443 Cybersecurity Fundamentals Specialist Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which organization is responsible for the ISA 62443 series of standards?

Options:

A.

American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

B.

International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC)

C.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

D.

European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI)

Question 2

An industrial facility wants to ensure that only authorized communication reaches its PLCs while minimizing disruption to time-sensitive control processes. Which type of firewall would BEST suit this need?

Options:

A.

General-purpose software firewall

B.

Unidirectional gateway (data diode)

C.

IACS-specific firewall with deep packet inspection

D.

Basic packet filter firewall without protocol awareness

Question 3

What does the expression SL-T (BPCS Zone) vector {2 2 0 1 3 1 3} represent?

Options:

A.

A qualitative risk assessment method

B.

A single protection factor for all FRs

C.

The FR values for a specific zone's security level

D.

The SL values for a specific zone's foundational requirements

Question 4

In what step of the development process of the CSMS is “Establish purpose, organizational support, resources, and scope” taken care of?

Options:

A.

Initiate the CSMS program.

B.

Conduct an initial/high-level risk assessment.

C.

Create reference architecture.

D.

Establish policy, organization, and awareness.

Question 5

Why is it important for the asset owner to incorporate the IACS into its organization and security program during the Operation and Maintenance phase?

Options:

A.

To embed the IACS within organizational processes and people

B.

To ensure that the system can be decommissioned immediately if needed

C.

To allow the product supplier to update the system remotely without oversight

D.

To guarantee that the maintenance service provider has full control over the system

Question 6

Which of the following is the BEST reason for periodic audits?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

To confirm audit procedures

B.

To meet regulations

C.

To validate that security policies and procedures are performing

D.

To adhere to a published or approved schedule

Question 7

What is a key feature of the NIS2 Directive?

Options:

A.

It mandates compliance with all standards.

B.

It focuses solely on physical security regulations.

C.

It establishes a cyber crisis management structure.

D.

It eliminates the need for public-private partnerships.

Question 8

What is TRUE regarding safety systems?

Options:

A.

No dedicated malware has been found targeting safety systems specifically.

B.

Even the most modern and sophisticated safety systems can be defeated by an attacker.

C.

Safety systems are an independent protection layer and as such have no cybersecurity vulnerabilities.

D.

By integrating control and safety systems via Modbus TCP, cybersecurity risks are at a tolerable level.

Question 9

What must be established as part of the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Total elimination of risks

B.

Increased budget allocation

C.

Target Security Level (SL-Ts)

D.

New technology implementation

Question 10

Why is segmentation from non-IACS zones important in Network & Communication Security (SP Element 3)?

Options:

A.

To classify data according to sensitivity levels

B.

To prevent attacks originating outside the IACS

C.

To manage user identity persistence effectively

D.

To ensure backup verification processes run smoothly

Question 11

Which is a common pitfall when initiating a CSMS program?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Organizational lack of communication

B.

Failure to relate to the mission of the organization

C.

Insufficient documentation due to lack of good follow-up

D.

Immediate jump into detailed risk assessment

Question 12

What caution is advised when using the vector approach to security levels?

Options:

A.

Vector approaches eliminate the need for risk models.

B.

Vector approaches are always more accurate than qualitative methods.

C.

Vector values should be ignored if they do not match industry standards.

D.

Vector values must align with the asset owner’s risk matrix and risk appetite.

Question 13

A national standards body wants to represent its country’s interests at an international level and adopt global standards locally. What role does this organization fulfill?

Options:

A.

Global Standards Development Organization (SDO)

B.

Regulatory Agency

C.

Industry Consortium

D.

National Standardization Body

Question 14

Which is the PRIMARY responsibility of the network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Forwards packets, including routing through intermediate routers

B.

Gives transparent transfer of data between end users

C.

Provides the rules for framing, converting electrical signals to data

D.

Handles the physics of getting a message from one device to another

Question 15

In an IACS system, a typical security conduit consists of which of the following assets?

Options:

A.

Controllers, sensors, transmitters, and final control elements

B.

Wiring, routers, switches, and network management devices

C.

Ferrous, thickwall, and threaded conduit including raceways

D.

Power lines, cabinet enclosures, and protective grounds

Question 16

How can defense in depth be achieved via security zones?

Options:

A.

By having zones within zones, or subzones, that provide layered security

B.

By having a zone edge that is using the security policies of the asset owner

C.

By having zones that are connected via using the latest version of SSL

D.

By having zones that separate sensors from actuators, that provide layered security

Question 17

What type of cyberattack was discussed in the Ukrainian power grid case study?

Options:

A.

Internal sabotage

B.

Nation state

C.

Insider threat

D.

Random hacking

Question 18

Which of the following are the critical variables related to access control?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Reporting and monitoring

B.

Account management and monitoring

C.

Account management and password strength

D.

Password strength and change frequency

Question 19

What is a commonly used protocol for managing secure data transmission over a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

IPSec

C.

MPLS

D.

SSH

Question 20

A plant has several zones including business, safety-critical, and wireless zones. According to ISA/IEC 62443, how should these zones be managed during risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Combine all zones into one for simplicity.

B.

Ignore physical location when grouping assets.

C.

Establish clear separation between zones based on criticality.

D.

Treat temporarily connected devices as part of the safety zone permanently.

Question 21

A manufacturing plant is developing a cybersecurity plan for its IACS that must evolve as new threats emerge and system changes occur. Which document should serve as the foundation for this evolving security approach?

Options:

A.

IEC 62443-2-2 only

B.

Security Program (SP) portfolio

C.

Corporate KPIs unrelated to IACS

D.

Security Protection Scheme (SPS)

Question 22

Which statement is TRUE reqardinq application of patches in an IACS environment?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Patches should be applied as soon as they are available.

B.

Patches should be applied within one month of availability.

C.

Patches never should be applied in an IACS environment.

D.

Patches should be applied based on the organization's risk assessment.

Question 23

How should CSMS organizational responsibilities or training be handled over time?

Options:

A.

They should be ignored.

B.

They should be evaluated.

C.

They should remain constant.

D.

They should be expanded indefinitely.

Question 24

In a defense-in-depth strategy, what is the purpose of role-based access control?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Ensures that users can access systems from remote locations

B.

Ensures that users can access only certain devices on the network

C.

Ensures that users can access only the functions they need for their job

D.

Ensures that users correctly manage their username and password

Question 25

What is the name of the protocol that implements serial Modbus over Ethernet?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

MODBUS/CIP

B.

MODBUS/Ethernet

C.

MODBUS/Plus

D.

MODBUS/TCP

Question 26

If an asset owner wants to demonstrate compliance with ISA/IEC 62443-2-1 requirements during an external audit, which type of evidence would be MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

Financial investment records in cybersecurity tools only

B.

Anecdotal reports from employees about security practices

C.

Documentation verifying use and configuration of technologies

D.

Marketing materials describing the company's commitment to security

Question 27

What are the connections between security zones called?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Firewalls

B.

Tunnels

C.

Pathways

D.

Conduits

Question 28

What is a key aspect of the relationship between physical security measures and cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Cybersecurity is irrelevant.

B.

Physical security is more important.

C.

They should operate independently.

D.

They should complement each other.

Question 29

Which policies and procedures publication is titled Patch Manaqement in the IACS Environment?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

ISA-TR62443-2-3

B.

ISA-TR62443-1-4

C.

ISA-62443-3-3

D.

ISA-62443-4-2

Question 30

What is the purpose of ICS-CERT Alerts?

Options:

A.

To inform about hardware upgrades

B.

To advertise cybersecurity services

C.

To notify the owners of critical infrastructure

D.

To alert of targeted global energy sector threats

Question 31

What type of security level defines what a component or system is capable of meeting?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Capability security level

B.

Achieved security level

C.

Design security level

D.

Target security level

Question 32

Authorization (user accounts) must be granted based on which of the following?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Individual preferences

B.

Common needs for large groups

C.

Specific roles

D.

System complexity

Question 33

An industrial facility wants to ensure that only authorized systems reach its PLCs while minimizing disruption to time-sensitive control processes. Which type of firewall would BEST suit this need?

Options:

A.

General-purpose software firewall

B.

Unidirectional gateway (data diode)

C.

IACS-specific firewall with deep packet inspection

D.

Basic packet filter firewall without protocol awareness

Question 34

What does the abbreviation CSMS round in ISA 62443-2-1 represent?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Control System Management System

B.

Control System Monitoring System

C.

Cyber Security Management System

D.

Cyber Security Monitoring System

Question 35

What is a frequent mistake made with cybersecurity management?

Options:

A.

Ignoring organizational culture

B.

Focusing solely on technology solutions

C.

Implementing too many security practices at once

D.

Initially addressing smaller pieces of the entire system

Question 36

According to ISA/IEC TR 62443-1-5, which documents can be referenced when creating a security profile?

Options:

A.

Only ISA/IEC 62443-3-3 and 4-1

B.

Only ISA/IEC 62443-1-1 and 1-2

C.

ISA/IEC 62443-2-1, 2-4, 3-3, 4-1, and 4-2

D.

Any cybersecurity standard outside the ISA/IEC 62443 series

Question 37

If an industrial control system experiences frequent unexpected shutdowns causing downtime, which SP Element activities should be reviewed to improve system availability?

Options:

A.

SP Element 1 – Supply chain security

B.

SP Element 2 – Change control

C.

SP Element 7 – Logging and event reporting

D.

SP Element 8 – Backup restoration

Question 38

Which of the following ISA-99 (IEC 62443) Reference Model levels is named correctly?

Options:

A.

Level 1: Supervisory Control

B.

Level 2: Quality Control

C.

Level 3: Operations Management

D.

Level 4: Process

Question 39

What is one reason why IACS systems are highly vulnerable to attack?

Options:

A.

They do not require patches.

B.

They are isolated from all networks.

C.

They often have unpatched software.

D.

They use the latest software updates regularly.

Question 40

Which statement is TRUE regarding Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Modern IDS recognize IACS devices by default.

B.

They are very inexpensive to design and deploy.

C.

They are effective against known vulnerabilities.

D.

They require a small amount of care and feeding

Question 41

Under User Access Control (SP Element 6), which of the following is included in USER 1 — Identification and Authentication?

Options:

A.

Backup restoration

B.

Password protection

C.

Mutual authentication

D.

Incident handling and response

Question 42

How many security levels are in the ISASecure certification program?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

Question 43

What is the name of the missing layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model shown below?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Protocol

C.

Transport

D.

User

Question 44

An industrial control system requires strong protection against intentional violations using sophisticated means and moderate skills. According to the Security Level (SL) definitions, which SL should be targeted?

Options:

A.

SL 1

B.

SL 2

C.

SL 3

D.

SL 4

Question 45

Which is the implementation of PROFIBUS over Ethernet for non-safety-related communications?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

PROFIBUS DP

B.

PROFIBUS PA

C.

PROFINET

D.

PROF1SAFE

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT a strategy for deploying a WAN?

Options:

A.

Internet

B.

Enterprise WANs

C.

Local area networks

D.

Carrier-managed WANs

Question 47

Using the risk matrix below, what is the risk of a medium likelihood event with high consequence?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 48

A multinational corporation needs to implement a cybersecurity framework that can be adapted across different countries and industries while allowing continuous improvement. Which feature of the NIST CSF makes it suitable for this purpose?

Options:

A.

It only applies to government agencies.

B.

It is sector, country, and technology-neutral.

C.

It mandates strict compliance without flexibility.

D.

It focuses solely on payment card data protection.

Question 49

Security Levels (SLs) are broken down into which three types?

Options:

A.

Target, capacity, and availability

B.

Target, capacity, and achieved

C.

Target, capability, and availability

D.

Target, capability, and achieved

Question 50

What does the expression SL-T (BPCS Zone) vector {2 2 0 1 3 1 3} represent?

Options:

A.

A qualitative risk assessment method

B.

A single protection factor for all FRS

C.

The FR values for a specific zone's security level

D.

The SL values for a specific zone's foundational requirements

Question 51

Why is OPC Classic considered firewall unfriendly?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

OPC Classic uses DCOM, which dynamically assigns any port between 1024 and 65535.

B.

OPC Classic is allowed to use only port 80.

C.

OPC Classic works with control devices from different manufacturers.

D.

OPC Classic is an obsolete communication standard.

Question 52

What are three possible entry points (pathways) that could be used for launching a cyber attack?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

LAN, portable media, and wireless

B.

LAN, portable media, and hard drives

C.

LAN, power source, and wireless OD.

D.

LAN, WAN, and hard drive

Question 53

Which characteristic is MOST closely associated with the deployment of a demilitarized zone (DMZ)?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Level 4 systems must use the DMZ to communicate with Level 3 and below.

B.

Level 0 can only interact with Level 1 through the firewall.

C.

Internet access through the firewall is allowed.

D.

Email is prevented, thereby mitigating the risk of phishing attempts.

Question 54

Which is the PRIMARY objective when defining a security zone?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

All assets in the zone must be from the same vendor.

B.

All assets in the zone must share the same security requirements.

C.

All assets in the zone must be at the same level in the Purdue model.

D.

All assets in the zone must be physically located in the same area.

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT listed as a potential consequence of compromising IACS according to the ISA99 Committee scope?

Options:

A.

Increased product sales

B.

Endangerment of public safety

C.

Loss of proprietary information

D.

Economic and operational losses

Question 56

What port number is used by MODBUS TCP/IP for communication?

Options:

A.

21

B.

80

C.

443

D.

502

Question 57

Which service does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) provide?

Options:

A.

It is the lock on the door for networks and computer systems.

B.

It is effective against all vulnerabilities in networks and computer systems.

C.

It blocks malicious activity in networks and computer systems.

D.

It detects attempts to break into or misuse a computer system.

Question 58

Which is a role of the application layer?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Includes protocols specific to network applications such as email, file transfer, and reading data registers in a PLC

B.

Includes user applications specific to network applications such as email, file transfer, and reading data registers in a PLC

C.

Provides the mechanism for opening, closing, and managing a session between end-user application processes

D.

Delivers and formats information, possibly with encryption and security

Question 59

A national standards body wants to represent its country’s interests at an international level and adopt global standards locally. What role does this organization fulfill?

Options:

A.

Global SDO

B.

Regulatory Agency

C.

Industry Consortium

D.

National Standardization Body

Question 60

What is OPC?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

An open standard protocol for real-time field bus communication between automation technology devices

B.

An open standard protocol for the communication of real-time data between devices from different manufacturers

C.

An open standard serial communications protocol widely used in industrial manufacturing environments

D.

A vendor-specific proprietary protocol for the communication of real-time plant data between control devices

Question 61

What caution is advised when using the vector approach to security levels?

Options:

A.

Vector approaches eliminate the need for risk models.

B.

Vector approaches are always more accurate than qualitative methods.

C.

Vector values should be ignored if they do not match industry standards.

D.

Vector values must align with the asset owner's risk matrix and risk appetite.

Question 62

Which of the following is NOT a general class of firewalls?

Options:

A.

Packet filter

B.

Network monitor

C.

Application proxy

D.

Stateful inspection

Question 63

Which is an important difference between IT systems and IACS?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

The IACS security priority is integrity.

B.

The IT security priority is availability.

C.

IACS cybersecurity must address safety issues.

D.

Routers are not used in IACS networks.

Question 64

What do the tiers in the NIST CSF represent?

Options:

A.

Stages of incident response

B.

Categories of cybersecurity threats

C.

An organization's cybersecurity profile

D.

Different types of cybersecurity software

Question 65

Which of the following is an industry sector-specific standard?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

ISA-62443 (EC 62443)

B.

NIST SP800-82

C.

API 1164

D.

D. ISO 27001

Question 66

What is the name of the missing layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model shown below?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Protocol

C.

Transport

D.

User

Question 67

Which of the following is the BEST example of detection-in-depth best practices?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Firewalls and unexpected protocols being used

B.

IDS sensors deployed within multiple zones in the production environment

C.

Role-based access control and unusual data transfer patterns

D.

Role-based access control and VPNs

Question 68

At Layer 4 of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, what identifies the application that will handle a packet inside a host?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

ATCP/UDP application ID

B.

A TCP/UDP host ID

C.

ATCP/UDP port number

D.

ATCP/UDP registry number

Demo: 68 questions
Total 227 questions