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IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Practice of Internal Auditing Exam Practice Test

Demo: 224 questions
Total 747 questions

Practice of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Question 1

A bakery chain has a statistical model that can be used to predict daily sales at individual stores based on a direct relationship to the cost of ingredients used and an inverse relationship to rainy days What conditions would an auditor look for as an Indicator of employee theft of food from a specific store?

Options:

A.

On a rainy day. total sales are greater than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used

B.

On a sunny day. total sales are less than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

C.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are greater than expected.

D.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are less than expected.

Question 2

Management asks the chief audit executive (CAE) to allocate an internal auditor as a non-voting member of a steering committee. The committee will oversee the implementation of a significant and confidential acquisition. Which of the following should guide the CAE’s selection?

Options:

A.

To select a candidate who can be trusted to gather sensitive information on the acquisition

B.

To select a candidate capable of conveying internal audit strategy even without voting status

C.

To self-assign as only the CAE has authority to express opinions and offer advice to committee members

D.

To select a candidate who has prior experience in mergers or the completion of due diligence of entities

Question 3

An organization owns vehicles that are kept off-site by employees to pick up and deliver orders. An internal auditor selects a specific vehicle from the fixed asset register for

testing. Which of the following would best provide sufficient, indirect evidence for the auditor to confirm the existence of the vehicle?

Options:

A.

Review logs of the vehicles assigned to employees for the delivery of goods during the engagement period.

B.

Visit the home address of the specific employee to see the selected vehicle.

C.

Compare the registered details of the vehicle in the fixed asset register to a date-stamped photograph of the vehicle.

D.

Seek independent confirmation of the vehicle's details from one of the delivery employees.

Question 4

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources. Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls.

C.

Detective key controls.

D.

Preventive key controls

Question 5

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers.

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management.

Question 6

Which of the following would offer the strongest evidence to support the internal auditor's conclusion that a product is in stock, as stated in the accounting records?

Options:

A.

The auditor performs an observation.

B.

The vendor provides third-party confirmation.

C.

The auditor documents interviews with multiple warehouse personnel.

D.

Warehouse management submits photographs of the product on the inventory shelf.

Question 7

An internal auditor concluded that delays in an ongoing construction project have cost the organization $10 million to date. Which documents should be included in the audit workpapers to provide sufficient evidence to support the conclusion?

Options:

A.

Payment and work milestones

B.

Pictures from the construction site

C.

Initial sprint planning

D.

Project internal rate of return

Question 8

Which method of examining entity-level controls involves gathering information from work groups that represent different levels in an organization?

Options:

A.

Questionnaires.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews

D.

Facilitated team workshops

Question 9

An internal auditor is conducting a preliminary survey of the investments area, and sends an internal control questionnaire to the management of the function. (An extract of the survey is provided below).

1. Are there any restrictions for any company's investments?

2. Are there any written policies and procedures that document the flow of investment processing?

3. Are investment purchases recorded in the general ledger on the date traded?

4. Is the documentation easily accessible to an persons who need in to perform their job?

Which of the following is a drawback of testing methods like this?

Options:

A.

They ore kitted as they do not allow the auditor to test many controls.

B.

They do not highlight control gaps

C.

They are not useful for identifying areas on which the auditor should locus.

D.

They are limited as there is a risk that management may not answer fairly.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements, internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls.

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review, to prevent tipping off probable audit tests.

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning.

Question 11

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 12

Which of the following engagements is likely to be most appropriate for an organization that is planning an acquisition?

Options:

A.

A performance engagement.

B.

A system security engagement.

C.

A due diligence engagement.

D.

A compliance engagement.

Question 13

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended. However, during a follow-up engagement, the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager decided to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication.

B.

Discuss the issue with the board, which has ultimate responsibility to resolve this risk.

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager, attempt to change his view, and encourage him to implement the recommendations.

D.

Document the branch manager’s decision to accept the risk; otherwise, no other specific course of action is required.

Question 14

In an assurance engagement focused on the adequacy of organizationwide risk management practices, which of the following best describes a primary area of interest for the engagement?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of process-level and transaction-level controls.

B.

Conflicts of interest within the organizational structure of the senior management.

C.

The alignment of management decisions with the level of risk the organization is willing to accept.

D.

The actions of upper management in response to the internal audit acth/lty's reporting

Question 15

A senior IT auditor is performing an audit of inventory valuation. The auditor misinterprets the sampling results. Which of the following best describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Control risk.

C.

Nonsampling risk.

D.

Residual risk.

Question 16

According to IIA guidance, which of the following procedures would be least effective in managing the risk of payroll fraud?

Options:

A.

The employee’s name listed on organization’s payroll is compared to the personnel records.

B.

Payroll time sheets are reviewed and approved by the timekeeper before processing.

C.

Employee access to the payroll database is deactivated immediately upon termination.

D.

Changes to payroll are validated by the personnel department before being processed.

Question 17

Which of the following best demonstrates internal auditors performing their work with proficiency?

Options:

A.

internal auditors meet with operational management at each phase of the audit process.

B.

Internal auditors adhere to The IIA's Code of Ethics.

C.

Internal auditors work collaboratively with their engagement team.

D.

Internal auditors complete a program of continuing professional development.

Question 18

In which scenario might it be considered problematic for the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide assurance services over the payroll function?

Options:

A.

The CAE previously undertook a consulting assignment in that area to improve processes.

B.

A couple of years ago, the CAE performed accounting functions for the payroll department.

C.

Prior to becoming the CAE, the CAE was the payroll manager.

D.

The assurance review was initiated following issues identified during a consulting assignment requested by management.

Question 19

Which of the following is the advantage of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs) as part of a preliminary survey for an engagement?

Options:

A.

ICQs provide testimonial evidence.

B.

ICQs are efficient.

C.

ICQs provide tangible evidence to be quantified.

D.

ICQs put observations into perspective.

Question 20

What would be the effect if an organization paid one of its liabilities twice during the year, in error?

Options:

A.

Assets, liabilities, and owners' equity would be understated.

B.

Assets, net income, and owners’ equity would be unaffected

C.

Assets and liabilities would be understated.

D.

Assets, net income, and owners’ equity would be understated, but liabilities would be overstated

Question 21

Which of the following recognized competitive strategies focuses on gaining efficiencies?

Options:

A.

Focus

B.

Cost leadership.

C.

Innovation

D.

Differentiation

Question 22

An internal auditor is reviewing the accuracy of commission payments by recalculating 100% of the commissions and comparing them to the amount paid. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions is most appropriate for identified variances?

Options:

A.

Document the results and report the overall percentage of variances.

B.

Determine the significance of the variances and investigate causes as needed.

C.

Review the results and investigate the cause of all variances.

D.

Report all variances to management and request an action plan to remediate them.

Question 23

Which of the following measures immediate short-term liquidity?

Options:

A.

Current ratio

B.

Profit margin

C.

Quick ratio

D.

Times interest earned

Question 24

While auditing an organization's credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditors relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative's information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative Is a customer

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement

Question 25

An internal auditor is planning a consuming engagement and the objective is to identify opportunities to improve the efficiency of the organization’s procurement process. The auditor is preparing to conduct a preliminary survey of the area. Which of the following approaches would be most useful to obtain relevant information to support the engagement objective?

Options:

A.

Complete a transaction walkthrough fiat focuses on the design and operation of financial reporting controls

B.

Conduct interviews with senior management to obtain their input and insights regarding operational controls.

C.

Perform a comprehensive review of the organization s existing policies and standard operating procedures.

D.

Review the procurement process map w*h employees who carry out key activities to obtain their input and insights.

Question 26

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

Options:

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

Question 27

Which of the following is an advantage of utilizing an external fraud specialist in a suspected fraud investigation?

Options:

A.

increased access to the organization's employees.

B.

Increased ability to preserve evidence and the chain of command.

C.

Increased ability to scrutinize the organization's key business processes.

D.

increased access to the organization's software and proprietary data.

Question 28

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization’s board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board*?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 29

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

Question 30

A manufacturer is under contract to produce and deliver a number of aircraft to a major airline. As part of the contract, the manufacturer is also providing training to the airline's pilots. At the time of the audit, the delivery of the aircraft had fallen substantially behind schedule while the training had already been completed. If half of the aircraft under contract have been delivered, which of the following should the internal auditor expect to be accounted for in the general ledger?

Options:

A.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

B.

All completed training costs, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

C.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and 50% of contracted production costs.

D.

All completed training costs, and 50% of the contracted production costs.

Question 31

Which of the following would best prevent phishing attacks on an organization?

Options:

A.

An intrusion detection system

B.

Use of firewalls

C.

Regular security awareness training

D.

Application hardening

Question 32

Which of the following is most appropriate for internal auditors to do during the internal audit recommendations monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report the monitoring status to senior management when requested.

B.

Assist management with implementing corrective actions.

C.

Determine the frequency and approach to monitoring

D.

Include all types of observations in the monitoring process

Question 33

The internal audit activity has requested that new vendor information be summarized once per week in a single report, and that all invoices each week for these vendors be automatically flagged in the invoice processing system. Which of the following computerized audit techniques is the internal audit activity most likely applying?

Options:

A.

Enabling continuous auditing.

B.

Employing generalized audit software.

C.

Facilitating electronic workpapers.

D.

Using machine learning.

Question 34

According to IIA guidance,which of the following is true about the supervising internal auditor's review notes?

• They are discussed with management prior to finalizing the audit.

• They may be discarded after working papers are amended as appropriate.

• They are created by the auditor to support her fieldwork in case of questions.

• They are not required to support observations issued in the audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 35

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target.

B.

Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

C.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement.

D.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

Question 36

Which of the following is an appropriate activity when supervising engagements?

Options:

A.

During engagement planning, the audit work program should be discussed between auditors and the engagement supervisor with the supervisor approving the work program.

B.

During fieldwork, scope changes made to the work program are at the auditor's discretion and should be supported adequately in the workpapers.

C.

Engagement supervision is most critical to the fieldwork and reporting phases of the audit, as this is where the majority of the work takes place.

D.

A degree of high supervision to no supervision may be provided to an auditor depending on his level of competence and the complexity of the engagement.

Question 37

An internal auditor wants to examine the intensity of correlation between electricity price and wind speed. Which of the following analytical approaches would be most appropriate for this purpose?

Options:

A.

A Gantt chart

B.

A scatter diagram

C.

A RACI chart

D.

A SIPOC diagram

Question 38

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

Question 39

Which of the following activities best demonstrates an internal auditor's commitment to developing professional competencies?

Options:

A.

Requesting to be part of all engagements on the annual audit plan

B.

Attending a series of locally offered training courses.

C.

Completing a skills assessment and development plan for targeted training needs.

D.

Attending a webinar on how to use data analytics

Question 40

Options:

A.

To prepare for testing the effectiveness of controls.

B.

To plan for evaluating potential losses.

C.

To prepare a sampling plan for the engagement.

D.

To evaluate the design of controls.

Question 41

In an organization with a large internal audit activity that has several audit teams performing engagements simultaneously which of the following tasks is an engagement supervisor most likely to perform during the planning phase of a new engagement?

Options:

A.

Establish a means for resolving any professional judgment differences over ethical issues that may arise during the engagement.

B.

Approve the engagement work program to ensure the program is designed to achieve the engagement objectives

C.

Evaluate whether the testing and results support the engagement results and conclusion

D.

Review the sample testing results for exceptions.

Question 42

Which of the following constitutes supervisory activity undertaken during the planning phase of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the process owner with the engagement objectives

B.

Reviewing engagement draft reports

C.

Ensuring workpapers support audit findings

D.

Approving audit work programs

Question 43

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues’ workpapers for completeness and format

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met

Question 44

An internal auditor wants to obtain management's evaluation of the organizational risk culture. Because there are more than 30 geographically dispersed managers, one-to-one interviews are not possible. Which of the following is the most efficient option for the auditor to adopt?

Options:

A.

Send out a survey with a few open questions, such as “What is your impression of the risk culture in our organization?”

B.

Send out a survey with statements and request defined answers, such as “strongly agree” and “strongly disagree.”

C.

Send out an email asking managers to evaluate the risk culture and provide detailed justification.

D.

Send out an email asking those who have something to report on organizational risk culture to step forward.

Question 45

Which of the following is the most appropriate objective for establishing a professional development plan for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

A plan that focuses on furthering the independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

A plan that ensures internal auditors collectively possess expertise in various fields to avoid outsourcing.

C.

A plan based on individual preferences and proposals, which helps internal auditors achieve greater success.

D.

A plan that focuses on filling gaps in the current skills needed to complete audit objectives.

Question 46

A manufacturing organization specializes in the production of evaporated milk and breakfast cereals. The manufacturing processes create significant loss in the form of waste and byproducts. The provision for normal production loss is known to senior management, but little action is taken when abnormal production losses occur. The organization sells its production byproducts to fish farmers at a reduced price. The byproducts are a widely recognized and used product in the fish farming industry. The organization has a policy that also allows its employees to purchase the byproducts at a negligible price. Based on the above, which of the following risks should the internal audit function consider when planning an engagement of the production process?

Options:

A.

The production team may be incentivized to increase production losses.

B.

The production team may work overtime and be overworked.

C.

Increased misappropriation of finished products.

D.

Risk that the finished product quality may be impaired.

Question 47

If the skills and competencies are not present within the internal audit activity to complete an ad-hoc assurance engagement, which of the following is an acceptable resolution?

Options:

A.

Politely decline the engagement due to a lack of qualified staff available at the time.

B.

Complete the engagement as requested, with the best of the current staff’s abilities.

C.

Consider using employees from other departments in the organization on the audit team.

D.

Change the scope of the testing to ensure that only available staff proficiencies are used

Question 48

Which of the following internal control attributes should internal auditors consider testing during a review of the board of directors?

Options:

A.

The presence of an independent critical mass

B.

The established philosophy and operating style of senior management

C.

The articulated internal control objectives of the organization

D.

The organization's employee recruiting and retention policies

Question 49

An organization's chief audit executive is developing an integrated audit approach to provide value-added services that can help the organization meet its strategic objectives and goals. Which of the following is an advantage of using an integrated audit approach that assists the organization?

Options:

A.

It allows the internal audit function to provide more subjective conclusions that would help the organization meet its goals and objectives.

B.

It allows the internal audit function to perform the appropriate engagements that minimize audit fatigue within the organization.

C.

It allows the internal audit function to focus more attention on ensuring that solutions and risks adhere to defined regulations.

D.

It allows the internal audit function to obtain more resources to perform more engagements of departments within the organization.

Question 50

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control serf-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit

D.

hours Internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only rf the other assurance providers report directly to the board

Question 51

While planning for an accounts payable audit an internal auditor performs an entity level controls analysis. Which of the following statements is true regarding me approach used by the auditor?

Options:

A.

It enables the auditor to identify the inherent risks to the effective operation of accounts payable process controls.

B.

It enables the auditor to understand the framework of the activities and associated accounts payable subprocesses

C.

it enables the auditor to understand the accounts payable process and its flow, including key steps and systems.

D.

It enables the auditor to categorize the population of transactions within the accounts payable process

Question 52

During the filework phase of an assurance engagement the internal auditor decides that she wants to adjust the audit work program. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the auditor to take9

Options:

A.

Request additional information needed from management of the area under review.

B.

Obtain approval from the engagement supervisor

C.

Obtain the required resources, including IT. to complete the work

D.

Discuss the change in scope with management of the area under review.

Question 53

Which of the following computerized audit tools or techniques should be used if the internal auditor wants to extract specific files and records in the database?

Options:

A.

An expert or decision support system

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

A system utility program

D.

An integrated test facility

Question 54

Which of the following best describes the guideline for preparing audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Workpapers should be understandable to the auditor in charge and the chief audit executive.

B.

Workpapers should be understandable to the audit client and the board.

C.

Workpapers should be understandable to another internal auditor who was not involved in the engagement.

D.

Workpapers should be understandable to external auditors and regulatory agencies.

Question 55

According to HA guidance, the chief audit executive is directly responsible for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a quality assurance program even in the absence of management support

B.

Periodically reviewing and approving the internal audit charier

C.

Providing opportunities for all staff auditors to satisfy their professional development requirements

D.

Establishing the objectives scope and plan for each engagement

Question 56

An organization's internal audit plan includes a recurring assurance review of the human resources (HR) department. Which of the following statements is true regarding preliminary communication between the auditor in charge (AIC) and the HR department?

1. The AIC should notify HR management when the draft audit plan is being developed, as a courtesy.

2. The AIC should notify HR management before the planning stage begins.

3. The AIC should schedule formal status meetings with HR management at the start of the engagement.

4. The AIC should finalize the scope of the engagement before communicating with HR management.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 57

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

Question 58

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are most useful in more organic, decentralized organizations with specialized departmental or regional characteristics.

B.

An ICQ can be used effectively either by sending it in advance for management of the area under review to complete or by testing each procedure and recording the results.

C.

An ICQ is not an efficient tool, as it can only inquire about controls and it does not test them.

D.

ICQs are also known as checklist audits and encourage management of the area under review to answer "no" or "yes" more accurately.

Question 59

How should an internal auditor approach preparing a detailed risk assessment during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

Complete the risk assessment independently to prevent conflicts of interest with the function being reviewed.

B.

Work with external auditors to ensure that the risk assessment includes items reflected on the independent auditor's report.

C.

Work with management of the function being reviewed, as management would be most familiar with the business objectives and related risks.

D.

Consult with the compliance department, which typically has a more comprehensive view of the organization.

Question 60

Which of the following represents the best example of a strategic goal?

Options:

A.

Customer satisfaction index has to be 90% each quarter.

B.

Ten rapid charging stations will be installed next year.

C.

The organization aims to decrease the budget by 10%.

D.

The organization will be carbon neutral within 5 years.

Question 61

Which of the following is more likely to be present in a highly centralized organization?

Options:

A.

The ability to make rapid changes

B.

Micromanagement

C.

Empowered employees

D.

Authority pushed downward

Question 62

In which of the following situations would an internal control questionnaire best suit the internal auditor's purpose?

Options:

A.

The auditor wants to receive mid-level management insight on how to improve hiring practices

B.

The auditor wants to obtain information on whether adherence to approval matrices is actually taking place in different maintenance units.

C.

The auditor wants to gain assurance that inventory counts are conducted in accordance with established procedures.

D.

The auditor wants to assess whether different subsidiaries apply centrally established procurement rules in the same manner

Question 63

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended However during a follow-up engagement the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager deeded to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication

B.

Discuss the issue with the board which has ultimate responsibility to resolve the risk

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager attempt to change his view, and encourage him to movement the recommendations

D.

Document the branch manager's decision to accept the risk otherwise, no other speak: course of action is required.

Question 64

If an engagement supervisor discovers insufficient information to draw a conclusion in workpapers, which action should she take first?

Options:

A.

Assign another auditor to complete the audit step and produce a new error-free workpaper.

B.

Document the problem as a review comment and continue with the audit.

C.

Discuss the matter with the auditor who produced the workpapers and improve the training manual.

D.

Complete the audit step herself to ensure accuracy and take additional steps to improve the audit training plan.

Question 65

What is the purpose of an internal control questionnaire?

Options:

A.

To gather information from a sample of people who are geographically dispersed

B.

To assess risks that could prevent an audited area from achieving its objectives.

C.

To evaluate tie level of compliance of remote offices with centrally designed procedures

D.

To perform testing of controls more frequently

Question 66

During a review of data privacy an internal auditor is tasked with testing management's identification and prioritization of critical data collected by the organization. Which of the following steps would accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

interview management to determine what types of data are collected and maintained

B.

Trace data from storage to the collection sources to determine how critical data is collected and organized

C.

Review a sample of data to determine whether the risk classification is reasonable

D.

Document and test a data inventory and classification program by determining the data classification levels and framework

Question 67

Which of the following should be described in the recognition element of a typical internal audit repot?

Options:

A.

Positive aspects of the process or area under review

B.

A brief synopsis of the process of area under review

C.

Outcomes and ratings of the process or area under review

D.

Report issuance and the communication process of the engagement.

Question 68

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true when the internal audit activity is asked to investigate potential ethics violations in a foreign subsidiary?

Options:

A.

Communication of any internal ethics violations to external parties may occur with appropriate safeguards.

B.

Cultural impacts are less critical where the organization practices uniform polices around the globe.

C.

Cross-cultural differences should always be handled by the staff of the same cultural background.

D.

Local law enforcement should be involved as they are more familiar with the applicable local laws.

Question 69

An engagement supervisor obtains facilities maintenance reports from a contractor during an audit of third-party services. Which of the following is the source of authority for the engagement supervisor to make such contact outside the organization?

Options:

A.

The policies and procedures of the internal audit activity.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.

Question 70

Which of the following structures would best suit a maintenance organization that needs to adapt quickly to rapidly changing technology?

Options:

A.

Traditional

B.

Decentralized

C.

Centralized

D.

Customer-centric

Question 71

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined.

B.

The expectations and objectives of an assurance engagement are usually determined by. or in conjunction with, the engagement client

C.

Internal auditors may not need to complete a preliminary risk assessment for a consulting engagement as they would when planning an assurance engagement.

D.

For both consulting and assurance engagements, internal auditors usually form the engagement objectives prior to completing the preliminary risk assessment

Question 72

Considering the five-attribute approach to documenting deficiencies in an area under review which of the following answers the question. "What should be in place?’’

Options:

A.

Action plan

B.

Recommendation

C.

Condition

D.

Criteria

Question 73

Which of the following is true of matrix organizations?

Options:

A.

A unity-of-command concept requires employees to report technically, functionally, and administratively to the same manager.

B.

A combination of product and functional departments allows management to utilize personnel from various functions.

C.

Authority, responsibility, and accountability of the units involved may vary based on the projects life, or the organization's culture.

D.

it is best suited for firms with scattered locations or for multi-line, large-scale firms.

Question 74

During the planning phase of an assurance engagement, an internal auditor seeks to gam an understanding of now when the area under review is accomplishing its objectives When of the

Following information-gathering techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

A review of the key performance indicators of me area under review.

B.

A walkthrough of the key processes of the area under review.

C.

An interview with the manager regarding the area's business plan.

D.

A review of previous audit and follow- up results of the area under review

Question 75

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

It documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review.

Question 76

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

The annual audit plan should only be adjusted in response to problems with resourcing, scope, and data availability.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may incorporate risk information, including risk appetite levels from management for the audit plan at her discretion.

C.

In an immature risk management environment it is preferable for the CAE to rely solely on her judgment regarding risk identification and assessment to develop the audit plan.

D.

The CAE may make adjustments to the annual audit plan as needed without senior management or board approval.

Question 77

An internal auditor is asked to determine why the production line for a large manufacturing organization has been experiencing shutdowns due to unavailable pacts The auditor learns that production data used for generating automatic purchases via electronic interchange is collected on personal computers connected by a local area network (LAN) Purchases are made from authorized vendors based on both the production plans for the next month and an authorized materials requirements plan (MRP) that identifies the parts needed per unit of production The auditor suspects the shutdowns are occurring because purchasing requirements have not been updated for changes in production techniques. Which of the following audit procedures should be used to test the auditor's theory?

Options:

A.

Compare purchase orders generated from test data input into the LAN with purchase orders generated from production data for the most recent period

B.

Develop a report of excess inventory and compare the inventory with current production volume

C.

Compare the pans needed based on current production estimates and the MRP for the revised production techniques with the purchase orders generated from the system for the same period

D.

Select a sample of production estimates and MRPs for several periods and trace them into the system to determine that input is accurate

Question 78

An organization experiencing staff shortages wants to contract a temporary employee to assist with work in the accounting office. Which of the following controls should be in place to ensure the temporary employee performs the assigned work before payment is issued?

Options:

A.

A three-way match between the invoice, purchase requisition, and documentation of receipt of services

B.

A member of management approves the purchase requisition before the temporary employee begins work

C.

A scope of work for the temporary employee is included in the purchase requisition and signed by the organization

D.

Payments to the vendor are analyzed monthly to ensure they do not exceed the amount approved on the purchase order

Question 79

Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization’s inventory valuation?

Options:

A.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped free on board (FOB) destination to another organization.

B.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods received on consignment from another organization.

C.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped FOB shipping point from another organization.

D.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods sent on consignment to another organization

Question 80

Which of the following scenarios is an example of appropriate engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

An engagement supervisor provides equal supervision to junior auditors and senior auditors.

B.

An engagement supervisor uses internal audit software.

C.

The chief audit executive personally supervises each engagement.

D.

The engagement supervisor and a team member meet regularly to discuss engagement progress.

Question 81

A rapidly expanding retail organization continues to be tightly controlled by its original small management team. Which of the following is a potential risk in this vertically centralized organization?

Options:

A.

Lack of coordination among different business units

B.

Operational decisions are inconsistent with organizational goals.

C.

Suboptimal decision-making.

D.

Duplication of business activities.

Question 82

A snow removal company is conducting a scenario planning exercise where participating employees consider the potential impacts of a significant reduction in annual snowfall for the coming winter. Which of the following best describes this type of risk?

Options:

A.

Residual

B.

Net

C.

inherent.

D.

Accepted.

Question 83

Senior management decides to adopt a conservative working capital policy. What would be the expected result for the organization?

Options:

A.

Low levels of inventory

B.

Higher level of profitability

C.

High level of liquidity

D.

Higher level of risk

Question 84

According to the Standards, which of the following is leastimportant in determining the adequacy of an annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Appropriateness.

C.

Effective deployment.

D.

Cost effectiveness.

Question 85

Which of the following is an example of a compliance assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Providing in-house training to senior management regarding applicable laws and regulations.

B.

Providing an assessment of the design adequacy of controls related to consumer privacy and confidentiality.

C.

Providing an assessment of customer satisfaction with customer service provided by the organization.

D.

Providing testing on the operating effectiveness of controls over the reliability of financial reporting.

Question 86

A multinational organization has multiple divisions that sell their products internally to other divisions When selling internally, which of the following transfer prices would lead to the best decisions for the organization?

Options:

A.

Full cost

B.

Full cost plus a markup.

C.

Market price of the product.

D.

Variable cost plus a markup.

Question 87

During planning, the chief audit executive submits a risk-and-control questionnaire to management of the activity under review. Which of the following statements is true regarding the questionnaire?

Options:

A.

It would be an inefficient way for internal auditors to address multiple controls in the activity under review.

B.

It would limit certain members of the internal audit team from being fully involved in the engagement.

C.

It would be the most effective way for the internal audit team to obtain a detailed understanding of the processes and controls in the activity to be audited.

D.

It would be an efficient way for the internal audit team to determine whether specified control activities are in place.

Question 88

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management's action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

Question 89

An IT auditor is reviewing the access controls in an organization's accounting application. The auditor intends to deploy a tool that can help test the logical controls embedded in the system to ensure employee access is granted according to need. Which of the following would help achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

Audit expert systems.

D.

integrated test facility

Question 90

An internal auditor is using attributes sampling to test internal controls. Under which of the following circumstances would the auditor increase the original sample size to estimate error occurrence at a given precision and confidence level?

Options:

A.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision exceeds the acceptable error rate.

B.

The sample rate of occurrence is less than the acceptable error rate.

C.

The acceptable rate of occurrence less the precision exceeds the sample rate of occurrence.

D.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision equals the acceptable error rate.

Question 91

During a review of the organization's waste management processes, the internal auditor discovered that wastewater is being disposed of inappropriately. The auditor's recommendations, suggested to mitigate the risk of regulatory sanctions and reputational damages, were accepted and timelines for implementation were agreed. However, during the internal audit activity's periodic follow-up exercise, management indicated that the recommendation was too expensive to implement and the current disposal method has been cost-effective. What should the chief audit executive do in this case?

Options:

A.

Nothing, as the internal audit activity has fulfilled its responsibility of providing recommendations to mitigate the risks to which the organization is exposed.

B.

Contact the regulatory agency responsible for monitoring such matters in order to convince management to implement the recommendations.

C.

Convene a meeting with senior management and discuss the issue and the potential impact it may have on the organization.

D.

Highlight the current exposure to the external auditors so they too can highlight the issue and further pressure management to address the concern.

Question 92

Which of the following internal audit procedures commonly involves sampling?

Options:

A.

Confirmation and financial statement analysis

B.

Reperformance and inspection

C.

Vouching and tracing

D.

Trend analysis and benchmarking

Question 93

Upon completing a follow-up audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) noted that management has not implemented any mitigation measures to address the high

risks that were reported in the initial audit report. What initial step must the CAE take to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Communicate the issue to senior management.

B.

Discuss the issue with members of management responsible for the risk area.

C.

Report the situation to the external auditors.

D.

Escalate the issue to the board.

Question 94

Which phase of an audit engagement is typically the most effective time for an internal auditor to develop a risk and control matrix?

Options:

A.

When preparing to recap audit test results.

B.

At sample selection, to determine sampling methodology.

C.

At the start of fieldwork, as part of developing the annual audit plan.

D.

At planning, to assist in developing the engagement work program.

Question 95

According to IIA guidance, which of the following reflects a valid principle for the internal audit activity to rely on the work of internal or external assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Elements of evaluation

B.

Elements of organization

C.

Elements of practice

D.

Elements of confidentiality

Question 96

An internal auditor wants to test the processing logic of a computer application during a specific period to ensure consistent processing of transactions. Which of the following is the best approach to achieve the objective of the test?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Integrated test facility

C.

Parallel simulation

D.

Generalized audit software

Question 97

Which of the following is applicable to both a job order cost system and a process cost system'?

Options:

A.

Total manufacturing costs are determined at the end of each period.

B.

Costs are summarized in a production cost report for each department

C.

Three manufacturing cost elements are tracked: direct materials, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead.

D.

The unit cost can be calculated by dividing the total manufacturing costs for the period by the units produced during the period.

Question 98

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

Question 99

Which of the following recommendation types is most likely to propose the most long-term solutions?

Options:

A.

Condition-based recommendations

B.

Cause-based recommendations

C.

Effect-based recommendations

D.

Root cause-based recommendations

Question 100

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor's use of review notes?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor's review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor's review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor's review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor's review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

Question 101

Which of the following statements about assurance maps is correct?

Options:

A.

An assurance map is used by the chief audit executive to coordinate assurance activities with other internal and external assurance providers

B.

An assurance map is a picture of all assurance engagements performed by the internal audit activity across the organization

C.

An assurance map is used by the engagement supervisor to coordinate the roles of various internal audit team members assigned to assurance engagements

D.

An assurance map lists the procedures and testing activities performed by an internal audit team during an assurance engagement

Question 102

A team of internal auditors is assigned to audit the employee relations process in an organization, which includes employee conduct and disciplinary hearings. Which of the following audit approaches would provide the auditors with the best evidence to determine the degree to which disciplinary decisions are complying with documented policy?

Options:

A.

Review a random sample of concluded disciplinary reports to assess how the policy was applied in each case.

B.

Interview a sample of impacted employees for their opinions on the clarity and fairness of the policy.

C.

Observe several disciplinary hearings to determine whether they are in compliance with the policy.

D.

Conduct an interview to assess the disciplinary hearing chairman’s understanding of the policy and its appropriate use.

Question 103

Which of the following is least likely to help ensure that risk is considered in a work program?

Options:

A.

Risks are discussed with audit client.

B.

All available information from the risk-based plan is used.

C.

Client efforts to affect risk management are considered.

D.

Prior risk assessments are considered.

Question 104

The newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a large multinational corporation, with seasoned internal audit departments located around the world, is reviewing responsibilities for engagement reports. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign every engagement report.

B.

The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign all regulatory compliance engagement reports only

C.

The CAE may delegate responsibility for reviewing, approving and signing engagement reports, but should review the reports after they are issued.

D.

The internal audit charter must identify authorized signers of engagement reports.

Question 105

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

Options:

A.

Significant changes in the organization's accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization's internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance

Question 106

Which of the following actions best describes an internal auditor's use of test data to determine whether an organization's new accounts payable system avoids processing questionable invoices for payment?

Options:

A.

Creating an automated tool that monitors the computer program on a daily basis for potential issues that need corrective actions.

B.

Using an automated system that assists internal auditors with automating the risk analysis of the computer program for invoicing

C.

Embedding tools in the computer program to analyze the review processes of invoices for potential issues that may hamper payments

D.

Adding invoices to the computer program to assess the reliability and effectiveness of the review process and whether controls work.

Question 107

According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory of Motivation, which of the following factors are mentioned most often by satisfied employees9

Options:

A.

Salary and status.

B.

Responsibility and advancement

C.

Work conditions and security.

D.

Peer relationships and personal life

Question 108

Which of the following actions is the most appropriate response for an internal auditor to take when a significant risk is identified during a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Report the risk identified from the consulting engagement to senior management.

B.

Do not include the risk in the assessment of risk management processes, as that is management's responsibility.

C.

Do not report the risk, as it is out of scope for the consulting engagement.

D.

Include the risk identified from the consulting engagement in the next annual risk assessment only if it is part of the consulting engagement objectives.

Question 109

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following best describes a strategy where a manager offers an assignment to a subordinate specifically to support his professional growth and future advancement^

Options:

A.

Esteem by colleagues.

B.

Self-fulfillment.

C.

Sense of belonging in the organization

D.

Job security.

Question 110

An internal auditor selects a sample of paid invoices and matches them to receiving reports. What is the most likely purpose for this procedure?

Options:

A.

To ensure all customer shipments are billed appropriately.

B.

To ensure invoices are only paid for goods received.

C.

To ensure all liabilities have been satisfied.

D.

To ensure invoices are only paid for goods ordered.

Question 111

An internal auditor wants to determine whether the key risks identified by management in the risk register are reflective of the key risks in the industry. Which of the following techniques would the auditor apply to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

Perform benchmarking

B.

Perform a trend analysis

C.

Perform a ratio analysis

D.

Perform observation to gather evidence

Question 112

Which of the following is an advantage of nonstatistical sampling over statistical sampling?

Options:

A.

Nonstatistical sampling provides more objective recommendations for management.

B.

Nonstatistical sampling provides an opportunity to select the minimum sample size required to satisfy the objectives of the audit tests.

C.

Nonstatistical sampling provides for the use of subjective judgment in determining the sample size.

D.

Nonstatistical sampling permits the auditor to specify a level of reliability and the desired degree of precision.

Question 113

Which of the following information is most appropriate for the chief audit executive to share when coordinating audit plans with other internal and external assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Objectives scope and timing at a high level to support coordination while adhering to confidentiality requirements

B.

The area and timing of the audit engagement to ensure confidentially and avoid conflict of interest.

C.

All plan information, including risk assessments, planned tests and past results to maximize the opportunity for coordination with internal and external providers.

D.

No information should be shared with internal and external provider as it could introduce bias into the engagement results.

Question 114

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls

C.

Detective Key controls

D.

Preventive key controls

Question 115

The following is a list of major findings in the executive summary report for an audit of the contract management process

- Noncompliance with contract provisions requiring vendors to obtain insurance policies with indemnity value of not less than $1 million

- Compliance with contract obligations and deliverables is not monitored

- No contract agreement with five vendors providing core services

Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion that can be drawn from these findings?

Options:

A.

These are weaknesses resulting from a lack of a documented contracting policy

B.

Substandard service delivery by vendors may not be detected

C.

Management should expedite actions to rectify the observations identified

D.

The internal controls guiding contract management are not operating effectively

Question 116

Which of the following is true about surveys?

Options:

A.

A survey with open-ended questions is weaker than a structured interview

B.

A survey with closed-ended questions can produce quantifiable evidence

C.

A survey's participants are likely to volunteer information that was not specifically requested

D.

A survey, like inspections and confirmations are best used to test the operating effectiveness of controls

Question 117

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

Question 118

During an assurance engagement an internal auditor uses benchmarking research to support preparation of a report to stakeholders that contains significant findings about control deficiencies. Which of the following skills did the auditor demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Internal audit management

B.

Conflict negotiation.

C.

Critical thinking

D.

Persuasion and collaboration

Question 119

As part of an audit engagement, an internal auditor verifies whether raw material is regularly delivered to the organization's warehouse in a timely manner. What type of objective does this exemplify?

Options:

A.

Operations

B.

Compliance

C.

Financial reporting

D.

Strategic

Question 120

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether internal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes and come up with a proposal Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

Options:

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

Question 121

Which of the following sampling techniques is typically used when an internal auditor wants to test a large sample for fraud?

Options:

A.

Stratified sampling

B.

Haphazard sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Probability-proportional-to-size sampling

Question 122

The chief audit executive can illustrate the value of the internal audit activity by reporting which of the following to the board?

Options:

A.

The overall performance resulting from the internal audit balanced scorecard

B.

The number of outstanding and overdue management actions

C.

The experience of the organization's internal auditors

D.

The number of audits in the annual audit plan relative to similar organizations

Question 123

An internal auditor is planning an audit engagement of a subsidiary organization. The auditor learns that a corporate investigator from the holding organization is investigating the subsidiary regarding a fraud case. Which of the following is true regarding the scope of the internal auditor’s engagement?

Options:

A.

As the fraud is already being investigated by the corporate investigator, it should be excluded from the scope of the audit engagement

B.

The engagement should be framed as an advisory engagement to support the corporate investigator's work

C.

The area under investigation should be excluded from the engagement scope if the auditor does not have the technical skills required to support a fraud investigation

D.

The scope should consider the nature of the fraud risk and control weaknesses identified from the fraud case

Question 124

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

Options:

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

Question 125

An organization s inventory is stored m multiple warehouses. During an inventory audit which of the following activities would most benefit from the use of computerized audit tools?

Options:

A.

Verifying the existence of inventory items in each warehouse

B.

Assigning the tolerable deviation rate to determine the sample size

C.

Valuating the obsolete Inventory from all the warehouse locations

D.

Confirming that the purchased items are recorded In the correct period

Question 126

The only internal auditor, who was part of a larger team of individuals trained in the testing and reading of the organization’s quality control equipment, has resigned. With a scheduled audit of the quality department not yet completed for this year, what alternative approach should the internal audit function take in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Explain the situation to senior management and remove the audit from the audit plan until next year

B.

Conduct the audit of the quality department but adjust the audit program to remove the quality control testing

C.

Engage one of the other trained employees to participate in the audit review of the quality department

D.

Request that external auditors include this area as part of their review and provide independent assurance

Question 127

During follow-up. the internal auditor discovered that operational management did not implement effective actions to address a significant control breach If the issue is left unresolved it may result in regulatory sanctions and damage the organization's reputation What is the most appropriate next step for the chief audit executive to lake?

Options:

A.

Report the matter to the board

B.

Implement the recommended control to address the exposure

C.

Discuss the matter with senior management

D.

Ask the regulatory agency to persuade management to address the issue

Question 128

Which of the following best describes why an internal audit activity would consider sending written preliminary observations to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Written observations allow for more interpretation.

B.

Written observations help the internal auditors express the significance.

C.

Written and verbal observations are equally effective.

D.

Written observations limit premature agreement

Question 129

Which of the following activities demonstrates an example of the chief audit executive performing residual risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of management not implementing a recommendation to address an observation.

B.

Inquiry of corrective action to be completed within a certain period

C.

Reporting the status of every observation for every engagement in a detailed manner.

D.

Soliciting management's feedback after completion of the audit engagement.

Question 130

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the internal audit activity’s work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment.

B.

Policies that match internal auditors' performance with feedback from management of the area under review

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of Inappropriate business relationships

Question 131

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the Internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement.

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement

Question 132

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Results of internal assessments need to be reported to the board at least once every five years.

B.

The external assessor must present the findings from the external assessment to senior management and the board upon completion.

C.

Deficiencies within the internal audit activity must be reported to the board as soon as they are noted

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring of the internal audit activity’s performance must be reported to senior management and the board at least annually

Question 133

Management has taken immediate action to address an observation received during an audit of the organization's manufacturing process Which of the following is true regarding the validity of the observation closure?

Options:

A.

Valid closure requires evidence that ensures the corrected process will function as expected in the future

B.

Valid closure requires the client lo address not only the condition, but also the cause of the condition

C.

Valid closure of an observation ensures it will be included in the final engagement report

D.

Valid closure requires assurance from management that the original problem will not recur in the future

Question 134

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are typically primary objectives of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

Enable training and development of staff, identify engagement objectives, and assign responsibilities to individual auditors.

B.

Identify engagement objectives, assign responsibilities to individual auditors, and approve the engagement program.

C.

Assign responsibilities to individual auditors, approve the engagement program, and enable training and development of staff.

D.

Approve the engagement program, enable training and development of staff, and identify engagement objectives.

Question 135

Which of the following would be most likely found in an internal audit procedures manual?

Options:

A.

A summary of the strategic plan of the area under review.

B.

Appropriate response options for when findings are disputed by management.

C.

An explanation of the resources needed for each engagement.

D.

The extent of the auditor's authority to collect data from management.

Question 136

An organization obtains maintenance personnel from a third-party service provider. The third-party service provider submits monthly timetables of contracted maintenance personnel and bills the organization on an hourly basis. Which of the following will most likely help an internal auditor validate the number of hours billed by the third-party service provider?

Options:

A.

Conduct a due diligence review of the third-party service provider

B.

Ask the third-party service provider to provide internal time-keeping records

C.

Obtain access logs from entrances to the organization's facilities

D.

Interview the manager responsible for contracting external personnel

Question 137

New environmental regulations require the board to certify that the organization's reported pollutant emissions data is accurate. The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an audit to provide assurance over the organization's compliance with the environmental regulations. Which of the following groups or individuals is most important for the CAE to consult to determine the scope of the audit?

Options:

A.

The audit committee of the board.

B.

The environmental, health, and safety manager.

C.

The organization's external environmental lawyers.

D.

The organization's insurance department.

Question 138

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions might place the independence of the internal audit function in jeopardy?

Options:

A.

Having no active role or involvement in the risk management process.

B.

Auditing the risk management process for reasonableness.

C.

Coordinating and managing the risk management process.

D.

Participating with management in identifying and evaluating risks.

Question 139

According to IIA guidance which of the following best describes reliable information?

Options:

A.

Reliable information is factual adequate, and convincing so that a prudent informed person would reach the same conclusions as the internal auditor

B.

Reliable information is the best attainable information through the use of appropriate engagement techniques

C.

Reliable information supports engagement observations and recommendations and is consistent with the objectives for the engagement

D.

Reliable information helps the organization and the internal audit activity meet its goals

Question 140

Which of the following is the primary weakness of internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs do not allow for open-ended questions.

B.

ICQs do not allow for evaluating multiple locations.

C.

ICQs require significant auditor follow-up, as different managers may give different responses.

D.

ICQ respondents have incentives to answer that there are internal controls in place.

Question 141

Which of the following actives is an internal auditor most likely to perform when establishing the objectives of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Discuss the internal audit risk assessment including applicable risks and objectives with internal audit management

B.

Perform a walk-through of the process under review to determine whether control wore operating, effectively

C.

Identify when controls will be tested and the sampling method to be used based on control risk

D.

Meet with operational management to team about any areas of concern and to agree on the engagement objectives

Question 142

At a construction company, an internal auditor is planning an audit of the company's process for designing and building grid connections The process involves customers making payments m three parts

• The first payment of 10% after approval of the customer s application

• The second payment of 70% prior to construction

• The third payment of 20% after construction is complete

Which of the following key controls should the auditor test to ensure that the company is not taking any unwanted credit risks?

Options:

A.

Controls that ensure that grid connection design is finalized before construction is approved to begin

B.

Controls that ensure construction orders are initiated after the second invoice is paid

C.

Controls that ensure all three invoices are calculated correctly according to the total project cost

D.

Controls that ensure that applications are verified for approval prior to initiating design and construction

Question 143

Which of the following offers the best explanation of why the auditor in charge would assign a junior auditor to complete a complex part of the audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The senior auditors are unavailable, as they are currently working on other portions of the engagement.

B.

The auditor in charge believes that the junior auditor should obtain a specific type of experience.

C.

The audit engagement has a tight deadline and the work must be completed timely.

D.

The auditor in charge is unable to identify audit staff with all of the required skills needed to complete the engagement.

Question 144

Internal audit staff lacks the expertise to perform a fraud investigation engagement stemming from a whistleblowing incident. Which of the following is the most appropriate

option for the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Appoint an independent fraud investigation specialist to work with the selected internal auditors.

B.

Organize in-house fraud investigation training sessions for selected internal auditors.

C.

Assign an experienced auditor to the engagement for a development opportunity.

D.

Hire a new internal auditor who possesses fraud investigation experience.

Question 145

The internal audit manager has been delegated the task of preparing the annual internal audit plan for the forthcoming fiscal year. All engagements should be appropriately categorized and presented to the chief audit executive for review. Which of the following would most likely be classified as a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Evaluating procurement department process effectiveness.

B.

Helping in the design of the risk management program.

C.

Assessing financial reporting control adequacy.

D.

Reviewing environmental, social, and governance reporting compliance.

Question 146

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor's review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor's approval of resources allocated to the engagement

Question 147

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

Options:

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

Question 148

During an engagement in one of the subsidiaries of an organization, an internal auditor noted the following in the workpapers:

"As a subsidiary of a multinational organization in this particular country, the entity is required to register annually with the

respective ministry. However, the subsidiary did not submit the required documentation for registration during the prior year. Failure

to comply with internal and external regulations could lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities. It is recommended

that the management of the subsidiary ensures compliance with the relevant legislation. As a recoverable action, management

should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible."

What part of this narrative represents a condition of the observation made by auditors in the final report?

Options:

A.

" ... the subsidiary did not submit required documentation for registration in the prior year."

B.

" ... the entity is required to register annually with the respective ministry."

C.

" ... failure to comply with internal and external regulations might lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities."

D.

" ... management should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible."

Question 149

An internal auditor is planning to audit the organization's payroll function, which was recently outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

Review management's organ nationwide risk assessment

B.

Understand the objectives and strategies of the new arrangement

C.

Revise the scope of the audit engagement

D.

Form objectives for the audit engagement

Question 150

During a review of the treasury function an internal auditor identified a risk that all bank accounts may net to include in the daily reconciliation process.

Which of the following responses would be most effective to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

The treasury supervisor establishes a threshold for amounts on bank statements to be reconciled against data in the system

B.

The treasury analyst performs a daily reconciliation of al bank statements obtained via email against data in the system

C.

The treasury analyst reviews a daily report automatically generated by the treasury system, which shows bank statements that have not been uploaded into the accounting system.

D.

The treasury supervisor seeks an annual confirmation from the bank regarding the bank statements processed within a year

Question 151

As part of internal audit's assistance with an annual external audit, the internal auditors are required to do a preliminary analytical review of an bank account balances. This involves verifying the current year end balances as web as comparing the current year end balances with previous year end balances to highlight significant changes. Which of the following is the most reliable source for verification of the current year end bank balances?

Options:

A.

Bank confirmations

B.

Internal bonk statements

C.

Bank reconciliations as of the end of the year

D.

Bank account general ledger balancer as of the end of the year

Question 152

An internal auditor discovered that a new employee was granted inappropriate access to the payroll system Apparently the IT specialist had made a mistake and granted access to the wrong new employee. Which of the following management actions would be most effective to prevent a similar issue from occurring again?

Options:

A.

Remove the new employee's excessive access rights and request that he report any future access error.

B.

Perform a complete review of all users who have access to the payroll system lo determine whether there are additional employees who were granted inappropriate access

C.

Review the system activity log of the employee to determine whether he used the inappropriate access to conduct any unauthorized activities in the payroll system

D.

Provide coaching to the IT specialist and introduce a secondary control to ensure system access is granted in accordance with the approved access request.

Question 153

Which of the following activities Is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

Question 154

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

Options:

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met

B.

To ensure senior management supports the reports conclusions

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated

Question 155

Which of the following sources of audit evidence is most reliable?

Options:

A.

Evidence obtained directly from an untested third party.

B.

Uncorroborated audit evidence obtained indirectly from an employee.

C.

Undocumented audit evidence obtained directly from a manager.

D.

Timely audit evidence obtained directly from a customer.

Question 156

Which of the following is an example of a directive control?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Exception reports

C.

Training programs,

D.

Supervisory review.

Question 157

A company makes a product at a cost of $26 per unit, of which $10 is fixed cost. The product is usually sold for $30 per unit; however, the company has been approached by a new customer who would like to purchase 3,500 units for $18 each Further, the company would Incur additional cost to deliver the units to this customer If the company has the excess manufacturing capacity and all other factors are constant, what is the additional cost that the company would Incur in order to make a profit of $1.50 per unit for this order?

Options:

A.

$0.50

B.

$1.50

C.

$2 50

D.

$3.50

Question 158

Which of the following manual audit approaches describes testing the validity of a document by following it backward to a previously prepared record?

Options:

A.

Tracing

B.

Reperformance

C.

Vouching

D.

Walkthrough

Question 159

When establishing a quality assurance and improvement program, the chief audit executive should ensure the program is designed to accomplish which of the following objectives?

1. Add value.

2. Improve operations.

3. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

4. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the IIA Code of Ethics.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 160

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization's health and safety program?

Options:

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

Question 161

The internal audit activity is currently working on several engagements, including a consulting engagement on the management process in the human resources department. Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take to most efficiently and effectively ensure the quality of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Assign an experienced manager to monitor the whole engagement process.

B.

Employ fieldwork peer review to enhance the work quality.

C.

Require internal auditors to follow a standardized work program.

D.

Personally supervise the engagement

Question 162

As part of the preliminary survey, an internal auditor sent an internal control questionnaire to the accounts payable function Based on the questionnaire responses, the auditor determines that there is no established procedure for adding and approving new vendors. What would the auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Determine that this situation is acceptable and focus on more significant issues

B.

Document the issue m the draft audit report

C.

Document the observation for further follow up when testing the operating effectiveness of controls

D.

Interview the personnel associated with this observation.

Question 163

An internal audit manager is planning a contract compliance audit Which of the following should be done prior to developing the audit work program?

Options:

A.

Select a sample of invoices for substantive testing

B.

Review the contract for evidence of authorization

C.

Document underlying reasons for noncompliance

D.

Assess the inherent risk of paying duplicate invoices

Question 164

An audit reveals that a manager's spouse is receiving paychecks, but is not employed by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions should the internal auditor take?

Options:

A.

Contact the external auditor and provide all relevant documentation.

B.

Report the finding to senior management in a timely manner, following the normal chain of command.

C.

Meet with the local manager to obtain more information on the finding before taking further action.

D.

Bypass the normal chain of command and contact the board directly to report the finding.

Question 165

An organization is experiencing a significant risk that threatens its financial well-being Senior management requested that the chief audit executive (CAE) meet with them to discuss the risk. Which of the following would best describe the CAE's responsibility at the meeting?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management of the appropriate actions they should take to control the risk

B.

Recommend that the internal audit activity provide consulting services to help minimize the risk

C.

Assume the responsibility of resolving the significant risk that will affect the organization

D.

Determine whether senior management accepted risk that may be deemed unacceptable for the organization

Question 166

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding heat maps?

Options:

A.

A heat map sets likelihood to have higher priority than impact.

B.

A heat map sets impact to have higher priority than likelihood.

C.

A heat map recognizes that the priority of impact and likelihood can vary.

D.

A heat map recognizes impact and likelihood as equally important

Question 167

Which of the following describes the primary objective of an internal audit engagement supervisor?

Options:

A.

Uphold the quality of the internal audit actively

B.

Provide engagement progress updates to management of the area under review

C.

Assure risks and controls are identified and assessed

D.

Ensure timely completion of the engagement

Question 168

An internal auditor is tasked with evaluating the adequacy of the organization's inventory fraud controls. What is the most relevant information that the auditor can obtain from the documentation of cyclic counting for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Accounting adjustments of inventories are approved by the management in accordance with a signature policy

B.

Root causes of inventory differences are analyzed and corrective measures are followed

C.

High value items are inventoried more frequently throughout the year

D.

Value of accounting adjustments matches with the value of inventory differences and are made in a timely manner

Question 169

During engagement planning, which party provides the most accurate and up-to-date description of how organizational processes and key controls operate?

Options:

A.

The management responsible for the activity under review

B.

The individuals who perform the daily tasks and functions of the activity under review

C.

The external auditors since they understand the key controls behind the financial statements

D.

The board of directors since they provide overall oversight for the organization

Question 170

Which of the following risk assessment approaches involves gathering data from work team representing different levels of an organisation?

Options:

A.

Surveys

B.

Management produced analysis 0

C.

Facilitated team workshops

D.

Weighted risk factors

Question 171

Which of the following is most appropriate for internal auditors to do during the internal audit recommendations monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report the monitoring status to senior management when requested.

B.

Assist management with implementing corrective actions.

C.

Determine the frequency and approach to monitoring.

D.

Include all types of observations in the monitoring process.

Question 172

Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Identifying and managing risks in line with the entity's risk appetite.

B.

Ensuring that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attaining an adequate understanding of the entity's key mitigation strategies.

D.

Identifying and ensuring that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

Question 173

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

B.

If it is a consulting engagement, decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible.

C.

if it is a consulting engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

D.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because the chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor's previous role when this engagement was assigned.

Question 174

A bakery chain has a statistical model that can be used to predict daily sales at individual stores based on a direct relationship to the cost of ingredients used and an inverse relationship to rainy days. What conditions would an auditor look for as an indicator of employee theft of food from a specific store?

Options:

A.

On a rainy day, total sales are greater than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

B.

On a sunny day, total sales are less than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

C.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are greater than expected.

D.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are less than expected.

Question 175

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care to ensure that all significant risks will be identified.

B.

Internal auditors must apply the care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor.

C.

Due professional care requires the internal auditor to conduct extensive examinations and verifications to ensure fraud does not exist.

D.

Due professional care is displayed during a consulting engagement when the internal auditor focuses on potential benefits of the engagement rather than the cost

Question 176

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a limitation of a heat map?

Options:

A.

Impact cannot be represented on a heat map unless it is quantified in financial terms

B.

Impact and likelihood at times cannot be differentiated as to which is more important.

C.

A heat map cannot be used unless a risk and control matrix has been developed.

D.

Qualitative factors cannot be incorporated into a heat map

Question 177

While conducting an information security audit, an internal auditor learns that the existing disaster recovery plan is four years old and untested. The auditor also learns that in the four years since the recovery plan was implemented, the information systems have undergone extensive changes. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform management and request that the plan be tested immediately.

B.

Update the recovery plan for management, as part of the review.

C.

Evaluate the recovery plan and report weaknesses to management.

D.

Recommend that management and users update and test the recovery plan.

Question 178

When determining the level of staff and resources to be dedicated to an assurance engagement, which of the following would be the most relevant to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

The overall adequacy of the internal audit activity's resources.

B.

The availability of guest auditors for the engagement.

C.

The number of internal auditors used for the previous review of the same area.

D.

The available resources with the specific skill set required.

Question 179

What is the primary purpose of creating a preliminary draft audit report?

Options:

A.

To save time during final report writing

B.

To meet the Standards requirement for developing a draft report prior to issuing a final report

C.

To use as a tool for communicating with management of the area under review.

D.

To require that management implements solutions to issues identified during the engagement

Question 180

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The engagement objectives are the boundaries for the engagement, which outline what will be included in the review

B.

The risk-based objectives of the engagement can be determined once the scope of the engagement has been formed

C.

For a consulting engagement, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined

D.

For an assurance engagement, once the scope is established and testing has begun, the scope cannot be modified.

Question 181

An organization recently acquired a subsidiary in a new industry, and management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a comprehensive audit of the subsidiary prior to recommencing operations The CAE is unsure her team has the necessary skills and knowledge to accept the engagement According to IIAguidance, which of the following responses by the CAE would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

The CAE should accept the engagement and ensure that an explanation of the expertise limitations is included in the final audit report.

B.

The CAE should ask management to hire an external expert who is familiar with the industry to perform an independent audit for management

C.

The CAE should accept the engagement and hire an external expert to assist the audit team with the audit of the subsidiary

D.

The CAE should recommend postponing the engagement until the internal audit team is able to develop sufficient knowledge of the new industry

Question 182

Which of the following statements is true regarding the management-by-objectives method?

Options:

A.

Management by objectives is most helpful in organizations that have rapid changes

B.

Management by objectives is most helpful in mechanistic organizations with rigidly defined tasks.

C.

Management by objectives helps organizations to keep employees motivated.

D.

Management by objectives helps organizations to distinguish clearly strategic goals from operational goals

Question 183

Which of the following is most likely the subject of a periodic report from the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

A complete, accurate, and comprehensive account of engagement observations and recommendations.

B.

Oversight of the coordination between the internal audit activity and independent outside auditors.

C.

The internal audit activity's purpose, authority, responsibility, and performance relative to plan.

D.

Management's assertions regarding the system of internal controls.

Question 184

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process

Question 185

To effectively communicate the acceptance of risk in an organization a chief audit executive must first consider which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization's view on risk tolerance

B.

The organization's principal risk events.

C.

The organization's risk response strategies

D.

The organization's major control activities

Question 186

Which of the following is the primary purpose of implementing a program whereby employees are rotated from other parts of the organization into the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

It provides the internal audit activity with more resourcing options to meet the audit plan

B.

It offers internal auditors the opportunity to learn more about other work areas.

C.

It gives nonauditors a better understanding of the control environment.

D.

It provides an opportunity for the recruitment of employees as permanent internal auditors

Question 187

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment.

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms.

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with internal policy.

Question 188

A technology organization is developing an artificial intelligence (AI) program for use on its social media platform. The AI program is meant to help content creators with images and posts that will acquire followers more efficiently. The internal audit function is planning an engagement of the AI program development. Which of the following should be considered a significant, immediate, and inherent risk?

Options:

A.

The AI program becomes self-reliant and no longer requires human assistance to perform tasks for the organization.

B.

The AI program advancements allow for it to generate original images for use by content creators and other individuals.

C.

The AI program captures images found online that are created and owned by individuals and other organizations.

D.

The AI program will have to comply with the national regulation expected to come in force in two years' time.

Question 189

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

Question 190

Which of the following best describes the guideline for preparing audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Workpapers should be understandable to the auditor in charge and the chief audit executive

B.

Workpapers should be understandable to the audit client and the board.

C.

Workpapers should be understandable to another internal auditor who was not involved in the engagement.

D.

Workpapers should be understandable to external auditors and regulatory agencies

Question 191

An internal auditor e assessing the design of a control and has identified a potential significant weakness. The auditor shared his concern with management however management does not agree that the weakness is significant. What should the internet auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Perform additional audit work to better articulate the risk

B.

Report the finding that management has accepted a level of risk that is unacceptable.

C.

Proceed to testing how effectively the control is opening.

D.

Because the design weakness has been identified no additional audit work is needed

Question 192

An internal auditor is performing testing to gather evidence regarding an organization's inventory account balance and is mindful of the possibility that the sample used might support the conclusion that the recorded account balance is not materially misstated when, in fact, it is The auditor's concern best describes which of the following risks?

Options:

A.

Incorrect rejection risk.

B.

Incorrect acceptance risk.

C.

Tolerable misstatement risk

D.

Anticipated misstatement risk

Question 193

In which of the following populations would the internal auditor most likely choose to use a stratified sampling approach?

Options:

A.

Inventory comprised of the same items stored in different warehouses

B.

Batches of materials that must be confirmed as meeting quality standards

C.

Revenue that is earned by an organization through cash receipts or as receivable.

D.

Tax reports submitted to meet the requirements of the local taxation authority

Question 194

Due to emerging new technologies that greatly affect the organization, the chief audit executive (CAE) wants to conduct frequent IT audit and is particularly focused on improving the quality of these engagements. Which of the following is the most viable solution for the CAE to ensure that IT audit quality is immediately enhanced and maintained long-term?

Options:

A.

Each year send a different member of the internal audit staff to an IT audit conference to learn about emerging technologies

B.

Contract an external IT special to offer advice and consult on IT audits

C.

Employ an independent external IT specialist to perform IT audits for the first year

D.

Invite qualified staff from the IT department to serve as guest auditors and lead IT audits

Question 195

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short term debt-paying ability?

Options:

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio.

B.

Profit margin.

C.

Current ratio.

D.

Times interest earned.

Question 196

A new internal auditor is overwhelmed by the number of tasks they need to complete at the engagement planning stage. Which of the following could support the auditor’s organization and delivery of planned work?

Options:

A.

Review the auditor's job description

B.

Create a checklist

C.

Develop a control questionnaire

D.

Prepare a fishbone diagram

Question 197

In the following risk control map risks have been categorized based on the level of significance and the associated level of control. Which of the following statements is true regarding Risk C?

Options:

A.

The level of control is appropriate given the level of risk

B.

The level of control is excessive given the level of risk

C.

The level of control is inadequate given the level of risk

D.

There is not enough of information to determine whether the controls are appropriate or not

Question 198

In preparing the engagement work program, which of the following is generally true with respect to secondary controls?

Options:

A.

A separate engagement work program should be created for secondary controls

B.

Secondary controls do not necessarily need to be tested for effectiveness

C.

Any documented secondary controls are deemed essential to the adequacy of control design

D.

Secondary controls should be held to the same requirements as key controls

Question 199

Which of the following would present the most critical external risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization experiences a merger, and the management team is reorganized and redistributed globally

B.

The organization launches a product into new global markets

C.

After minimal testing, the organization implements a new system to replace a legacy system

D.

Regulators announce broad legislative reforms applicable to the industry within which the organization operates

Question 200

An internal auditor observed that sales staff are able to modify or cancel an order in the system prior to shipping She wonders whether they can also modify orders after shipping. Which of the following types of controls should she examine?

Options:

A.

Batch controls.

B.

Application controls

C.

General IT controls.

D.

Logical access controls

Question 201

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

Question 202

An internal auditor using the five-attribute approach to document deficiencies in a warehouse shipping process. Which of the following attributes will be included in the workpapers?

Options:

A.

Risk, impact likelihood existing control, recommendation

B.

Condition, cause, effect, recommendation

C.

Condition, cause effect test result

D.

Risk, impact test result recommendation

Question 203

When forming an opinion on the adequacy of management's systems of internal control, which of the following findings would provide the most reliable assurance to the chief audit executive?

• During an audit of the hiring process in a law firm, it was discovered that potential employees' credentials were not always confirmed sufficiently. This process remained unchanged at the following audit.

• During an audit of the accounts payable department, auditors calculated that two percent of accounts were paid past due. This condition persisted at a follow up audit.

• During an audit of the vehicle fleet of a rental agency, it was determined that at any given time, eight percent of the vehicles were not operational. During the next audit, this figure had increased.

• During an audit of the cash handling process in a casino, internal audit discovered control deficiencies in the transfer process between the slot machines and the cash counting area. It was corrected immediately.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 204

While reviewing the organization’s financial year-end processes, an internal auditor discovered an erroneous journal entry. If the error is not addressed, it will result in a material misstatement of the financial records. The internal auditor needs an additional four weeks to complete the audit engagement. How should the auditor communicate this finding?

Options:

A.

The auditor should issue an interim report to management prior to completion of the audit and issuance of the final report.

B.

The auditor should include this item in the final audit report, marked with an asterisk, indicating that it is a high-risk item.

C.

The auditor should discuss the finding with the appropriate accounting staff who can make the correction immediately, and if corrected before the engagement is concluded, the finding would not need to be included in the audit report.

D.

The auditor is obligated to bypass management and immediately report the error directly to regulatory authorities.

Question 205

According to IIA guidance, which of the following typically serves as the basis for an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Past audit findings.

B.

Scope and audit objectives.

C.

Techniques and resources.

D.

Stakeholders' expectations.

Question 206

The chief audit executive (CAE) is developing a workpaper preparation policy for a new internal audit activity. The CAE wants to ensure that all workpapers relate directly to the engagement objectives. Which of the following statements should be included in the policy specifically to address this concern?

Options:

A.

The workpapers should be understandable.

B.

The workpapers should be relevant.

C.

The workpapers should be economical.

D.

The workpapers should be complete.

Question 207

A corporate merger decision prompts the cruel audit executive (CAE) to propose interim changes lo the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks. When of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CCO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

Question 208

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

Question 209

An internal auditor submitted a report containing recommendations for management to enhance internal controls related to investments. To follow up, which of the following is the most appropriate action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Observe corrective measures.

B.

Seek a management assurance declaration.

C.

Follow up during the next scheduled audit.

D.

Conduct appropriate testing to verify management responses.

Question 210

The audit committee has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to conduct an ad hoc forensic investigation of the purchasing department within a month due to the significance and urgency of a recently discovered risk The internal audit activity currently has no available staff with relevant experience or qualifications Which of the following is the CAE's best option for fulfilling the internal audit activity's responsibilities in this case?

Options:

A.

Outsource the investigation to independent professional consultants

B.

Select certain internal auditors and remove them from their current assignments so that they can begin a forensic investigation course

C.

Recruit additional internal auditors possessing relevant qualification and experience

D.

Decline the engagement at this time

Question 211

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a limitation of a heat map?

Options:

A.

Impact cannot be represented on a heat map unless it is quantified in financial terms.

B.

Impact and likelihood at times cannot be differentiated as to which is more important.

C.

A heat map cannot be used unless a risk and control matrix has been developed.

D.

Qualitative factors cannot be incorporated into a heat map.

Question 212

Which informal ion- gathering method would be most efficient for an internal auditor to determine whether specified control procedures are in place?

Options:

A.

Interviews

B.

Observations

C.

Reperformance

D.

Internal control questionnaires

Question 213

Which of the following would most likely prompt special notification from the chief audit executive to same management?

Options:

A.

Operational management has decried to weigh an audit issue against the organization's risk tolerance

B.

A controls inaccurate operation has materially impacted the accuracy of the poor year's financial statements

C.

Occurrences of asset misappropriation have been identified as a result of an ineffective operational control design

D.

The controls that management performed to confirm compliance with health and safety standards were not systematically documented

Question 214

Which of the following methodologies consists of the internal auditor holding individual meetings with different people, asking them the same questions, and aggregating the results?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews.

D.

Elicitation.

Question 215

During audit engagement planning, an internal auditor is determining the best approach for leveraging computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs). Which of the following approaches maximizes the use of CAATs and why?

Options:

A.

Tracing, because it would enable the auditor to verify quickly that the record counts were properly included in the compilation.

B.

Inspection, because it would enable the auditor to verify how management enters the data into the application for processing.

C.

Testing data, because it would enable the auditor to ensure that the application processes the transaction as described by management.

D.

Reperformance, because it enables the auditor to verify that the application performed the calculation correctly.

Question 216

Which of the following best describes why an internal audit activity would consider sending written preliminary observations to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Written observations allow for more interpretation.

B.

Written observations help the internal auditors express the significance.

C.

Written and verbal observations are equally effective.

D.

Written observations limit premature agreement.

Question 217

Which of the following best describes the manual audit procedure known as vouching?

Options:

A.

Testing the validity of information by following it backward to a previously prepared record

B.

Testing the accuracy of the control by reperforming the task or process required

C.

Soliciting and obtaining written verification of the accuracy from an independent third party

D.

Testing the completeness of information forward from a record to a subsequently prepared document

Question 218

Which of the following situations would justify the removal of a finding from the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Management disagrees with the report findings and conclusions in their responses.

B.

Management has already satisfactorily completed the recommended corrective action.

C.

Management has provided additional information that contradicts the findings.

D.

Management believes that the finding is insignificant and unfairly included in the report.

Question 219

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

Question 220

Which of the following describes (he primary reason why a preliminary risk assessment is conducted during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To identify the greatest risks organizationwide

B.

To ensure that the engagement work program covers all risk areas

C.

To ensure that risks identified during previous audits of the area have been adequately addressed

D.

To ensure that significant risks are included in the engagement scope

Question 221

Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate good project oversight

B.

To provide timely discussion of results

C.

To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency

D.

To follow up on previously requested information

Question 222

Which of the following is most likely to impair the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The CAE oversees the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management function.

C.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

D.

The CAE managed the finance department for the past five years.

Question 223

Which of the following data analysis techniques is used to identify inappropriately matching values, such as names, addresses, and account numbers in disparate systems?

Options:

A.

Stratification of numeric values

B.

Gap testing

C.

Joining different data sources

D.

Duplicate testing

Question 224

An internal auditor collected several employee testimonials Which of the following is the best action for the internal auditor to take before drawing a conclusion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the testimonials are well documented

B.

Substantiate the testimonials with physical or documentary evidence

C.

Corroborate testimonials with the results from other soft control techniques

D.

Review the testimonials with the interviewed employees

Demo: 224 questions
Total 747 questions