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IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Internal Audit Engagement Exam Practice Test

Demo: 224 questions
Total 747 questions

Internal Audit Engagement Questions and Answers

Question 1

The chief audit executive was asked to define me internal audit activity s key performance indicators (KPIs) tor the upcoming year. The KPIs must measure efficiency and effectiveness. Which of the following is an example of a KPI that measures effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports are consistently submitted prior to the audit report deadline

B.

Post engagement surveys completed by management indicate a "meets or exceeds expectations" idling

C.

There is a significant reduction of travel costs per project over the next fiscal year

D.

Internal auditors identify a minimum number of issues and provide recommendations to address them for each audit

Question 2

Which of the following is the best approach for the internal audit function to communicate moderate and high risk observations to management?

Options:

A.

Prepare a formal observation worksheet for all observations identified and send to management to review and provide feedback at the end of fieldwork.

B.

Verbally communicate the high risk observations to management when identified and prepare a documented worksheet that includes the root cause, effect, and recommendations.

C.

Prepare a formal observation worksheet for the high risk observations and a separate worksheet for the medium risk observations in an email to management.

D.

Verbally communicate all observations to management at the end of fieldwork and provide a formal worksheet for review and feedback.

Question 3

Which of the following would present the most critical external risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization experiences a merger, and the management team is reorganized and redistributed globally

B.

The organization launches a product into new global markets

C.

After minimal testing, the organization implements a new system to replace a legacy system

D.

Regulators announce broad legislative reforms applicable to the industry within which the organization operates

Question 4

In which of the following ways can the internal audit activity new engagement opportunities?

Options:

A.

By defining activities by business processes.

B.

By looking external factors such as product complaints.

C.

By looking at activities by businesses cost centers.

D.

By defining activities by the organization chart.

Question 5

According to an internal audit observation, the organization’s rules of record management require all contracts to be registered and stored in a specific electronic system. One subsidiary has thousands of client contracts on paper, which are kept in the office because there are not enough assistants to scan the contracts into the system. Which of the following component should be added to this observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Cause

C.

Effect

D.

Condition

Question 6

An internal auditor discovered that sales contracts with business clients were not stored in the electronic document management database instead they were scanned and saved in a nonsystematic manner to server folders Which of the following would be an appropriate consequence for the internal auditor to include in the documented observation?

Options:

A.

The document management policy requires business client data to be stored in a specific management database

B.

Sales contracts were stored improperly because the office manager was not trained to use the electronic database and prefers to avoid it

C.

if the organization becomes subject to litigation the agreed pricing terms and conditions of the contracts may be difficult to prove

D.

All staff should be appropriately trained and required to follow the organization's established policies and procedures pertaining to document management

Question 7

Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take when senior management decides to accept risks by choosing to do business with a questionable vendor?

Options:

A.

Persuade senior management to take appropriate action.

B.

Cancel issuing the engagement report due to the assumed risks.

C.

Accept senior management’s assumption of the risks.

D.

Discuss the issue with the board for them to take appropriate action.

Question 8

Which of the following would most Holy reflect the best possible engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Engagement objectives derived from risk assessment results from a company's risk function experts.

B.

Engagement objectives derived from senior management's risk assessment results

C.

Engagement objectives derived from the mental audit activity's own risk assessment results

D.

Engagement objectives derived from risk assessment results from both senior management and the company's risk function experts

Question 9

Which of the following would be most likely found in an internal audit procedures manual?

Options:

A.

A summary of the strategic plan of the area under review.

B.

Appropriate response options for when findings are disputed by management.

C.

An explanation of the resources needed for each engagement.

D.

The extent of the auditor's authority to collect data from management.

Question 10

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with the internal policy.

Question 11

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the purchasing department. She has worked the full amount of hours budgeted for the engagement; however, the audit objectives are not yet complete. According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate options available to the chief audit executive?

1. Allow the auditor to decide whether to extend the audit engagement.

2. Determine whether the work already completed is sufficient to conclude the engagement.

3. Provide the auditor feedback on areas of improvement for future engagements.

4. Provide the auditor with instructions and directions to complete the audit.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 12

Which of the following describes the primary objective of an internal audit engagement supervisor?

Options:

A.

Uphold the quality of the internal audit actively

B.

Provide engagement progress updates to management of the area under review

C.

Assure risks and controls are identified and assessed

D.

Ensure timely completion of the engagement

Question 13

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team's IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization's IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

Question 14

An internal auditor is conducting an assurance engagement in the procurement area. The auditor follows a checklist of tasks prepared for the engagement. During the process, the auditor notices some deviations from the procurement procedure requirements. However, these deviations are not directly linked to and do not prevent the auditor from completing the checklist tasks. So, the auditor does not investigate these deviations further. Which checklist drawback most likely applies to this situation?

Options:

A.

Over-reliance and a false sense of security

B.

Limited flexibility

C.

Inability to keep the checklist up to date

D.

Standardization and a systematic approach

Question 15

An internal auditor is conducting an initial risk assessment of an audit area and wants to assess management's compliance with privacy laws for safeguarding customer information stored on the organization's servers. Which course of action is appropriate for this phase of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Solicit the services of a specialist information systems auditor

B.

Obtain the most current approved copies of the organization's privacy policy

C.

Consult with legal counsel about new privacy laws to establish appropriate criteria

D.

Consider the detection risk of noncompliance with the laws

Question 16

During which phase of the contracting process are contracts drafted for a proposed business activity’

Options:

A.

Initiation phase.

B.

Bidding phase.

C.

Development phase.

D.

Management phase

Question 17

Which of the following is the primary weakness of internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs do not allow for open-ended questions.

B.

ICQs do not allow for evaluating multiple locations.

C.

ICQs require significant auditor follow-up, as different managers may give different responses.

D.

ICQ respondents have incentives to answer that there are internal controls in place.

Question 18

The chief audit executive (CAE) for a manufacturing company included in this year s audit plan a review of the company's laboratory, using an experienced external service provider. The audit plan was approved by the audit committee without any changes At the time of engaging the external service provider, the CAE also secured the approval from the CEO. Who is responsible for ensuring that the conclusions reached for this exercise are adequately supported7

Options:

A.

Audit committee

B.

CEO

C.

CAE.

D.

External service provider

Question 19

In order to obtain background information on an assigned audit of data center operations an internal auditor administers control questionnaires to select individuals who have primary responsibilities within the process. Which of the following is a drawback of this approach?

Options:

A.

It will be difficult to quantify the information obtained through this approach

B.

This approach does not help the auditor learn about the existence of controls

C.

It takes the auditor a long time to assess the relevant controls using this approach

D.

Information on control functionality is limited

Question 20

An internal auditor is asked to determine why the production line for a large manufacturing organization has been experiencing shutdowns due to unavailable pacts The auditor learns that production data used for generating automatic purchases via electronic interchange is collected on personal computers connected by a local area network (LAN) Purchases are made from authorized vendors based on both the production plans for the next month and an authorized materials requirements plan (MRP) that identifies the parts needed per unit of production The auditor suspects the shutdowns are occurring because purchasing requirements have not been updated for changes in production techniques. Which of the following audit procedures should be used to test the auditor's theory?

Options:

A.

Compare purchase orders generated from test data input into the LAN with purchase orders generated from production data for the most recent period

B.

Develop a report of excess inventory and compare the inventory with current production volume

C.

Compare the pans needed based on current production estimates and the MRP for the revised production techniques with the purchase orders generated from the system for the same period

D.

Select a sample of production estimates and MRPs for several periods and trace them into the system to determine that input is accurate

Question 21

According to the Standards, which of the following is true regarding the auditor's inclusion of management's satisfactory performance in the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Acknowledgement of satisfactory performance is encouraged but not required.

B.

There are no standards to address the inclusion of satisfactory performance.

C.

Satisfactory performance should only be acknowledged with the advice of corporate counsel.

D.

Auditors must include satisfactory performance with the approval of the board.

Question 22

Upon the completion of an audit engagement an audit manager performs a review of a staff auditor's workpapers. Which of the following actions by the manager is the most appropriate this review''

Options:

A.

Communicate the workpaper review results to management of fie area under review to validate the final report

B.

Update the final report in the file with any necessary corrections based on the workpaper review.

C.

Discuss the workpaper review results with the staff auditor where appropriate as a leaning opportunity

D.

Add the manager's review notes to the final documentation following the review

Question 23

Which requirement should the chief audit executive consider when communicating results of the quality assurance and improvement program to the board of a large organization?

Options:

A.

The internal assessment results should be discussed once every five years

B.

The rating conclusions and the impact from results of the external assessment should be explained

C.

The results of the external assessment should be discussed every seven years.

D.

The qualifications and independence of the internal assessment team should be discussed

Question 24

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources. Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls.

C.

Detective key controls.

D.

Preventive key controls

Question 25

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address this risks highlighted by the Internal audit Which of the following Is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

Options:

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts managements explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

Question 26

An engagement work program o of greatest value to audit management when which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

The work program provides more detailed support for the audit report

B.

The work program helps determined the required amount of audit resources

C.

The work program helps ensure tie achievement of the engagement objectives

D.

The work program assists the auditor n developing and managing audit tests

Question 27

An internal auditor develops an engagement observation related to an organization's accumulation of large travel advances. The auditor observes that the organization's procedures do not require justification for travel advances greater than a specific amount Which of the following best describes the organization's procedures?

Options:

A.

A criterion of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

B.

A condition of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

C.

A consequence of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

D.

A cause of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

Question 28

Options:

A.

Generalized audit software.

B.

Utility software.

C.

Integrated test facilities.

D.

Audit expert systems.

Question 29

Which of the following would best prevent phishing attacks on an organization?

Options:

A.

An intrusion detection system

B.

Use of firewalls

C.

Regular security awareness training

D.

Application hardening

Question 30

Which of the following situations is most likely to heighten an internal auditors professional skepticism regarding potential fraud?

Options:

A.

A procurement manager does not have the expected academic credentials for his position

B.

A salesperson frequently complains about the organization's policy on sales commissions.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor has requested advances against her monthly salary on several occasions

D.

A financial accountant is absent from work frequently due to regular medical procedures

Question 31

A senior internal auditor is hired within the internal audit activity for a period of two years before advancing to an operations manager role within the business operations team. When staffing arrangement is being used in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Comer of competence

B.

Career model

C.

Rotational model

D.

Cosourcing agreement

Question 32

Which of the following activities best demonstrates an internal auditor's commitment to developing professional competencies?

Options:

A.

Requesting to be part of all engagements on the annual audit plan

B.

Attending a series of locally offered training courses.

C.

Completing a skills assessment and development plan for targeted training needs.

D.

Attending a webinar on how to use data analytics

Question 33

An internal auditor concluded that delays in an ongoing construction project have cost the organization $10 million to date. Which documents should be included in the audit workpapers to provide sufficient evidence to support the conclusion?

Options:

A.

Payment and work milestones

B.

Pictures from the construction site

C.

Initial sprint planning

D.

Project internal rate of return

Question 34

Which of the following is not a direct benefit of control self-assessment (CSA)?

Options:

A.

CSA allows management to have input into the audit plan.

B.

CSA allows process owners to identify, evaluate, and recommend improving control deficiencies.

C.

CSA can improve the control environment.

D.

CSA increases control consciousness.

Question 35

Which of the following would be most useful for an internal auditor to obtain during the preliminary survey of an engagement on internal controls over user access management?

Options:

A.

The policy for granting, modifying, and deleting user access to ensure processing requirements are clearly articulated.

B.

A sample of change request forms to verify whether the forms bear the required approval for the user access change.

C.

User access reports that were reviewed by management to ensure that access rights are appropriate for employee roles.

D.

A current listing of system users and an employee listing to determine whether system users are active employees of the organization.

Question 36

Acceding to MA guidance, when of the Mowing strategies would like provide the most assurance to the chief audit executive (CAE) that the internal audit activity's recommendations are being acted upon?

Options:

A.

The CAF obtains a formal response from senior management regarding the corrective actions they plan to take w address the recommendations.

B.

The CAE develops a tracking system to monitor the stains of engagement recommendations reported to management for action

C.

The CAE communicates with impacted department managers to determine whether corrective actions have addressed engagement recommendations

D.

The CAE works with the engagement supervisor to monitor the recommendations issued to management for corrective action

Question 37

The internal audit activity is currently working on several engagements, including a consulting engagement on the management process in the human resources department. Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take to most efficiently and effectively ensure the quality of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Assign an experienced manager to monitor the whole engagement process.

B.

Employ fieldwork peer review to enhance the work quality.

C.

Require internal auditors to follow a standardized work program.

D.

Personally supervise the engagement.

Question 38

The chief audit executive (CAF) determined that the residual risk identified in an assurance engagement is acceptable. When should this be communicated to senior management?

Options:

A.

When the CAE reports the audit outcome to senior management.

B.

When the residual risk is identified before the engagement is complete.

C.

Immediately, as residual risk should be communicated as soon as possible

D.

When management of the area under review has resolved and mitigated the residual risk

Question 39

Which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of tangible and intangible assets?

Options:

A.

For plant assets, cost includes the purchase price and the cost of design and construction

B.

For intangible assets, cost includes the purchase price and development costs.

C.

Due to their indefinite nature, intangible assets are not subject to amortization.

D.

The organization must expense any cost incurred in developing a plant asset

Question 40

An organization experiencing staff shortages wants to contract a temporary employee to assist with work in the accounting office. Which of the following controls should be in place to ensure the temporary employee performs the assigned work before payment is issued?

Options:

A.

A three-way match between the invoice, purchase requisition, and documentation of receipt of services

B.

A member of management approves the purchase requisition before the temporary employee begins work

C.

A scope of work for the temporary employee is included in the purchase requisition and signed by the organization

D.

Payments to the vendor are analyzed monthly to ensure they do not exceed the amount approved on the purchase order

Question 41

An internal auditor s testing tor proper authorization of contracts and finds that the rate of deviations discovered in the sample is equal to the tolerable deviation rate. When of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the internal auditor to make based on this result?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor concludes that management may be placing undue reliance on me specified control

B.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is more effective than it really is.

C.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is acceptably effective

D.

The internal auditor concludes that additional testing will be required to evaluate the specified control

Question 42

An internal auditor performed a test of controls and found that a statistically selected representative sample of recorded transactions within the account receivables ledger had an error rate that was within management expectations. The associated revenue account was outside the scope of the audit engagement. How should the conclusion to this engagement be reported?

Options:

A.

The auditor should state that the error rate was within the selected confidence level.

B.

Negative assurance should be provided, as the associated revenue account was not examined.

C.

The auditor should state that controls over the recording of transactions in the revenue account are operating effectively.

D.

Positive assurance could be provided for the effectiveness of the accounts receivable controls.

Question 43

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements, internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls.

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review, to prevent tipping off probable audit tests.

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning.

Question 44

Which of the following analytical procedures should an internal auditor use to determine whether monthly expenses for the accounting department are reasonable?

Options:

A.

Review year-over-year trending of total dollars spent in each period.

B.

Review changes to the vendor master file for suspicious activity.

C.

Review the percentage of on-time payments against prior periods.

D.

Review total expenses for accounting against other department expenses in the organization.

Question 45

An internal auditor is planning an engagement at a financial institution. Toe engagement objective is to identify whether loans were granted in accordance with the organization's policies. When of the following approaches would provide the auditor with the best information?

Options:

A.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and verify whether they were repaid timely and in full

B.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and validate them against applicable underwriting guidelines

C.

Randomly select 30 employees to complete a survey regarding whether policies and standards are followed

D.

Randomly select several months obtain ageing reports for these months and compare them with the poor year

Question 46

An internal audit team was conducting an assurance engagement to review segregation of duties in the purchasing function. The internal auditors reviewed a sample of purchase orders from the past two year and discovered that 2 percent were signed by employees who were operating in a designated acting capacity due to employee absence. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes of information would most likely assist the auditor in deciding whether to report this finding?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency

B.

Reliability

C.

Relevance

D.

Usefulness

Question 47

What is the primary purpose of issuing a preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To build good relations with management

B.

To help management develop more responsive and timely action plans

C.

To formally report medium- and high-risk observations in writing

D.

To improve the internal audit key performance indicators

Question 48

An internal auditor is asked to perform an assurance engagement in the organization's newly acquired subsidiary When developing the objectives tor the engagement which ot the following statements describes the most important items that the auditor needs to consider?

Options:

A.

Previous performance of the subsidiary specifically its financial results over the last three years and the outcome of external audit reviews

B.

The results of previous internal audits of the subsidiary the recommendations provided and whether the recommended actions have been implemented

C.

Organizational strategy objectives, risks, control framework and the expectations of stakeholders regarding the audit

D.

The qualifications and competencies of the subsidiary's management team and their understanding of risk and control

Question 49

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

Question 50

An organization's finance manager plans to implement a state-of-the-art management system to better manage the organization's receivables. The finance manager consulted the chief audit executive (CAE) and asked for her assistance in determining whether the organization is able to accommodate this system. How would the CAE proceed to determine the objectives of this engagement

Options:

A.

Ask the CEO to determine the scope and objectives of the engagement

B.

Request that the board disclose its concerns over governance for inclusion in the engagement

C.

Discuss the concerns with the finance manager and work together to agree on the engagement objectives

D.

Review previous audit reports from the area and develop engagement objectives to address the area's key risks and controls

Question 51

During planning, the chief audit executive submits a risk-and-control questionnaire to management of the activity under review. Which of the following statements is true regarding the questionnaire?

Options:

A.

It would be an inefficient way for internal auditors to address multiple controls in the activity under review.

B.

It would limit certain members of the internal audit team from being fully involved in the engagement.

C.

It would be the most effective way for the internal audit team to obtain a detailed understanding of the processes and controls in the activity to be audited.

D.

It would be an efficient way for the internal audit team to determine whether specified control activities are in place.

Question 52

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process

Question 53

Two internal auditors are conducting an audit engagement concerning derivatives. The auditors meet with the organization's head of accounting. The head of accounting later complains to the chief audit executive (CAE) that it took hours for the auditors to understand basic derivatives concepts and how derivatives are typically recorded in bookkeeping. What should the CAE have considered more thoroughly?

Options:

A.

The engagement objectives.

B.

The head of accounting’s schedule availability.

C.

The auditors' qualifications.

D.

The details of the audit test plan.

Question 54

The internal audit team judgmentally selected 60 of the 600 employee timesheets that were processed during the previous month to determine whether supervisors were properly approving timesheets in accordance with the organization's policies. The internal audit team found three exceptions. Based on the audit test, which of the following is most appropriate for the internal audit team to conclude?

Options:

A.

The internal control is operating with 95% effectiveness

B.

There is 90% probability that the internal control is operating as designed

C.

The internal control is not designed appropriately

D.

5% of the selected timesheets were not properly approved

Question 55

Which of the following represents the best example of a strategic goal?

Options:

A.

Customer satisfaction index has to be 90% each quarter.

B.

Ten rapid charging stations will be installed next year.

C.

The organization aims to decrease the budget by 10%.

D.

The organization will be carbon neutral within 5 years.

Question 56

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

Options:

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met

B.

To ensure senior management supports the reports conclusions

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated

Question 57

White planning an audit engagement of a procurement card activity. which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to denary relevant risks and controls?

Options:

A.

Compare card transaction types against procurement card policy guidelines.

B.

Develop the scope and objectives of the engagement

C.

Determine how many cardholders exceeded their daily limit.

D.

Meet with the procurement card program administrator

Question 58

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor's differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

Options:

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client's differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

Question 59

New environmental regulations require the board to certify that the organization's reported pollutant emissions data is accurate. The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an audit to provide assurance over the organization's compliance with the environmental regulations. Which of the following groups or individuals is most important for the CAE to consult to determine the scope of the audit?

Options:

A.

The audit committee of the board.

B.

The environmental, health, and safety manager.

C.

The organization's external environmental lawyers.

D.

The organization's insurance department.

Question 60

Internal auditors map a process by documenting the steps in the process, which provides a framework for understanding. Which of the following is a reason to use narrative memoranda?

Options:

A.

To create a detailed risk assessment.

B.

To identify individuals who perform key roles.

C.

To explain a simple process.

D.

To document which outputs support other activities.

Question 61

An internal auditor of a construction organization found that completed inspection results, required by the organization's policy, were missing from the computer system. Which of the following, if included in the audit report, would demonstrate that the auditor performed a root cause analysis of this observation?

Options:

A.

Some inspection results were missing from the computer system.

B.

The results of lengthy inspections were more likely to be omitted from the computer system.

C.

Flaws in the computer system prevented employees from saving their inspection results.

D.

Employees did not ensure that inspection results were completed in the computer system.

Question 62

According to IIA guidance, which of the following typically serves as the basis for an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Past audit findings.

B.

Scope and audit objectives.

C.

Techniques and resources.

D.

Stakeholders' expectations.

Question 63

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target O Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

B.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement

C.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

Question 64

An engagement team is being assembled to audit of one of the organization's vendors Which of the following statements best applies to this scenario?

Options:

A.

The engagement team should include internal auditors who have expertise in investigating vendor fraud

B.

The engagement team should be composed of certified accountants who are proficient In financial statement analysis and local accounting principles

C.

To preserve independence and objectivity, an auditor who worked for the vendor two years prior may not participate on the engagement team

D.

The engagement team may include an auditor who lacks knowledge of the industry in which the vendor operates

Question 65

An organization s inventory is stored m multiple warehouses. During an inventory audit which of the following activities would most benefit from the use of computerized audit tools?

Options:

A.

Verifying the existence of inventory items in each warehouse

B.

Assigning the tolerable deviation rate to determine the sample size

C.

Valuating the obsolete Inventory from all the warehouse locations

D.

Confirming that the purchased items are recorded In the correct period

Question 66

Which procedure should an internal auditor perform to determine the audit objective?

Options:

A.

Meet with the board to discuss emerging issues and concerns

B.

Conduct a risk assessment of the area under review

C.

Establish the boundaries of the engagement

D.

Outline what will be included in the review

Question 67

An internal auditor is reviewing the accuracy of commission payments by recalculating 100% of the commissions and comparing them to the amount paid. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions is most appropriate for identified variances?

Options:

A.

Document the results and report the overall percentage of variances.

B.

Determine the significance of the variances and investigate causes as needed.

C.

Review the results and investigate the cause of all variances.

D.

Report all variances to management and request an action plan to remediate them.

Question 68

A chief audit executive (CAE) a developing a work program for an upcoming engagement that will review an organization’s small contracting services. When of the following would the CAT need to consider most when developing the work program?

Options:

A.

The contracting department's staffing changes within the last year

B.

The certifications held by the internal auditors assigned to the engagement

C.

The internal audit activity's increase n budget and staffing for the year

D.

The organization's recent changes to how it processes payments

Question 69

Operational management In the IT department has developed key performance indicator reports, which are reviewed in detail during monthly staff meetings. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap.

B.

Monitoring gap.

C.

Accountability reward failure

D.

Communication failure

Question 70

Which of the following would most likely be found in an organization that uses a decentralized organizational structure?

Options:

A.

There is a higher reliance on organizational culture

B.

There are clear expectations set for employees.

C.

There are electronic monitoring techniques employed

D.

There is a defined code for employee behavior

Question 71

According to IIA guidance, which of the following provides additional insight into errors, problems, missed opportunities, or noncompliance to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of an organization's control process?

Options:

A.

Reperformance.

B.

Vouching.

C.

Independent confirmation.

D.

Root cause analysis.

Question 72

An internal auditor has been asked to join a project team to help design controls in a software application to address specific risks that have been identified by the team Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Facilitate a control assessment to ensure all application risks were appropriately identified

B.

Advise the project team on how to develop effective controls

C.

Direct the project team to implement the appropriate controls within the software application

D.

Provide assurance that the design of the controls will mitigate the identified application risks

Question 73

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding heat maps?

Options:

A.

A heat map sets likelihood to have higher priority than impact.

B.

A heat map sets impact to have higher priority than likelihood.

C.

A heat map recognizes that the priority of impact and likelihood can vary.

D.

A heat map recognizes impact and likelihood as equally important

Question 74

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using flowcharts during a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

People cannot quickly understand the processes via flowcharts

B.

Flowcharts are not applicable for evaluating the design of controls

C.

Some serious risks that are not part of the linear process can be missed

D.

Flowcharts do not enable auditors to identify missing controls

Question 75

Due to emerging new technologies that greatly affect the organization, the chief audit executive (CAE) wants to conduct frequent IT audit and is particularly focused on improving the quality of these engagements. Which of the following is the most viable solution for the CAE to ensure that IT audit quality is immediately enhanced and maintained long-term?

Options:

A.

Each year send a different member of the internal audit staff to an IT audit conference to learn about emerging technologies

B.

Contract an external IT special to offer advice and consult on IT audits

C.

Employ an independent external IT specialist to perform IT audits for the first year

D.

Invite qualified staff from the IT department to serve as guest auditors and lead IT audits

Question 76

An internal auditor completed a test of 30 randomly selected accounts. For five of the accounts selected, the auditor was unable to find supporting documentation in the normal place of storage. Which of the following next steps would be most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Conclude that the test failed because at least 17 percent of the sample items were not supported.

B.

Select five new accounts to replace the ones that were missing supporting documentation.

C.

Expand the sample size to 60 to determine whether the error rate remains the same.

D.

Contact management to determine whether the supporting documentation can be located elsewhere.

Question 77

Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take during an audit engagement when examining the effectiveness of risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Evaluate how the organization manages fraud risk.

B.

Establish procedures for improving risk management processes.

C.

Ensure risk responses are aligned with industry standards

D.

Verify that organizational objectives are aligned with each departments objectives.

Question 78

During a review of data privacy an internal auditor is tasked with testing management's identification and prioritization of critical data collected by the organization. Which of the following steps would accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

interview management to determine what types of data are collected and maintained

B.

Trace data from storage to the collection sources to determine how critical data is collected and organized

C.

Review a sample of data to determine whether the risk classification is reasonable

D.

Document and test a data inventory and classification program by determining the data classification levels and framework

Question 79

A code of business conduct should include which of the following to increase its deterrent effect?

1. Appropriate descriptions of penalties for misconduct.

2. A notification that code of conduct violations may lead to criminal prosecution.

3. A description of violations that injure the interests of the employer.

4. A list of employees covered by the code of conduct.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

Question 80

According to ISO 31000, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The board is responsible for setting the organizational attitude through tone at the top.

B.

The internal audit activity will provide assurance over operating effectiveness but not over the design of risk management activities

C.

The internal audit activity can give objective assurance on any part of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

D.

The framework is designed to be effective for organizations no matter how small.

Question 81

Which of the following situations would justify the removal of a finding from the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Management disagrees with the report findings and conclusions in their responses.

B.

Management has already satisfactorily completed the recommended corrective action.

C.

Management has provided additional information that contradicts the findings.

D.

Management believes that the finding is insignificant and unfairly included in the report.

Question 82

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

Question 83

An internal auditor is conducting a financial audit. Which of the following audit procedures is most appropriate when existing internal controls are weak?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures.

B.

Detail testing.

C.

Test of design.

D.

Test of control.

Question 84

Management has taken immediate action to address an observation received during an audit of the organization's manufacturing process Which of the following is true regarding the validity of the observation closure?

Options:

A.

Valid closure requires evidence that ensures the corrected process will function as expected in the future

B.

Valid closure requires the client lo address not only the condition, but also the cause of the condition

C.

Valid closure of an observation ensures it will be included in the final engagement report

D.

Valid closure requires assurance from management that the original problem will not recur in the future

Question 85

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

Question 86

Which of the following engagement techniques would be best to meet the objective of denting a personal conflict -of -interest situation affecting an organization’s procurement function?

Options:

A.

Inquiry

B.

Analytical review

C.

Observation

D.

Inspection of documents

Question 87

While conducting an audit of a third party's Web-based payment processor, an internal auditor discovers that a programming error allows customers to create multiple accounts for a single mailing address. Management agrees to correct the program and notify customers with multiple accounts that the accounts will be consolidated. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

1. Schedule a follow-up review to verify that the program was corrected and the accounts were consolidated.

2. Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the corrective action proposed by management.

3. Amend the scope of the subsequent audit to verify that the program was corrected and that accounts were consolidated.

4. Submit management's plan of action to the external auditors for additional review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 88

What is the primary objective of an engagement supervisor's review of key activities performed during the engagement?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the engagement is completed on time and within budget

B.

To ensure that all work performed meets acceptable quality standards

C.

To ensure that management has provided suitable responses to all observations

D.

To ensure that management is satisfied with the progress of the engagement

Question 89

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management's responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 90

Management asks the chief audit executive (CAE) to allocate an internal auditor as a non-voting member of a steering committee. The committee will oversee the implementation of a significant and confidential acquisition. Which of the following should guide the CAE’s selection?

Options:

A.

To select a candidate who can be trusted to gather sensitive information on the acquisition

B.

To select a candidate capable of conveying internal audit strategy even without voting status

C.

To self-assign as only the CAE has authority to express opinions and offer advice to committee members

D.

To select a candidate who has prior experience in mergers or the completion of due diligence of entities

Question 91

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the best first step to manage risk when a third party is overseeing the organization’s network and data'?

Options:

A.

Creating a comprehensive reporting system for vendors to demonstrate their ongoing due diligence in network operations.

B.

Drafting a strong contract that requires regular vendor control reports and a right-to-audit clause

C.

Applying administrative privileges to ensure right-to-access controls are appropriate

D.

Creating a standing cybersecurity committee to identify and manage risks related to data security.

Question 92

According to HA guidance, the chief audit executive is directly responsible for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a quality assurance program even in the absence of management support

B.

Periodically reviewing and approving the internal audit charier

C.

Providing opportunities for all staff auditors to satisfy their professional development requirements

D.

Establishing the objectives scope and plan for each engagement

Question 93

The internal auditor and her supervisor are in dispute about a risk that was not tested during an audit of the procurement function. Which of the following tools would best support the auditor's decision not to test the risk?

Options:

A.

A spaghetti map

B.

A heat map.

C.

A process map

D.

An assurance map

Question 94

Which of the following is applicable to both a job order cost system and a process cost system'?

Options:

A.

Total manufacturing costs are determined at the end of each period.

B.

Costs are summarized in a production cost report for each department

C.

Three manufacturing cost elements are tracked: direct materials, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead.

D.

The unit cost can be calculated by dividing the total manufacturing costs for the period by the units produced during the period.

Question 95

When creating the internal audit plan, the chief audit executive should prioritize engagements based primarily on which of the following?

Options:

A.

The last available risk assessment.

B.

Requests from senior management and the board.

C.

The longest interval since the last examination of each audit universe item.

D.

The auditable areas required by regulatory agencies.

Question 96

The chief audit executive (CAE) determined that the internal audit activity lacks the resources needed to complete the internal audit plan Which of the following would be the most appropriate action tor the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Use guest auditors from within the organization, and leverage their experience by assigning them to lead engagements m areas where they previously worked

B.

Outsource some of the audits to the organization s external auditor who is already familiar with the organization

C.

Invite nonauditors to join the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational position, and assign them to join audit teams that are reviewing areas where they have no previous management responsibility

D.

Recruit recent college graduates and employ them as audit interns with an aim to offer permanent employment

Question 97

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

Question 98

Which of the following is most likely the subject of a periodic report from the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

A complete, accurate, and comprehensive account of engagement observations and recommendations.

B.

Oversight of the coordination between the internal audit activity and independent outside auditors.

C.

The internal audit activity's purpose, authority, responsibility, and performance relative to plan.

D.

Management's assertions regarding the system of internal controls.

Question 99

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires?

Options:

A.

Internal control questionnaires are useful m evaluating the effectiveness of standard operating procedures

B.

internal control questionnaires provide reliable documents allowing internal auditors to cover many control procedures in little time

C.

Internal control questionnaires can be used by internal auditors as an interview guide

D.

Internal control questionnaires provide direct audit evidence which may need corroboration

Question 100

An internal auditor discovered that a new employee was granted inappropriate access to the payroll system Apparently the IT specialist had made a mistake and granted access to the wrong new employee. Which of the following management actions would be most effective to prevent a similar issue from occurring again?

Options:

A.

Remove the new employee's excessive access rights and request that he report any future access error.

B.

Perform a complete review of all users who have access to the payroll system lo determine whether there are additional employees who were granted inappropriate access

C.

Review the system activity log of the employee to determine whether he used the inappropriate access to conduct any unauthorized activities in the payroll system

D.

Provide coaching to the IT specialist and introduce a secondary control to ensure system access is granted in accordance with the approved access request.

Question 101

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

B.

If it is a consulting engagement, decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible.

C.

if it is a consulting engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

D.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because the chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor's previous role when this engagement was assigned.

Question 102

An organization must maintain a current ratio of at least 1.2 to comply with debt covenants. Its current ratio is now 0.9. Which year-end transaction can increase the current ratio?

Options:

A.

Paying off an overdraft debt using funds from another bank current account.

B.

Purchasing inventory using funds from long-term bank loans.

C.

Acquiring a new car through leasing.

D.

Factoring short-term accounts receivable in exchange for cash.

Question 103

A bicycle manufacturer incurs a combination of fixed and variable costs with the production of each bicycle. Which of the following statements is true regarding these costs?

Options:

A.

if the number of bicycles produced is increased by 15 percent, the variable cost per unit will increase proportionally

B.

The fixed cost per unit will vary directly based on the number of bicycles produced during the production cycle.

C.

The total variable cost will vary proportionally and inversely with the number of bicycles produced during a production run.

D.

if the number of bicycles produced is increased by 30 percent, the fixed cost per unit will decline.

Question 104

Which of the following items, included in the preliminary audit communication would be most useful for management to formulate action plans in response to audit recommendations?

Options:

A.

A condition

B.

An audit objectives

C.

An audit scope

D.

An observation rating

Question 105

Which of the following statements concerning workpapers is the most accurate?

Options:

A.

The organization and the format of workpapers is the same for all engagements

B.

The extent of what is included in workpapers is a matter of professional judgment

C.

Workpapers should be complete so that every conceivable question that can be raised should be answered

D.

Copies of operational managements records should not be included, but referenced so that they can be located

Question 106

When auditing an organization's cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

Options:

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier's supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

Question 107

An internal auditor uses a data query tool in the purchasing process to review the vendor master file for authorizations Which of the following describes the control objective likely being tested?

Options:

A.

Effectiveness

B.

Response

C.

Efficiency

D.

Mitigation.

Question 108

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of internal control questionnaires (ICOs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are efficient because they minimize the need for follow-up with survey respondents

B.

Controls with positive survey responses can be eliminated from further testing

C.

Answers to survey questions can be easily misinterpreted

D.

ICQs offer limited value for organizations with uniform procedures

Question 109

Prior to performing testing an internal auditor has determined that a primary process control failed due to design weakness. Which of the following actions should the auditor perform next?

Options:

A.

Determine whether there are any compensating controls in place to reduce the nsk to an acceptable level, and discuss this matter with management of the business area to determine which corrective action is needed

B.

Test the control anyway to determine the likelihood that the control was not performed property, and discuss this matter with management of the business area to determine which corrective action is needed

C.

Conclude that the process control environment is weak, issue a finding on this conclusion and report this finding to management of the business area

D.

Confer with a second internal auditor to determine whether the control failure is legitimate issue a finding on this conclusion and report this finding to management of the business area

Question 110

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement should be planned according to the internal audit activity's budget and then aligned to the risk universe.

B.

The audit engagement objectives should be based on operational managements view of risk objectives

C.

The planning phase of the engagement should be completed and approved before the fieldwork of the engagement begins.

D.

The main purpose of the engagement work program is to determine the nature and timing of procedures required to gather audit evidence

Question 111

An internal auditor wants to determine whether the key risks identified by management in the risk register are reflective of the key risks in the industry. Which of the following techniques would the auditor apply to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

Perform benchmarking

B.

Perform a trend analysis

C.

Perform a ratio analysis

D.

Perform observation to gather evidence

Question 112

Which of the following is an inherent risk of issuing an opinion on the overall effectiveness of internal control?

Options:

A.

The results of individual engagements do not support a satisfactory opinion on the effectiveness of internal control.

B.

The results of the individual engagements do not support a positive assurance opinion on the effectiveness of internal control

C.

The audit risk and associated legal implications increase

D.

The reliance on other assurance providers increases

Question 113

An internal auditor is assigned to validate calculations on the organization's building application As pad of the test the internal auditor is required to use an automated audit tool to simulate transactions for testing. Which of the following would most appropriately be used for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Generalized audit software.

B.

Utility software

C.

integrated test facilities

D.

Audit expert systems

Question 114

As part of an audit engagement, an internal auditor verifies whether raw material is regularly delivered to the organization's warehouse in a timely manner. What type of objective does this exemplify?

Options:

A.

Operations

B.

Compliance

C.

Financial reporting

D.

Strategic

Question 115

When determining the level of staff and resources to be dedicated to an assurance engagement, which of the following would be the most relevant to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

The overall adequacy of the internal audit activity's resources

B.

The availability of guest auditors for the engagement

C.

The number of internal auditors used for the previous review of the same area.

D.

The available resources with the specific skill set required

Question 116

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management's action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

Question 117

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

It documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review.

Question 118

The internal audit activity has requested that new vendor information be summarized once per week in a single report, and that all invoices each week for these vendors be automatically flagged in the invoice processing system. Which of the following computerized audit techniques is the internal audit activity most likely applying?

Options:

A.

Enabling continuous auditing.

B.

Employing generalized audit software.

C.

Facilitating electronic workpapers.

D.

Using machine learning.

Question 119

A manager has allowed a subordinate employee to have greater control and responsibility over the tasks that he performs This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Job enlargement

B.

Job enrichment

C.

Horizontal loading of the job.

D.

Job rotation.

Question 120

A technology firm's internal audit function is slated to perform a series of engagements assessing the security of its software development processes. To successfully perform these engagements, which competency should the internal audit function possess?

Options:

A.

Expertise in IT general controls

B.

Understanding of change management processes

C.

Proficiency in using design software

D.

Fluency in multiple programming languages

Question 121

Which of the following statements generally true regarding audit engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The best source tor detailed process information is senior management

B.

Audit objectives should be general and do not change.

C.

Computer-assisted audit techniques are typically not useful during engagement planning

D.

Internal auditors should prepare a dented audit program for testing controls

Question 122

Where should internal auditor focus their attention when identify and assessing key risks during the planning stage of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Audit risk.

C.

Residual risk.

D.

Inherent risk

Question 123

An organization invests excess short-term cash in trading securities Which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to test the valuation of those securities'*

Options:

A.

Use the equity method to recalculate the investment carrying value

B.

Confirm the securities held by the broker.

C.

Perform a calculation of premium or discount amortization.

D.

Compare the carrying value with current market quotations

Question 124

Which of the following sources of audit evidence is most reliable?

Options:

A.

Evidence obtained directly from an untested third party.

B.

Uncorroborated audit evidence obtained indirectly from an employee.

C.

Undocumented audit evidence obtained directly from a manager.

D.

Timely audit evidence obtained directly from a customer.

Question 125

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address the risks highlighted by the internal audit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

Options:

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts management's explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

Question 126

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the efficiency of an audit?

Options:

A.

The complexity of deficiency findings.

B.

The adequacy of preliminary survey information.

C.

The organization and content of workpapers.

D.

The method and amount of supporting detail used for the audit report.

Question 127

The internal audit activity is responsible for which of the following actions related to an organization’s internal controls9

Options:

A.

Mitigating risks affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

B.

Enabling opportunities affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Analyzing and advising regarding costs versus benefits of control activities.

D.

Attesting to fairness of financial statements

Question 128

Which of the following internal audit activity staffing models has the disadvantage that auditors are always new and in training?

Options:

A.

Career model

B.

Center of competence model.

C.

Rotational model.

D.

Hybrid model

Question 129

A manufacturing organization specializes in the production of evaporated milk and breakfast cereals. The manufacturing processes create significant loss in the form of waste and byproducts. The provision for normal production loss is known to senior management, but little action is taken when abnormal production losses occur. The organization sells its production byproducts to fish farmers at a reduced price. The byproducts are a widely recognized and used product in the fish farming industry. The organization has a policy that also allows its employees to purchase the byproducts at a negligible price. Based on the above, which of the following risks should the internal audit function consider when planning an engagement of the production process?

Options:

A.

The production team may be incentivized to increase production losses.

B.

The production team may work overtime and be overworked.

C.

Increased misappropriation of finished products.

D.

Risk that the finished product quality may be impaired.

Question 130

When determining the level of staff and resources to be dedicated to an assurance engagement, which of the following would be the most relevant to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

The overall adequacy of the internal audit activity's resources.

B.

The availability of guest auditors for the engagement.

C.

The number of internal auditors used for the previous review of the same area.

D.

The available resources with the specific skill set required.

Question 131

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1.A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects the organization

2.Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3.Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s records

4Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4

Question 132

An investor has acquired an organization that has a dominant position in a mature, slow-growth industry and consistently creates positive financial income Which of the following terms would the investor most likely label this investment in her portfolio?

Options:

A.

A star.

B.

A cash cow.

C.

A question mark.

D.

A dog

Question 133

Which of the following internal audit activity staffing models has the disadvantage that auditors are always new and in training?

Options:

A.

Career model.

B.

Center of competence model.

C.

Rotational model.

D.

Hybrid model.

Question 134

Which of the following statements about internal audit's follow-up process is true?

Options:

A.

The nature, timing, and extent of follow-up for assurance engagements is standardized to ensure quality performance.

B.

The actions of external auditors and other external assurance providers is not encompassed by internal audit's follow-up process.

C.

Internal auditors have responsibility for determining if management and the board have implemented the recommended action or otherwise accepted the risk.

D.

The follow-up process must be complete and documented in the working papers in order to conclude the engagement.

Question 135

A chief audit executive assigns a team of three internal auditors to carry out an audit engagement to ascertain adherence to the requirements of the procurement policy. Which of the following should be included in the scope of this engagement?

Options:

A.

The sample size to be considered

B.

The inherent risks to be considered

C.

The audit procedures to be considered

D.

The sub-processes to be considered

Question 136

Which of the following actions is the most appropriate response for an internal auditor to take when a significant risk is identified during a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Report the risk identified from the consulting engagement to senior management.

B.

Do not include the risk in the assessment of risk management processes, as that is management's responsibility.

C.

Do not report the risk, as it is out of scope for the consulting engagement.

D.

Include the risk identified from the consulting engagement in the next annual risk assessment only if it is part of the consulting engagement objectives.

Question 137

During the planning process for a human resources audit, an internal auditor obtains an organizational chart. The auditor observes a flat organizational structure. Which of the below risks should the auditor consider for this engagement?

Options:

A.

Transactions and decision-making require multiple approvals, resulting in processing delays.

B.

Career and promotion paths are not easily visible and defined.

C.

Communication is likely to be top-down, with little feedback from lower-level employees.

D.

Employees have little autonomy, which may result in employee turnover or low morale.

Question 138

An engagement supervisor obtains facilities maintenance reports from a contractor during an audit of third-party services. Which of the following is the source of authority for the engagement supervisor to make such contact outside the organization?

Options:

A.

The policies and procedures of the internal audit activity.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.

Question 139

According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory of Motivation, which of the following factors are mentioned most often by satisfied employees9

Options:

A.

Salary and status.

B.

Responsibility and advancement

C.

Work conditions and security.

D.

Peer relationships and personal life

Question 140

According to the theory of constraints, which of the following is most influenced by various bottlenecks the organization encounters?

Options:

A.

Manufacturing.

B.

Profitability.

C.

Overheads.

D.

Quality.

Question 141

An organization's internal audit plan includes a recurring assurance review of the human resources (HR) department. Which of the following statements is true regarding preliminary communication between the auditor in charge (AIC) and the HR department?

1. The AIC should notify HR management when the draft audit plan is being developed, as a courtesy.

2. The AIC should notify HR management before the planning stage begins.

3. The AIC should schedule formal status meetings with HR management at the start of the engagement.

4. The AIC should finalize the scope of the engagement before communicating with HR management.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 142

Which of the following is more likely to be present in a highly centralized organization?

Options:

A.

The ability to make rapid changes

B.

Micromanagement

C.

Empowered employees

D.

Authority pushed downward

Question 143

An internal auditor plans to conduct a walk-through to evaluate the control design of a process. Which of the following techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

Observation and inspection.

B.

Inquiry and observation.

C.

Inspection and reperformance.

D.

Inquiry and reperformance.

Question 144

Which of the following are advantages of flowcharts over internal control questionnaires''

1 Flowcharts reduce the need to test whether employees are observing internal control processes

2 Flowcharts provide a visual depiction of the processes in the area under review 3. Flowcharts identify and prioritize internal control design weaknesses.

4 Flowcharts highlight the control points to help internal auditors evaluate control design

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 3 only

D.

2. 3 and 4 only

Question 145

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor perform when reviewing cash disbursements to satisfy IIA guidance on due professional care?

Options:

A.

The calculated statistical sample size is 50 however the internal auditor believes errors exist so he decides to increase the sample size to 80

B.

The internal auditor traces serial numbers of computer equipment listed on an invoice to the fixed asset inventory

C.

The internal auditor reviews the accounts payable manager's petty cash fund and vouchers

D.

The internal auditor reviews the related invoice purchase order and receiving report for each sample selection

Question 146

Which of the blowing is an example of a compliance assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Proving in-house training to senior management regarding applicable laws and regulations

B.

Proving an assessment of the design adequacy of controls related to consumer privacy and confidentially.

C.

Providing an assessment of customer satisfaction with customer service provided by the organization

D.

Providing testing on the operating effectiveness of controls ever the reliability of financial reporting

Question 147

Which of the following is an advantage of an internal audit activity coordinating with a management-defined risk universe?

Options:

A.

Increased completeness, including risk categories like political, supplier, and social media.

B.

Business managers can identify and assess risks that occur within each category.

C.

The internal audit activity can rely on management's risk assessment.

D.

Organizationwide audits are required since risk events within categories occur in many different ways.

Question 148

Which phase of an audit engagement is typically the most effective time for an internal auditor to develop a risk and control matrix?

Options:

A.

When preparing to recap audit test results.

B.

At sample selection, to determine sampling methodology.

C.

At the start of fieldwork, as part of developing the annual audit plan.

D.

At planning, to assist in developing the engagement work program.

Question 149

Which of the following offers the best explanation of why the auditor in charge would assign a junior auditor to complete a complex part of the audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The senior auditors are unavailable, as they are currently working on other portions of the engagement.

B.

The auditor in charge believes that the junior auditor should obtain a specific type of experience.

C.

The audit engagement has a tight deadline and the work must be completed timely.

D.

The auditor in charge is unable to identify audit staff with all of the required skills needed to complete the engagement.

Question 150

A corporate merger decision prompts the cruel audit executive (CAE) to propose interim changes lo the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks. When of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CCO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

Question 151

In an organization with a large internal audit activity that has several audit teams performing engagements simultaneously which of the following tasks is an engagement supervisor most likely to perform during the planning phase of a new engagement?

Options:

A.

Establish a means for resolving any professional judgment differences over ethical issues that may arise during the engagement.

B.

Approve the engagement work program to ensure the program is designed to achieve the engagement objectives

C.

Evaluate whether the testing and results support the engagement results and conclusion

D.

Review the sample testing results for exceptions.

Question 152

A draft internal audit report that cites deficient conditions generally should be reviewed with which of the following groups?

1. The client manager and her superior.

2. Anyone who may object to the report’s validity.

3. Anyone required to take action.

4. The same individuals who receive the final report.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

1, 2, and 4

Question 153

An internal audit team leader is having difficulties completing the planning phase of an assurance engagement because the business unit lacks a system of internal controls. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal audit team leader?

Options:

A.

Defer the engagement until a system of internal control has been established

B.

Change the scheduled engagement from assurance to consulting to help correct the shortcomings

C.

Add a consulting component to the already scheduled assurance engagement

D.

Seek the involvement of the external auditor to assist with improving the internal controls

Question 154

What would be the effect if an organization paid one of its liabilities twice during the year, in error?

Options:

A.

Assets, liabilities, and owners' equity would be understated.

B.

Assets, net income, and owners’ equity would be unaffected

C.

Assets and liabilities would be understated.

D.

Assets, net income, and owners’ equity would be understated, but liabilities would be overstated

Question 155

A chief audit executive (CAE) is trying to balance the internal audit activity's needs for technical audit skills budget efficiency and staff development opportunities. Which of the following would best assist the CAE in achieving this balance1?

Options:

A.

Strategic sourcing

B.

Loan staff arrangement

C.

Flat organizational structure

D.

Hierarchical organizational structure

Question 156

An engagement supervisor reviewed a staff internal auditor's documentation and noted that several edits should be made. The internal audit activity uses an electronic workpaper database and does not maintain paper files for its system of record. A system error prevents the engagement supervisor from adding her electronic signature to any workpaper in the database Given this situation which is the most appropriate response to provide evidence of supervisory review?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor should print sign and date each workpaper after the review is complete and scan the document into the database as evidence of review

B.

Because the engagement supervisor called the help desk to correct the IT problem, he should upload the support-request ticket from the help desk to serve as evidence of the review

C.

The engagement supervisor should ask another manager-level internal auditor not associated with the project to sign the workpaper on his behalf

D.

The engagement supervisor should instruct the staff internal auditor to add a note in the workpaper on his behalf indicating that the workpaper was reviewed and feedback was provided

Question 157

During a payroll audit, the internal auditor discovered that several individuals who have the same position classification as the are earning a significantly higher salary. The auditor noted the names and amounts of each; and he planned to prepare a request to the chief audit executive for a salary Increase based on this Information. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was violated in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Competency.

B.

Objectivity.

C.

integrity

D.

Confidentiality

Question 158

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short-term debt-paying ability?

Options:

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio

B.

Profit margin

C.

Current ratio

D.

Times interest earned

Question 159

The internal audit activity has become aware of public complaints regarding the sales practices of telephone marketing personnel in a large organization. The internal auditors decide to review a sample of all complaints within the last three months to ensure they are reflective of current marketing practices. Which of the following best describes this sampling technique?

Options:

A.

Judgmental sampling

B.

Random sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Statistical sampling

Question 160

What is the best course of action for a chief audit executive if an internal auditor identifies in the early stage of an audit that some employees have inappropriate access to a key system?

Options:

A.

Contact the audit committee chair to discuss the finding

B.

Obtain verbal assurance from management that the inappropriate access will be removed

C.

Issue an interim audit report so that management can implement action plans

D.

Ask the auditor to create a ticket with the IT help desk requesting to revoke the inappropriate access

Question 161

Options:

A.

The auditor wants to receive mid-level management insight on how to improve hiring practices.

B.

The auditor wants to obtain information on whether adherence to approval matrices is actually taking place in different maintenance units.

C.

The auditor wants to gain assurance that inventory counts are conducted in accordance with established procedures.

D.

The auditor wants to assess whether different subsidiaries apply centrally established procurement rules in the same manner.

Question 162

The internal audit function is in the fieldwork stage of the annual staff performance appraisal assurance engagement. A new auditor is hired and added to the engagement team. The auditor reviews the engagement work program with another member of the team and suggests improvements to make the fieldwork easier to complete. What action should be taken next?

Options:

A.

Refer the suggested changes to the engagement supervisor for approval.

B.

Note the suggested changes to be included in next year’s engagement program.

C.

Update the engagement work program with the suggested changes.

D.

No action is required as the work program has been approved and is underway.

Question 163

An internal auditor is using attributes sampling to test internal controls. Under which of the following circumstances would the auditor increase the original sample size to estimate error occurrence at a given precision and confidence level?

Options:

A.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision exceeds the acceptable error rate.

B.

The sample rate of occurrence is less than the acceptable error rate.

C.

The acceptable rate of occurrence less the precision exceeds the sample rate of occurrence.

D.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision equals the acceptable error rate.

Question 164

According to IIA guidance, when would an interim report typically be produced?

Options:

A.

During a standard audit engagement when management wants to address an issue before the final report is drafted.

B.

Following each workshop conducted during a consulting engagement.

C.

During lengthy audit engagements involving several organizational units.

D.

Following management's update tor actions taken on outstanding recommendations.

Question 165

The chief audit executive of an international organization is planning an audit of the treasury function located at the organization's headquarters. The current internal audit team at headquarters lacks expertise in the area of financial markets which is needed tor the engagement When of the following would be the most approbate solution considering the time constraint?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement 10 tie organization's external auditor who has expertise in the area of financial markets

B.

Hire additional internal auditors who have expertise in the area of financial markets.

C.

Invite a guest auditor from one of the organization's affiliates who has expertise m the area of financial markets.

D.

Limit the scope of the engagement to the knowledge and skills possessed by the internal audit team.

Question 166

A bank uses customer departmentalization to categorize its departments. Which of the following groups best exemplifies this method of categorization?

Options:

A.

Community, institutional, and agricultural banking

B.

Mortgages, credit cards, and savings.

C.

South, southwest and east.

D.

Teller, manager, and IT specialist

Question 167

An internal auditor performed a review that focused on the organization’s process for vetting vendors. The internal auditor’s testing identified that 120 out of 130 vendors had a business relationship with the organization’s procurement manager that violated conflict-of-interest policies. Which of the following conclusions could the internal auditor draw from these results?

Options:

A.

The organization is exposed to significant fraud and abuse risks as a result of the vendor and employee business relationships.

B.

Due to improper relationships and favoritism, vendors are not providing goods or services at a reasonable price to meet the objectives.

C.

The organization’s conflict-of-interest policies are not clear or well communicated throughout the organization.

D.

Improper relationships and favoritism means that controls are not effective and significant fraud occurs.

Question 168

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

Question 169

An internal auditor for a regional bank suspects that the head of commercial lending has been granting loans without the required collateral Which of the following sampling techniques will be most effective for investigating the auditor's suspicion?

Options:

A.

Variables sampling

B.

Dollar-unit sampling

C.

Judgmental sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

Question 170

After completing an assurance engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) concludes that management has accepted a level of risk that may be unacceptable to the

organization. What is the most appropriate first step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Discuss the issue with senior management.

B.

Discuss the issue only with the CEO.

C.

Inform the board.

D.

Discuss the issue with the members of management responsible for the risk area.

Question 171

An internal auditor examined a nostatistical sample of open accounts receivable balances and discovered that 10 out of 60 exceeded the approved unseated credit limit threshold defined by the organization's policy What should the auditor document in the workpapers?

Options:

A.

Credit limit over drafts are not monitored in accordance with the organizations policy

B.

Seventeen percent of customers' open balances in the sample exceed their approved unsecured credit rent

C.

The threshold for credit limits defined by the organization's policy is not adequate

D.

Management should perform monthly monitoring of open customer balances

Question 172

Which of the following is the primary purpose of implementing a program whereby employees are rotated from other parts of the organization into the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

It provides the internal audit activity with more resourcing options to meet the audit plan

B.

It offers internal auditors the opportunity to learn more about other work areas.

C.

It gives nonauditors a better understanding of the control environment.

D.

It provides an opportunity for the recruitment of employees as permanent internal auditors

Question 173

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisor’s review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisor’s concerns have been addressed.

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisor's review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisor’s review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program.

Question 174

An internal auditor observed that sales staff are able to modify or cancel an order in the system prior to shipping She wonders whether they can also modify orders after shipping. Which of the following types of controls should she examine?

Options:

A.

Batch controls.

B.

Application controls

C.

General IT controls.

D.

Logical access controls

Question 175

When setting the scope for the identification and assessment of key risks and controls in a process, which of the following would be the least appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

Develop the scope of the audit based on a bottom-up perspective to ensure that all business objectives are considered.

B.

Develop the scope of the audit to include controls that are necessary to manage risk associated with a critical business objective.

C.

Specify that the auditors need to assess only key controls, but may include an assessment of non-key controls if there is value to the business in providing such assurance.

D.

Ensure the audit includes an assessment of manual and automated controls to determine whether business risks are effectively managed.

Question 176

Which of the following approaches would best help an internal auditor determine whether a retailer database of 100,000 customers has nay duplicate accounts?

Options:

A.

Stratifying the customer information

B.

Extracting the customer information

C.

Filtering the customer information

D.

Sorting the customer information

Question 177

Which of the following is essential for ensuring that the internal audit activity’s findings and recommendations receive adequate consideration?

Options:

A.

Reporting results of audits with recommendations to management.

B.

Providing formal follow-up procedures to ensure that management complies with an action plan or accepted risk of not taking action.

C.

Reporting quarterly to management that the audit plan is focused on higher exposures of risk.

D.

Discussing audit findings with independent auditors.

Question 178

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization’s board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board*?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 179

As part of internal audit's assistance with an annual external audit, the internal auditors are required to do a preliminary analytical review of an bank account balances. This involves verifying the current year end balances as web as comparing the current year end balances with previous year end balances to highlight significant changes. Which of the following is the most reliable source for verification of the current year end bank balances?

Options:

A.

Bank confirmations

B.

Internal bonk statements

C.

Bank reconciliations as of the end of the year

D.

Bank account general ledger balancer as of the end of the year

Question 180

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement should be planned according to the internal audit activity’s budget and then aligned to the risk universe.

B.

The audit engagement objectives should be based on operational management's view of risk objectives.

C.

The planning phase of the engagement should be completed and approved before the fieldwork of the engagement begins.

D.

The main purpose of the engagement work program is to determine the nature and timing of procedures required to gather audit evidence.

Question 181

A large retail organization, which sells most of its products online, experiences a computer hacking incident. The chief IT officer immediately investigates the incident and concludes that the attempt was not successful. The chief audit executive (CAE) learns of the attack in a casual conversation with an IT auditor. Which of the following actions should the CAE take?

1. Meet with the chief IT officer to discuss the report and control improvements that will be implemented as a result of the security breach, if any.

2. Immediately inform the chair of the audit committee of the security breach, because thus far only the chief IT officer is aware of the incident.

3. Meet with the IT auditor to develop an appropriate audit program to review the organization's Internet-based sales process and key controls.

4. Include the incident in the next quarterly report to the audit committee.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

Question 182

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended However during a follow-up engagement the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager deeded to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication

B.

Discuss the issue with the board which has ultimate responsibility to resolve the risk

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager attempt to change his view, and encourage him to movement the recommendations

D.

Document the branch manager's decision to accept the risk otherwise, no other speak: course of action is required.

Question 183

In which of following scenarios is the internal auditor performing benchmarking?

Options:

A.

The auditor compares information from one period with the same information from the poor period

B.

The auditor compares new information to his general knowledge of the organization

C.

The auditor compares information he collected with simmer information from another source

D.

The auditor compares expected outcomes with actual results

Question 184

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

Options:

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

Question 185

Which of the following is most likely to be considered a control weakness?

Options:

A.

Vendor invoice payment requests are accompanied by a purchase order and receiving report.

B.

Purchase orders are typed by the purchasing department using prenumbered forms

C.

Buyers promptly update the official vendor listing as new supplier sources become known.

D.

Department managers initiate purchase requests that must be approved by the plant superintendent

Question 186

A multinational organization has multiple divisions that sell their products internally to other divisions When selling internally, which of the following transfer prices would lead to the best decisions for the organization?

Options:

A.

Full cost

B.

Full cost plus a markup.

C.

Market price of the product.

D.

Variable cost plus a markup.

Question 187

While reviewing the organization’s financial year-end processes, an internal auditor discovered an erroneous journal entry. If the error is not addressed, it will result in a material misstatement of the financial records. The internal auditor needs an additional four weeks to complete the audit engagement. How should the auditor communicate this finding?

Options:

A.

The auditor should issue an interim report to management prior to completion of the audit and issuance of the final report.

B.

The auditor should include this item in the final audit report, marked with an asterisk, indicating that it is a high-risk item.

C.

The auditor should discuss the finding with the appropriate accounting staff who can make the correction immediately, and if corrected before the engagement is concluded, the finding would not need to be included in the audit report.

D.

The auditor is obligated to bypass management and immediately report the error directly to regulatory authorities.

Question 188

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor discovered that a sales manager approved numerous sales contracts for values exceeding his authorization limit. The auditor reported the finding to the audit supervisor, noting that the sales manager had additional new contracts under negotiation. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

The audit supervisor should include the new contracts in the finding for the final audit report.

B.

The audit supervisor should communicate the finding to the supervisor of the sales manager through an interim report.

C.

The audit supervisor should remind the sales manager of his authority limit for the contracts under negotiation.

D.

The auditor should not reference the new contracts, because they are not yet signed and therefore cannot be included in the final report.

Question 189

Which of the following attribute sampling methods would be most appropriate to use to measure the total misstatement posted to an accounts payable ledger?

Options:

A.

Stop-or-go sampling

B.

Probability to proportional size sampling

C.

Classical variable sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

Question 190

Which of the following steps should an internal auditor complete when conducting a review of an electronic data interchange application provided by a third-party service?

Ensure encryption keys meet ISO standards.

Determine whether an independent review of the service provider's operation has been conducted.

Verify that the service provider’s contracts include necessary clauses.

Verify that only public-switched data networks are used by the service provider.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

Question 191

During a fraud interview, it was discovered that unquestioned authority enabled a vice president to steal funds from the organization. Which of the following best describes this condition?

Options:

A.

Scheme.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Pressure.

Question 192

An internal auditor completes a series of engagement steps and is ready to turn in the workpapers for the engagement supervisor’s review. The auditor has additional, separate notes about the engagement and is unsure what to do with them. The workpapers are complete and contain sufficient information to support the engagement work. What should the auditor do with the additional notes, according to IIA guidance?

Options:

A.

Include them in the workpapers for the engagement supervisor’s review.

B.

Omit them from the workpapers.

C.

There is no guidance on the inclusion of additional notes with workpapers.

D.

Retain them after the engagement is completed.

Question 193

An audit reveals that a manager's spouse is receiving paychecks, but is not employed by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions should the internal auditor take?

Options:

A.

Contact the external auditor and provide all relevant documentation.

B.

Report the finding to senior management in a timely manner, following the normal chain of command.

C.

Meet with the local manager to obtain more information on the finding before taking further action.

D.

Bypass the normal chain of command and contact the board directly to report the finding.

Question 194

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

Options:

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

Question 195

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

Options:

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

Question 196

Which of the following best illustrates the primary focus of a risk-based approach to control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

To evaluate controls regarding the computer security of an oil refinery.

B.

To examine the processes involved in exploring, developing, and operating a gold mine.

C.

To assess the likelihood and impact of events associated with operating a finished goods warehouse.

D.

To link a financial institution's business objectives to a work unit responsible for the associated risk.

Question 197

A chief audit executive (CAE) received a detailed internal report of senior management's internal control assessment. Which of the following subsequent actions by the CAE would provide the greatest assurance over management's assertions?

Options:

A.

Assert whether the described and reported control processes and systems exist.

B.

Assess whether senior management adequately supports and promotes the internal control culture described in the report.

C.

Evaluate the completeness of the report and management's responses to identified deficiencies.

D.

Determine whether management's operating style and the philosophy described in the report reflect the effective functioning of internal controls.

Question 198

An internal auditor is performing an engagement to determine whether quality control checks of electronic gaming systems are performed consistently among a technology company’s factories. Which of the following tests would support the audit engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Obtain and review the organization’s policies and procedures to gain an understanding of the quality control checks performed on the gaming systems.

B.

Perform unannounced onsite observations at factories to help determine how employees perform quality control checks of the gaming systems in real time.

C.

Meet and discuss with the quality control supervisors at the facilities to obtain information about the processes related to the quality control of gaming systems.

D.

Use the organization’s manufacturing documentation to create a flowchart that shows how the gaming systems are built to meet the established quality control standards.

Question 199

An internal auditor wants to obtain management's evaluation of the organizational risk culture. Because there are more than 30 geographically dispersed managers, one-to-one interviews are not possible. Which of the following is the most efficient option for the auditor to adopt?

Options:

A.

Send out a survey with a few open questions, such as “What is your impression of the risk culture in our organization?”

B.

Send out a survey with statements and request defined answers, such as “strongly agree” and “strongly disagree.”

C.

Send out an email asking managers to evaluate the risk culture and provide detailed justification.

D.

Send out an email asking those who have something to report on organizational risk culture to step forward.

Question 200

In preparing the engagement work program, which of the following is generally true with respect to secondary controls?

Options:

A.

A separate engagement work program should be created for secondary controls

B.

Secondary controls do not necessarily need to be tested for effectiveness

C.

Any documented secondary controls are deemed essential to the adequacy of control design

D.

Secondary controls should be held to the same requirements as key controls

Question 201

An internal auditor finds inconsistencies in a risk area that needs immediate attention. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the auditor?

Options:

A.

Prepare an action plan to address the inconsistencies

B.

Contact regulatory agencies to report the inconsistencies and recommended corrective actions

C.

Assess the risk of the inconsistencies against the organization's mission

D.

Issue an interim report to senior management

Question 202

Which of the following factors would be the most critical in determining which engagements should be included in the annual internal audit plan?

Options:

A.

Whether an audit is explicitly required by the internal audit charter

B.

The extent to which the work to be performed is an assurance or consulting engagement

C.

The organization's annual risk management strategy

D.

Risks that are identified by operations staff or senior management

Question 203

Which of the following activities demonstrates an example of the chief audit executive performing residual risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of management not implementing a recommendation to address an observation.

B.

Inquiry of corrective action to be completed within a certain period

C.

Reporting the status of every observation for every engagement in a detailed manner.

D.

Soliciting management's feedback after completion of the audit engagement.

Question 204

Which of the following is true about surveys?

Options:

A.

A survey with open-ended questions is weaker than a structured interview

B.

A survey with closed-ended questions can produce quantifiable evidence

C.

A survey's participants are likely to volunteer information that was not specifically requested

D.

A survey, like inspections and confirmations are best used to test the operating effectiveness of controls

Question 205

An internal auditor reviewed bank reconciliations prepared by management of the area under review. The auditor noted that the bank statements attached did not have the

bank heading, logo, or address. Which of the following statements is true regarding this situation?

Options:

A.

The evidence may not be reliable.

B.

The evidence is not relevant.

C.

The evidence may not be sufficient.

D.

The information missing is not relevant to the audit.

Question 206

Which of the following activities would an internal auditor perform as a consulting engagement for an organization?

Options:

A.

Advising new internal auditors working for the organization on how to develop strategies on planning audits for the upcoming fiscal year

B.

Assessing whether the organization's corporate social responsibility program is meeting its yearly goals to reduce carbon emissions.

C.

Briefing the organization's department managers on how to implement risk management processes into their daily operations.

D.

Communicating with senior management to better understand how new purchasing controls will minimize payment processing time

Question 207

According to MA guidance, which of the following factors should an internal auditor consider when assessing the likelihood of fraud risk1?

Options:

A.

The effect on the organization's reputation

B.

Any potential damage to the organization's relationship with customers.

C.

Past fraud allegations and actual occurrences

D.

The potential and realized financial impacts

Question 208

The chief audit executive (CAE) is developing a workpaper preparation policy for a new internal audit activity. The CAE wants to ensure that all workpapers relate directly to the engagement objectives. Which of the following statements should be included in the policy specifically to address this concern?

Options:

A.

The workpapers should be understandable.

B.

The workpapers should be relevant.

C.

The workpapers should be economical.

D.

The workpapers should be complete.

Question 209

An internal auditor notes that employees continue to violate segregation-of-duty controls in several areas of the finance department, despite previous audit recommendations. Which of the following recommendations is the most appropriate to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional segregation-of-duty reviews.

B.

Recommend appropriate awareness training for all finance department staff.

C.

Recommend rotating finance staff in this area.

D.

Recommend that management address these concerns immediately.

Question 210

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysis techniques

Question 211

Which of the following situations best applies to an organization that uses a project, rather than a process, to accomplish its business activities?

Options:

A.

A clothing company designs, makes, and sells a new item.

B.

A commercial construction company is hired to build a warehouse.

C.

A city department sets up a new firefighter training program.

D.

A manufacturing organization acquires component parts from a contracted vendor

Question 212

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action to be taken by the chief executive (CAE) if management refuses to accept audit recommendations and implement corrective actions, Even after escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

The CAE should continue to meet with management to obtain their agreement for corrective action

B.

The CAE should note in the final report that management has decided to accept the risk.

C.

The CAE should ask that additional testing be undertaken to strengthen his case as to the need for corrective action.

D.

The CAE should advise senior management of his intention to escalate the matter to the board.

Question 213

An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the cash receipts process?

Options:

A.

Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.

B.

Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.

C.

Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.

D.

Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.

Question 214

An internal auditor is analyzing sates records and is concerned whether a transaction is recorded in the coned period. The accounting manager explains that the external auditor approved the records and produces an email from the external audit team leader. How should tie internal auditor respond?

Options:

A.

Ask the external auditor to review the same transaction again as an independent third party

B.

Consult account accounting principles, standards, and relevant guidelines in regard to timing of the entry

C.

Interview the chief financial officer and obtain her opinion on how the transactions should be recorded

D.

Compare the recording of this transaction to now similar ones were executed last year

Question 215

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting, investors generally do not rely on CSR information.

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary.

D.

Typically, operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

Question 216

Which of the following is one of the five attributes that internal auditors include when documenting a deficiency?

Options:

A.

The criteria used to make the evaluation

B.

The methodology used to analyze data

C.

The proposed follow-up engagement work to be performed

D.

The scope of work performed during the engagement

Question 217

Which of the following statements is true regarding partnership liquidation?

Options:

A.

Operations can continue after the liquidation, if all partners agree.

B.

Partnership liquidation ends both the legal and economic life of an entity

C.

Partnership liquidation occurs when there is capital deficiency.

D.

When a partnership Is liquidated, each partner pays creditors from cash received

Question 218

After finalizing an assurance engagement concerning safety operations in the oil mining process, the audit team concluded that no key controls were compromised. However, some opportunities for improvement were noted. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report these results?

Options:

A.

The CAE should send the final report to operational and senior management and the audit committee.

B.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management only, as there is no need to communicate this information to higher levels.

C.

The CAE should notify operational and senior management that the audit engagement was completed with no significant findings to report.

D.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management and notify senior management and the audit committee that no significant findings were identified.

Question 219

Which informal ion- gathering method would be most efficient for an internal auditor to determine whether specified control procedures are in place?

Options:

A.

Interviews

B.

Observations

C.

Reperformance

D.

Internal control questionnaires

Question 220

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor most likely be questioned on?

Options:

A.

The auditor confirms the organization's ownership of physical equipment by verifying its presence on site visually.

B.

The auditor vouches for a sample of check copies to support voucher packages to test the checks' validity.

C.

The auditor vouches a sales invoice to a shipping document to conclude that the invoice has been issued.

D.

The auditor recalculates the allowance for doubtful accounts based on management assertions.

Question 221

The external auditor has identified a number of production process control deficiencies involving several departments. As a result, senior management has asked the internal audit activity to complete internal control training for all related staff. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to follow?

Options:

A.

Refuse to accept the consulting engagement because it would be a violation of independence.

B.

Collaborate with the external auditor to ensure the most efficient use of resources.

C.

Accept the engagement but hire an external training specialist to provide the necessary expertise.

D.

Accept the engagement even if the audit engagement staff was previously responsible for operational areas being trained.

Question 222

According to IIA guidance, which of the following reflects a characteristic of sufficient and reliable information?

Options:

A.

The establishment of an audit approach and documentation system

B.

The standardization of workpaper terminology and notations

C.

The ability to reach consistent audit conclusions regardless of who performs the audit

D.

The application of documentation standards m an appropriate and consistent manner

Question 223

An organization is expanding into a new line of business selling natural gas. The internal auditor is planning an engagement and wants to obtain a general understanding of the natural gas market the market share that the organization wants to win, and the competitive advantage that the organization may have. Which of the following would be the best source of such information?

Options:

A.

Interview responsible managers and read strategic documents

B.

Conduct internet searches on gas sales and analyze market players

C.

Review gas clients' portfolio and compile statistics on sales margins

D.

Analyze the organization's revenues and calculate the proportion of gas

Question 224

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following is an appropriate reason for issuing an interim report?

To keep management informed of audit progress when audit engagements extend over a long period of time.

To provide an alternative to a final report for limited-scope audit engagements.

To communicate a change in engagement scope for the activity under review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Demo: 224 questions
Total 747 questions