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Insurance Licensing Ok-Life-Accident-and-Health-or-Sickness-Producer Oklahoma Life, Accident, and Health or Sickness Producer Exam Exam Practice Test

Oklahoma Life, Accident, and Health or Sickness Producer Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

An insured with a major medical policy has a per cause deductible of $100. Over the course of the year, the insured visits the doctor’s office three times for injuries. Excluding the premium, what is the MINIMUM amount the insured MUST pay for the year if each visit costs $200?

Options:

A.

$100

B.

$200

C.

$300

D.

$500

Question 2

Which of the following describes the gatekeeper strategy used by HMOs?

Options:

A.

The refusal of coverage for patients with preexisting conditions.

B.

The process of obtaining referrals to specialists from primary care physicians.

C.

The emphasis on preventing enrollees from using patient services.

D.

The use of supplemental services on an additional cost basis.

Question 3

The Oklahoma Insurance Commissioner is REQUIRED to examine domestic insurers’ financial condition at LEAST every

Options:

A.

2 years.

B.

4 years.

C.

5 years.

D.

6 years.

Question 4

A newly hired employee gives his enrollment form to his employer, but due to an administrative error, it is never forwarded to the insurance company. The error is detected 3 months later. What will happen if the clerical error provision is in effect?

Options:

A.

The employee will have to wait until the next open enrollment period to enroll in the plan.

B.

The employee will be allowed to submit a new enrollment form and will be enrolled as of the date the new form is accepted.

C.

The employee will be allowed to submit an enrollment form and all past due premiums, and will be retroactively insured.

D.

The employer will be required to pay the past due premiums.

Question 5

Ordinary life insurance should BEST be viewed by the consumer as

Options:

A.

temporary protection during the policyowner’s income-earning years with cash values payable during non-earning periods.

B.

an endowment type of policy that provides limited payment type of life insurance based on the level of income earned.

C.

a type of policy that provides permanent protection and some flexibility for the lowest total premium outlay.

D.

temporary protection for the life expectancy of the policyowner with accumulating cash values throughout the life of the policy.

Question 6

In Oklahoma, a foreign insurer is one formed under the laws of

Options:

A.

Oklahoma.

B.

a country other than the United States.

C.

another state or government of the United States.

D.

Oklahoma or under the laws of a state geographically bordering Oklahoma.

Question 7

To be eligible for a small group health insurance plan, a company may NOT have more than how many employees?

Options:

A.

2

B.

10

C.

40

D.

50

Question 8

Which of the following is a potential DISADVANTAGE of a fixed annuity?

Options:

A.

The insured invests payments in variable securities, and the return fluctuates with an uncertain economic market.

B.

There is no guaranteed specific benefit amount to the annuitant.

C.

Annuitants could experience a decrease in the purchasing power of their payments over a period of years due to inflation.

D.

Payments continue only for a maximum of 2 years after the annuitant’s death.

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a settlement option for life or annuity policies?

Options:

A.

Fixed period.

B.

Pure life income.

C.

Asset withdrawal.

D.

Life income with period certain.

Question 10

A form of an accelerated death benefit is a

Options:

A.

home care benefit.

B.

nonforfeiture extended term benefit.

C.

terminal illness settlement benefit.

D.

cost of living benefit.

Question 11

Long-Term Care Policies exclude coverage for all of the following EXCEPT

Options:

A.

alcoholism or drug addiction.

B.

acts of war while serving in the military.

C.

self-inflicted injuries.

D.

Alzheimer’s disease.

Question 12

In regards to advertising, insurers are responsible for which of the following?

Options:

A.

maintaining control over content and form.

B.

maintaining control over the cost of delivery.

C.

maintaining control over the cost of production.

D.

maintaining control of communications between agents.

Question 13

What is the focus of major medical insurance?

Options:

A.

Providing preventative care.

B.

Reducing costs by using in-network facilities.

C.

Providing coverage for hospitalization expenses.

D.

Providing care to the needy.

Question 14

An endorsement to an insurance policy that modifies clauses and provisions of the policy is referred to as

Options:

A.

an attachment.

B.

a supplement.

C.

a rider.

D.

an add-on.

Question 15

In conjunction with an Oklahoma insurance producer or adjuster license renewal, which one of the following is a continuing education requirement?

Options:

A.

12 hours annually.

B.

18 hours every 2 years.

C.

24 hours every 2 years.

D.

26 hours every 3 years.

Question 16

What is it called when a health insurance policy terminates and the policyholder is allowed to receive benefits past the termination date of the policy?

Options:

A.

qualifying event.

B.

duration of coverage.

C.

extension of benefits.

D.

notification statement.

Question 17

Transacting insurance includes any of the following EXCEPT

Options:

A.

selling insurance.

B.

preliminary negotiations.

C.

delivering insurance contracts.

D.

gathering prospective buyer information.

Question 18

What is the correct term for an individual who is required to be licensed under the laws of this state to negotiate the sale of insurance?

Options:

A.

Insurance adjuster.

B.

Insurance producer.

C.

Insurance appraiser.

D.

Insurance underwriter.

Question 19

An insured receives a notice from the insurer that the policy has been cancelled in the middle of the term. Which of the following policies did the insured MOST likely have?

Options:

A.

Optionally renewable.

B.

Term.

C.

Conditionally renewable.

D.

Cancelable.

Question 20

What is the purpose of the coordination of benefits provision in group health care?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the insured gets all the treatment needed.

B.

To determine what is paid by the primary and secondary insurers in case of a claim.

C.

To determine which parent’s plan covers a dependent child.

D.

To protect a secondary insurer from paying a claim.

Question 21

An individual who is NOT acceptable by an insurer at standard rates because of health, habits, or occupation is called a

Options:

A.

rating risk.

B.

standard risk.

C.

preferred risk.

D.

substandard risk.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT a requirement to become a resident producer or adjuster in Oklahoma?

Options:

A.

Live in Oklahoma for a period of 6 months or more.

B.

Successfully passing a licensing examination.

C.

Be at least 18 years of age.

D.

Must be of good personal and business reputation.

Question 23

In addition to the application, MIB, or consumer reports, underwriters can acquire information from all of the following EXCEPT

Options:

A.

medical questionnaires.

B.

attending physician statements.

C.

physical examinations.

D.

genetic testing.

Question 24

An alien insurer is which one of the following?

Options:

A.

One formed under the laws of Oklahoma.

B.

One formed under the laws of a state other than Oklahoma.

C.

One formed under the laws of a country other than the United States of America.

D.

One formed under the laws of a state geographically bordering Oklahoma.

Question 25

Loans may generally be obtained against the proceeds of a personal life insurance policy, and policy loan proceeds

Options:

A.

accelerate the benefits under the policy.

B.

are not treated as taxable income.

C.

are subject to Federal estate tax.

D.

generate nontaxable interest income.

Question 26

Disability policies MOST often pay benefits in the form of

Options:

A.

an annuity.

B.

periodic income.

C.

a lump sum reimbursement for wages lost.

D.

a lump sum payment based on projected income.

Question 27

Determining the appropriate coverage for an individual seeking long-term care insurance is

Options:

A.

coinsurance.

B.

suitability.

C.

contestability.

D.

accountability.

Question 28

Which rider would allow additional insurance to be purchased at specified dates or events, without additional underwriting?

Options:

A.

Guaranteed renewability

B.

Guaranteed insurability

C.

Cost of living

D.

Disability income

Question 29

Misrepresenting the advantages and benefits of a new policy to induce replacement of an existing policy is

Options:

A.

rebating.

B.

twisting.

C.

defamation.

D.

forfeiting.

Question 30

Jim purchased a $200,000 level term-to-age-65 life insurance policy when he was 35 years old. If Jim dies at age 50, what death benefit would be paid by this policy?

Options:

A.

$50,000

B.

$100,000

C.

$150,000

D.

$200,000

Question 31

How many days does the insured have to notify the insurer to add a newly-born child to continue coverage?

Options:

A.

31 days.

B.

30 days.

C.

21 days.

D.

14 days.

Question 32

A policyowner purchased a whole life policy. How long after purchase can the policyowner borrow against the cash value of the policy?

Options:

A.

never

B.

1 year

C.

2 years

D.

3 years

Question 33

The elimination period in an individual disability insurance policy refers to the

Options:

A.

length of time a policy will continue to pay for specific disabilities.

B.

amount of time a disabled person must wait before benefits are paid.

C.

point in time when benefits are exhausted.

D.

period of time that benefits are still payable after an insurance company discontinues a policy.

Question 34

A whole life insurance policy issued by a mutual insurer that provides a return of divisible surplus is called a

Options:

A.

limited pay whole life insurance policy

B.

participating whole life insurance policy

C.

continuous premium whole life insurance policy

D.

straight whole life insurance policy

Question 35

An accelerated death benefit provision allows a portion of the death benefits to be paid to the insured prior to death if the insured

Options:

A.

becomes disabled.

B.

has a terminal illness.

C.

has reached retirement age.

D.

has a dependent with a serious illness.

Question 36

The provision that the policy and a copy of an application is endorsed upon or attached to the policy when issued is the

Options:

A.

certificate.

B.

policy summary.

C.

entire contract.

D.

application.

Question 37

With the exception of non-payment of premiums, no life insurance policy shall be contestable after it has been in force during the lifetime of the insured for

Options:

A.

2 years.

B.

3 years.

C.

4 years.

D.

5 years.

Question 38

A group major medical policy is written with a $1,000 deductible, 80/20 coinsurance, and an out-of-pocket maximum of $3,000. The insured goes into the hospital for a covered procedure. The total cost of the procedure is $5,000. How much does the insured have to pay towards the $5,000 total?

Options:

A.

$5,000

B.

$3,000

C.

$1,800

D.

$1,000

Question 39

According to the IRS, which premiums may be tax deductible as a medical expense if the taxpayer’s medical expenses exceed 10% of their adjusted gross income?

Options:

A.

Long-Term Care Insurance premiums

B.

Group Disability Insurance premiums

C.

Personal Disability Income Insurance premiums

D.

Accidental Death and Dismemberment Insurance premiums

Question 40

Employees covered by an employer health plan are issued an insurance

Options:

A.

policy.

B.

contract.

C.

covenant.

D.

certificate.

Question 41

Health benefit plans providing maternity coverage shall provide postpartum home care if childbirth occurs at home within?

Options:

A.

24 hours by vaginal delivery.

B.

48 hours by vaginal delivery.

C.

72 hours by vaginal delivery.

D.

96 hours by vaginal delivery.

Question 42

An insurance producer who knowingly and willfully makes a fraudulent statement relating to an application for insurance is subject to all of the following EXCEPT

Options:

A.

suspension.

B.

revocation.

C.

discrimination.

D.

censure.

Question 43

From an insured’s perspective, what is the PRIMARY and MOST attractive feature of a viatical settlement?

Options:

A.

Discounted premiums.

B.

Reduced prepayment of a death benefit.

C.

Policy assignment provisions.

D.

Guaranteed renewability.

Question 44

A license is NOT required when you are

Options:

A.

providing referrals.

B.

selling insurance.

C.

negotiating insurance.

D.

soliciting insurance.

Question 45

A condition for which medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received during the 6 months immediately preceding the effective date of group health coverage is

Options:

A.

elimination period.

B.

affiliation period.

C.

diagnosed condition.

D.

preexisting condition.

Question 46

Under Medicare Hospital Insurance Part A, there are no medical benefits provided for treatment in a skilled nursing facility beyond

Options:

A.

30 days.

B.

60 days.

C.

100 days.

D.

180 days.