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IIA IIA-CIA-Part1 Internal Audit Fundamentals Exam Practice Test

Demo: 257 questions
Total 858 questions

Internal Audit Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following would decrease or be reduced if an organization establishes and implements excessive internal controls?

Options:

A.

Production cycle time.

B.

Activities that add no value.

C.

Staff productivity.

D.

Complexity of operations.

Question 2

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred Into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

B.

If it is a consulting engagement decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible

C.

If it is a consulting engagement accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

D.

If it is an assurance engagement accept the assignment becausethe chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor ' s previous role when this engagement was assigned

Question 3

In an environment where employees are frequently penalized for mistakes and the organizational culture is one of fear and blame which of the following is an internal auditor most likely to find?

Options:

A.

Management regularly overrides key controls

B.

Employee turnover is tow

C.

Careless behavior becomes normal

D.

Employee morale is low

Question 4

Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

The QAIP scope includes assurance work performed by the internal audit activity but not consulting work.

B.

The QAIP verifies conformance with the Definition of Internal Auditing, Code of Ethics, and Standards.

C.

QAIP reports are for internal use primarily and typically are not shared with members outside of the internal audit activity.

D.

QAIPs make a distinction between fully outsourced internal audit activities and in-house internal audit teams, as a different set of criteria is applied for each.

Question 5

Which of the following controls would be most useful to prevent an employee from using the organization ' s funds for inappropriate expenditures and falsifying financial records to conceal the fraud?

Options:

A.

Segregating duties in the payroll processes.

B.

Confirming receipt of goods or services.

C.

Performing background checks on newly hired employees.

D.

Requiring management approval for expenses.

Question 6

Which type of engagement requires that the client agrees with the techniques used by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

A performance audit.

B.

A sensitive fraud investigation.

C.

A compliance audit

D.

A consulting service.

Question 7

An internal auditor at a multinational organization is reviewing the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk management framework. In this scenario, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor should consider local cultures and customs in various regions when assessing control effectiveness.

B.

Regardless of their location, employees at all levels share responsibility for designing effective controls to mitigate risks.

C.

To achieve an effective internal control environment, the organization ' s risk management plan must be documented and communicated to all levels throughout each region.

D.

Setting clear objectives is a precondition to effectively identifying, assessing, and responding to the organization ' s risks.

Question 8

Which of the following qualifies as an acceptable consulting service provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Develop training and system rollout plans in response to the results of the change readiness assessment of a new sales distribution model

B.

Lead a risk self assessment session for laboratory managers to help identify inherent risks and provide recommendations on how to evaluate the risks

C.

Audit a third party cloud service provider to review the effectiveness of governance and management controls in providing secure services to its customers

D.

Conduct a post-implementation assessment of the enterprise resource planning system to determine whether project objectives were met and to identify opportunities to maximize potential benefits

Question 9

Which of the following best describes the internal audit activity ' s contribution to the implementation of the risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Internal audit identifies key risk areas during assurance reviews and provides audit findings.

B.

Internal audit assists with the prioritization of identified risks.

C.

Internal audit participates in setting the risk appetite.

D.

Internal audit takes part in the design of risk mitigation measures.

Question 10

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of an organization ' s risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance may or may not align with risk appetite depending on whether the assessment is quantitative or qualitative

B.

Risk is assessed on both an inherent and a residual basis

C.

The framework addresses four organizational objective categories strategic, historical, operational, and investment

D.

External risks and internal opportunities are omitted from the risk assessment scope

Question 11

A new internal audit activity is considering the adoption of a risk and control framework. Which of the following is the most appropriate consideration during this process?

Options:

A.

The framework should not be developed by the internal audit activity

B.

The framework should apply to individual projects rather than the organization as a whole

C.

The framework should always be tailored to the organization

D.

The framework should require fewer resources to implement

Question 12

Which situation demonstrates an internal auditor’s due professional care?

Options:

A.

Repeating audit procedures from similar engagements to reduce planning time by not having to consider changes in operations or risks.

B.

Focusing on all discrepancies in operations, even if they cannot affect the achievement of the objectives of the organization.

C.

Using technology to enhance the effectiveness of audit procedures, taking cost versus benefit into account.

D.

Not using external expert consultation to keep audit costs low.

Question 13

An internal auditor is assessing how the organization processes financial transactions and whether written policies and procedures are followed. The auditor requested to meet with certain employees to understand their related roles and responsibilities. However the employees refuse to meet with the auditor claiming they are too busy. Which of the following responses would best demonstrate the auditor ' s conflict-resolution skills?

Options:

A.

The auditor considers the employees to be unresponsive and proceeds to document the actions and concerns as a scope limitation that can affect the engagement

B.

The auditor considers other options to determine whether the employees are processing financial transactions as required by the organization

C.

The auditor meets with senior management of the organization to discuss the employees ' behavior and possible resolutions that would satisfy all parties

D.

The auditor meets with the department supervisor and staff to discuss the employees ' actions in order to obtain an understands and potential resolution

Question 14

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with the Standards relating to continuing professional development of internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Regulatory approval from an accrediting agency.

B.

Self-assessments against a competency framework.

C.

Approval and signoff from the board of directors.

D.

A review by external auditors on an annual basis

Question 15

Which of the following represents a deficiency in the control environment?

Options:

A.

The sales department has failed to achieve targets for the last nine months.

B.

Employees report suspicious activity by calling the organization ' s ethics hotline.

C.

Hiring procedures do not include background checks for prospective job candidates.

D.

Management reports three potential ethics issues to the board of directors.

Question 16

In terms of governance, which of the following best characterizes the relationship between senior management, the board, and owners or investors?

Options:

A.

Accountability.

B.

Integrity.

C.

Independence.

D.

Risk management.

Question 17

Which of the following best demonstrates organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO.

B.

The CAE ' s compensation is approved by the chief financial officer.

C.

The CAE ' s appointment Is determined by the CEO

D.

The CAE reports administratively to the chief operating officer.

Question 18

According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles for the internal audit function regarding risk management are acceptable with appropriate safeguards in place?

Options:

A.

Setting the organization’s risk appetite.

B.

Determining appropriate risk responses.

C.

Implementing necessary risk responses.

D.

Maintaining and developing the risk management framework.

Question 19

The internal audit activity is responsible for conducting fraud investigations. A potential fraud instance was identified during an audit engagement. The chief audit executive appoints a lead investigator. Which of the following would most likely be the next step?

Options:

A.

Ask internal auditors to gather all relevant information and evidence.

B.

Identify and interview witnesses first and potential suspects later.

C.

Conduct a fraud risk assessment to identify the most vulnerable areas.

D.

Determine the competencies needed and assess whether team members have a conflict of Interest.

Question 20

During the closing meeting of a procurement audit, the business manager disagrees with the observation presented by the engagement supervisor and accuses the team of not understanding the procurement objectives The engagement supervisor blames the manager for impeding the audit What skillset should the chief audit executive utilize to manage this situation?

Options:

A.

The ability to negotiate

B.

The ability to use analytical tools

C.

The ability to foresee issues

D.

The ability to manage conflict

Question 21

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a required aspect of an internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Management approval

B.

Independent review

C.

Reporting relationships

D.

Quarterly assessment

Question 22

During the planning stage of an assurance engagement, the engagement supervisor initially reviews the control environment to identify and examine possible fraud risks.

Which finding should be considered a potential red flag?

Options:

A.

Senior management reinforces the code of ethics.

B.

Senior management sets unattainable business targets.

C.

Senior management reiterates the whistleblowing policy.

D.

Senior management does not have a succession plan.

Question 23

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for a chief audit executive to include in the internal audit policy manual in order to promote objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors may conduct a financial effectiveness engagement in a business unit at any point after being transferred from that area.

B.

Internal auditors may conclude that a business unit ' s current control environment is adequate and effective if the review of the prior year ' s workpapers and audit report supports that conclusion.

C.

Internal auditors may conduct an engagement in a business unit at any point after providing a training workshop in that area.

D.

Internal auditors should limit the scope of an engagement if they become aware of a potential impairment of their objectivity in order to reduce the potential impact of the impairment on the engagement results.

Question 24

The board of directors of a global organization has found an increased number of reported cases of unethical practices since last year. To assist the board in gaining a better understanding of the degree of ethics awareness within the organization, which of the following actions should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Request the internal audit activity to perform an ethics-related assurance engagement.

B.

Offer in-house ethics-related training seminars for employees to attend.

C.

Reaffirm the importance of the organization ' s code of ethics to all employees.

D.

Conduct an organizationwide employee survey on ethical practices

Question 25

An internal auditor is performing testing to gather evidence regarding an organization’s inventory account balance and is mindful of the possibility that the sample used might support the conclusion that the recorded account balance is not materially misstated when, in fact, it is. The auditor ' s concern best describes which of the following risks?

Options:

A.

incorrect rejection risk

B.

Incorrect acceptance risk.

C.

Tolerable misstatement risk.

D.

Anticipated misstatement risk

Question 26

An organization is conducting a fraud risk assessment as part ol its risk management program. Which of the following steps is the organization most likely to perform first?

Options:

A.

Identify relevant fraud risk factors.

B.

Identify potential fraud schemes.

C.

Identify existing controls for preventing and detecting fraud.

D.

Identify red flags by conducting data analysis.

Question 27

Which of the following is an example of impairment to an internal auditor’s independence?

Options:

A.

Due to his prior position as the accounts payable supervisor for two years, a new member of the internal audit function is assigned to audit accounts payable.

B.

An internal auditor delays reporting her findings to management until after a friend transfers from the department under review.

C.

The senior internal auditor utilizes the chief financial officer’s recommended sample selections to perform detailed testing.

D.

Believing there must be errors in a given balance sheet account, the internal auditor decides to expand her testing.

Question 28

Which of the following situations undermines the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity is responsible for the company ' s risk management function, and its head manager reports to the chief audit executive.

B.

A senior member of the internal audit activity once worked in the corporate finance department.

C.

The organization’s CEO reviews the internal audit activity’s annual budget per the organization’s policies and procedures.

D.

The internal audit activity often uses management ' s risk profile to build its own risk profile for annual planning.

Question 29

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes expense reimbursement fraud?

Options:

A.

Theft of cash after it is recorded in the books

B.

Theft of cash before it is recorded in the books

C.

Theft of assets through fictitious or inflated invoices

D.

Theft of assets through false mileage travel logs and meal charges

Question 30

According to NA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1. A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects

the organization.

2. Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3. Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s

records.

4, Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.B.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

Question 31

Which of the following is the primary reason that the quality assurance and improvement program should be detailed in the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

To justify training costs in the internal audit function’s annual budget.

B.

To demonstrate the intent to fulfill responsibilities with proficiency and due professional care.

C.

To conform with mandatory IIA guidance regarding internal audit charters.

D.

To describe the significance of internal audit independence and the activities promoting it.

Question 32

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is appropriate for an internal auditor to perform with regard to the organization ' s corporate social responsibility (CSR) program?

1. Determine whether the organization has adequate controls to achieve its CSR objectives.

2. Facilitate a management self-assessment of CSR controls and results.

3. Consult on the project design and implementation for the CSR program.

4. Exclude CSR-related external risks that are beyond the control of the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1, 2 and 3 only.

C.

2, 3, and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only.

Question 33

During a payroll audit, a staff internal auditor suspects that signatures on some of the documents being sampled for examination are not authentic. Which of the following actions should the auditor take before proceeding with the examination?

Options:

A.

Suggest to the payroll manager that the suspicious documents should be sent to the organization ' s security department for forensic review.

B.

Keep the suspicious documents in the workpaper file until the end of the engagement, and then discuss the suspicions with the payroll manager.

C.

Discuss the suspicious documents with payroll staff to seek their views on the authenticity of the signatures.

D.

Review the suspicious documents with the chief audit executive and seek advice concerning further examination.

Question 34

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

Strategic objectives are prerequisites to establishing internal controls.

B.

Internal controls eliminate process breakdowns caused by human errors.

C.

Well-established internal controls cannot be overridden.

D.

Robust internal controls ensure business success.

Question 35

How do assurance services and consulting services differ?

Options:

A.

There is less variety of consulting services that an internal audit activity might provide compared to assurance services

B.

Assurance services are limited to financial events or actions, and consulting services are not limited in this way

C.

Consulting services do not have to be included in the internal audit charter

D.

Other employees in an organization can provide consulting services but only an internal audit activity can provide assurance services

Question 36

Which documents would help a forensic auditor identify instances of collusion between an employee and vendor to defraud the organization?

Options:

A.

Email correspondence.

B.

Payment request forms.

C.

Vendor invoices.

D.

Bank statements.

Question 37

Management decided to post the organization ' s newly established code of conduct on its website. This decision is primarily intended to mitigate which of the following risks?

Options:

A.

Accountability risk.

B.

Communication risk.

C.

Knowledge risk.

D.

Cultural risk.

Question 38

While preparing the audit plan for an automobile manufacturing company, the chief audit executive (CAE) noted that the company ' s engineering department received a high risk ranking. However, the internal audit activity is understaffed, and current staff do not possess the necessary skills to adequately assess the effectiveness of the engineering department. What is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Include the engineering department on the audit plan, use the available internal audit resources to conduct the review, and exclude procedures that cannot be adequately assessed.

B.

Advise management to accept the assessed risk until the internal auditors are able to review the area adequately.

C.

Recruit internal auditors with the required competencies and wait until they are employed before including this audit on the internal audit plan.

D.

Proceed with a review of the engineering department but supplement the internal audit team with nonauditors from an external engineering company who have the required skills to assist

Question 39

Which of the following statements best illustrates why internal auditors assess soft controls?

Options:

A.

Assessing soft controls are an effective method of assessing risk related to personnel.

B.

Assessing soft controls, as opposed to hard controls, makes it easier to evaluate operating effectiveness.

C.

Assessing soft controls can help internal auditors in undertaking root-cause analysis.

D.

Assessing soft controls provides more objective information than assessing hard controls.

Question 40

An internal auditor is assessing the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk management practices. She checks to see whether risk management is an integral part of decision making and whether risk management is transparent, responsive to change, and addresses uncertainty. According to IIA guidance on risk management frameworks, which of the following approaches is the auditor most likely using?

Options:

A.

Maturity model approach.

B.

Process element approach.

C.

Key principles approach.

D.

Key performance indicators approach.

Question 41

The internal audit activity is undergoing a self-assessment as part of its quality assurance and improvement program Which of the following observations must be addressed in order for the internal audit activity to achieve conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter does not identify which audit services are outsourced

B.

The internal audit charter has not been reviewed by the legal department

C.

The internal audit charter has not been approved by the board within the past year

D.

The internal audit charter does not describe the authority of the internal audit activity

Question 42

In which of the following scenarios would the internal auditor’s objectivity be best protected?

Options:

A.

A former human resources manager conducts an effectiveness review of the appointment and termination process six months after transferring to the internal audit activity.

B.

An accounts payable clerk assists the internal auditors during an effectiveness review of the physical access controls to the server room.

C.

An internal auditor writes the system manual for a newly acquired payroll software application prior to conducting an effectiveness review of the system.

D.

An internal auditor conducts an effectiveness review of an organization ' s business continuity plan in which his son is a minority stockholder.

Question 43

After the draft engagement report is issued, the manager of the area that was reviewed is informally interviewed by the engagement supervisor regarding the audit experience. Which of the following is most likely the purpose for this interview?

Options:

A.

Such an interview is performed when there is a need to dismiss an internal auditor

B.

Feedback from the manager will contribute to the audit team ' s professional development

C.

The manager ' s opinion will be used to form the final audit assessment and report rating.

D.

The manager will provide insights into the audited industry ' s trends

Question 44

Which of the following represents a breach to the principle of maintaining objectivity?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor reported that a conclusion was drawn based on adequate testing, but in reality the auditor omitted many required testing procedures.

B.

An internal auditor attended a yacht trip organized by management of the area to be reviewed during engagement planning.

C.

An internal auditor sent a product price list to a friend who is a competitor of the company that employs the auditor.

D.

An internal audit report was released without appropriate review.

Question 45

Which of the following controls would most likely prevent fraud related to the overpayment of vendors?

Options:

A.

Require supervisory review of all invoices and cash disbursements exceeding a stated threshold.

B.

Require the matching of a purchase order, receiving report, and invoice before payment.

C.

Require all checks to be signed by more than one person.

D.

Require all invoices to be paid within 30 days by check only.

Question 46

An organization holds 40% of its long-term assets in stocks and wants to hedge for the possibility of potential losses in the foreseeable future.

Which of the following statements is true regarding this risk management approach?

Options:

A.

By hedging, the organization must exit its long-term investment position before the risk event occurs.

B.

By hedging, the organization must reduce its portfolio to limit the financial impact of the risk event.

C.

By hedging, the organization should liquidate part of its assets to protect investments.

D.

By hedging, the organization would be able to offset the impact from the risk event.

Question 47

Which of the following best describes a consulting engagement rather than an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Bank internal auditors review an activity checklist to determine that the loan officer followed proper procedures.

B.

The chief financial officer asks for the internal auditor ' s opinion regarding whether the new accounting pronouncements were properly and comprehensively adopted.

C.

An internal auditor is assigned to assess whether a proposed new initiative to convert a customer service system would be cost-effective.

D.

Senior management asks the internal audit activity to review compliance with customer data security regulations.

Question 48

The head of human resources notified the internal audit activity that a key account manager was fired because he did not register a large number of contracts with clients As a result the organization was unaware of its duties and would suffer some financial loss Which of the following should be expected from a competent internal auditor who is analyzing this situation?

Options:

A.

The ability to apply forensic methods to obtain legally admissible evidence

B.

The ability to conduct admission-seeking interviews with potential suspects

C.

The ability to evaluate whether such attributes as intent and personal gain were present

D.

The ability to retrieve concealed or deleted information from the former employee ' s laptop

Question 49

Which of the following actions by the internal audit activity requires disclosure to the board of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity did not complete an external assessment within the last seven years

B.

The internal audit activity performed an engagement with limited scope due to lack of knowledge

C.

The internal audit activity failed to consider risk when conducting a review of a department

D.

An internal auditor was assigned to an engagement m an area where she previously worked more than 10 years ago

Question 50

Which of the following best describes the board’s role in establishing effective organizational governance?

Options:

A.

The board is involved in approving operational policy

B.

The board monitors key processes and procedures

C.

The board has oversight responsibility for organizational resources

D.

The board approves management ' s detailed plans and objectives

Question 51

The chief risk officer (CRO) requested the internal audit function’s assistance during the implementation of the organization’s risk management process. The board wants the CRO and chief audit executive to define what the internal audit function’s role will be before it approves or denies the request.

Which of the following internal audit roles would be the most appropriate in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Create and maintain the risk management framework, methodology, and techniques.

B.

Use internal audit’s assurance engagements to enforce compliance with the risk management framework.

C.

Conduct self-assessment workshops to facilitate the identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Define management’s appropriate responses to risks.

Question 52

During a payroll audit, the internal auditor discovered that several individuals who have the same position classification as he are earning a significantly higher salary. The auditor noted the names and amounts of each, and he planned to prepare a request to the chief audit executive for a salary increase based on this information. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was violated in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Competency.

B.

Objectivity,

C.

Integrity.

D.

Confidentiality

Question 53

Which type(s) of assessments in an internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program requires ongoing monitoring to evaluate internal audit activity ' s efficiency and effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Neither internal nor external assessment

B.

internal assessment

C.

Both internal and external assessment

D.

External assessment

Question 54

Which of the following activities best demonstrates an internal auditor’s commitment to developing professional competencies?

Options:

A.

Requesting to be part of all engagements on the annual audit plan.

B.

Attending a series of locally offered training courses.

C.

Completing a skills assessment and development plan for targeted training needs,

D.

Attending a webinar on how to use data analytics

Question 55

Which of the following is ultimately responsible for the continuing professional development of internal audit activity staff?

Options:

A.

Individual internal auditors.

B.

Chief audit executive.

C.

Board of directors.

D.

CEO.

Question 56

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are considered a core internal audit role with regard to enterprise risk management?

Reviewing the management of key risks.

Evaluating the reporting of key risks.

Evaluating risk management processes.

Consolidating the reporting of risks.

Options:

A.

1 and 4.

B.

2 and 4.

C.

2, 3, and 4.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Question 57

Which of the following drivers of fraud is directly controllable by an organization?

Options:

A.

Pressure

B.

Rationalization

C.

Opportunity

D.

Incentive

Question 58

Senior management requested that the internal audit function conduct an advisory engagement to evaluate the design and implementation of the project for setting up a new accounting system.

Which approach should the auditors perform that relates only to an advisory engagement?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with senior management to define the objective and scope of the engagement rather than completing a risk assessment.

B.

Identify the criteria to be used to evaluate the aspects of the activity under review defined in the engagement objectives.

C.

Include in the engagement conclusions the auditors’ judgment regarding the effectiveness of governance, risk management, and control processes.

D.

Identify the types and quantity of resources necessary to achieve the engagement objectives.

Question 59

Which of the following situations is most likely to prompt the internal audit activity to disclose its nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

One of the organization ' s senior internal auditors owns a side business, though to date, no sales have been made to this business.

B.

The annual internal audit plan includes performance audits of main business processes, but reviews of high-risk development projects were not considered.

C.

The internal audit activity committed to carrying out an audit of documentation on investment hedging, and a hedging expert was contracted to assist with the engagement.

D.

A periodic quality self-assessment of the internal audit activity identified a number of improvement areas with regard to key performance indicators.

Question 60

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department. Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

Question 61

An internal auditor is trying to evaluate what could go wrong after determining that a risk management technique is operating effectively. What type of risk is the auditor assessing?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk.

B.

Residual risk.

C.

Impact risk.

D.

Detection risk.

Question 62

Which of the following tests would most likely help discover a fictitious invoice?

Options:

A.

Compare vendor addresses to employee addresses.

B.

Match cancelled checks to invoices.

C.

Search for duplicate payment amounts.

D.

Check employee bank records against invoice amounts.

Question 63

The management team of an agricultural organization has prioritized corporate social responsibility (CSR) initiatives. Which of the following would be considered a CSR activity?

Options:

A.

Offering a one-off donation to an environmental charity for its expansion efforts

B.

Organizing organization volunteers to provide periodic plantation skill sharing to farmers

C.

Providing special year-end monetary bonuses to the organization ' s employees at all levels

D.

Arranging a free-of-charge picnic for all of the organization ' s employees and their family members

Question 64

The chief audit executive (CAE) annually develops a budget and resource plan and submits it to the board for approval. This action best fulfills which of the following responsibilities of the CAE?

Options:

A.

The responsibility to maintain organizational independence.

B.

The responsibility to perform engagements with due professional care.

C.

The responsibility to communicate corrective action plans to the board.

D.

The responsibility to define the purpose of the internal audit activity.

Question 65

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation. However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization’s suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs.

Question 66

Which of the following is an example of an application control?

Options:

A.

Employees in the data center must always wear identification badges

B.

Operating system updates must be installed within 48 hours.

C.

A two stage authentication process must be used to access customer information

D.

System backup and recovery testing must be done monthly

Question 67

Which of the following is an example of impairment to internal auditor independence or objectivity ' ?

Options:

A.

Assurance engagements for functions over which the chief audit executive (CAE) has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

B.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they had previous responsibilities

C.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they have current responsibilities

D.

Consulting engagements for functions over which the CAE has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

Question 68

Which of the following would be considered a primary control to reduce the risk associated with setting up duplicate vendors?

Options:

A.

Receipt of a signed and approved vendor setup form.

B.

Segregation of duties between setting up vendors and making vendor payments.

C.

System validation and edit checks on vendor identification number

D.

A vendor setup policy and procedure.

Question 69

Which action, if taken by an internal auditor, most directly demonstrates objectivity?

Options:

A.

Accept an engagement to provide assurance over a process he helped design before joining the internal audit function a few months ago.

B.

Refuse a free concert ticket offered by management of the activity under review during an audit engagement.

C.

Store audit engagement data in a password-secured USB.

D.

Report to the chief audit executive an incident in which a manager is limiting the auditor’s access to records relevant to the engagement.

Question 70

Which of the following statements is true regarding organization wide risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk management is a function centralized at the top-level of management.

B.

Risk management centers on inventorying the applicable risks to the organization.

C.

Risk management is complementary to the system of internal controls.

D.

Risk management centers on governance and culture.

Question 71

Which of the following is an example of an impairment to an internal auditor ' s independence?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor delays reporting material financial statement audit findings until after his parents sell all of their stock in the company

B.

Following the restructuring of the organization, the internal audit activity now reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

A new member of the internal audit activity, who was the accounts payable supervisor for two years, is asked to consult on the implementation of a new accounts payable system

D.

Believing there must be errors in a given balance sheet account the internal auditor decides to expand his testing

Question 72

Which of the following practices is generally most effective to protect internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

Ensuring regular documentation of auditor skills and experience in the workpapers.

B.

Basing performance evaluations heavily on customer satisfaction surveys.

C.

Prohibiting auditors from accepting gifts from audit clients or potential clients.

D.

Ensuring that auditors have a balance of both operational and internal audit responsibilities.

Question 73

Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the application of internal audit proficiency?

Options:

A.

Management requests that the internal audit activity review and provide feedback on its strategic plans for a merger, but the chief audit executive (CAE) declines the engagement due to the team ' s lack of experience with mergers.

B.

A CAE reassigns auditors from other audits to perform testing on all of the fixed asset additions for a period, including amounts below the materiality level stated by external auditors.

C.

Due to the routine and recurring nature of bank branch audits, an audit manager often excludes detailed planning at the beginning of the audit and immediately performs fieldwork.

D.

During fieldwork, an auditor observed a lack of segregation of duties over cash management. The auditor reported this observation to his supervisor, who decided that the area should be examined in a subsequent audit.

Question 74

Which of the following is the primary benefit of an effective professional development program for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

An effective program may enhance internal auditors ' business acumen

B.

An effective program may ensure that HA Standards requirements are adhered to during audit engagements

C.

An effective program may ensure internal auditors ' effectiveness in setting the organization ' s nsk management process

D.

An effective program may clarify management ' s expectations of the auditors and their responsibilities to the organization

Question 75

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization ' s board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company.

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 76

According to The IIA’s Code of Ethics, which of the following scenarios offers the best example of violating the principle of integrity?

Options:

A.

An internal audit manager collaborates with senior management to provide misleading information to government authorities.

B.

An internal audit manager provides sample audit reports and workpapers to a friend without obtaining prior approval

C.

An internal audit manager carries out a technical audit request without seeking expert opinion, despite a lack of the requisite skills.

D.

An internal audit manager assigned to audit a sales process failed to reveal that the process owner is a relative

Question 77

Which of the following is a legitimate requirement for an internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Quality assessments should be performed by individuals with sufficient knowledge of the internal audit practices

B.

External quality assessments should be conducted every seven years

C.

All quality assessments should be either conducted or validated by an independent assessment team

D.

The results of the QAIP should be communicated to shareholders annually

Question 78

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor identified that a developer of the organization ' s enterprise resource planning (ERP) system had intentionally modified the production code to commit a fraudulent transaction. Which control activity should be implemented to prevent such issues in the future?

Options:

A.

Segregate duties between code development and migrating changes into production.

B.

Conduct fraud training for the IT team responsible for the ERP system.

C.

Penalize the developer who committed the fraud by terminating employment.

D.

Restrict developers ' access to the ERP system ' s test environment.

Question 79

An organization is in the process of hiring a new chief audit executive (CAE). Which of the following can the potential candidates expect to be a part of the recruiting process or in place when the CAE is hired?

Options:

A.

There are checks to determine the existence of any potential conflict of interest.

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the highest level of management, the CEO.

C.

The CAE’s compensation depends on the performance of the organizational departments.

D.

Hiring and termination of the CAE is dependent on the decision of senior executives.

Question 80

At a construction company, supervisors are entitled to bonus payments if there are no safety rule violations on their teams. There are several channels available for workers to report accidents and violations, and all reported violations are investigated. Bonus payment calculations are approved by managers and the head of safety. Which of the controls best addresses the risk that supervisors will conceal accidents on their teams in order to receive the bonus?

Options:

A.

The investigation of all reported violations

B.

The authorization process for bonus calculations

C.

The variety of reporting channels

D.

The presence of safety rules

Question 81

According to the Standards, which of the following is a requirement for internal audit professional development plans?

Options:

A.

Plans must include a path to certification so that each internal auditor has a certification in auditing finances.

B.

Plans must ensure that staff development activities are based primarily on the skills and competencies needed to complete the audit plan.

C.

Plans must include rotating audit areas so that auditors acquire business knowledge to be efficient in performing engagements.

D.

Plans must include rotating auditors out into business units for temporary assignments so they can obtain more business knowledge.

Question 82

During the planning stage of an assurance engagement, a payroll clerk informed the internal auditor that he is often asked to add new employees to the payroll without any formal new-hire documentation from human resources. The auditor is concerned that this increases the risk for fraud. To complete engagement planning, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Increase the sample size to be tested, ensuring a thorough review of the payroll records.

B.

Advise the chief audit executive of the clerk ' s assertion, despite the lack of supporting evidence.

C.

Ask the clerk to provide a list of any suspicious new employee names on the payroll.

D.

Investigate the matter further to understand precisely how many payroll records were affected.

Question 83

Which statement accurately describes the authority of the internal audit activity as outlined in the audit charter?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) shall report directly to the board and administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE shall provide senior management and the board with performance updates quarterly.

C.

The internal audit team shall have full access to the organization ' s records, physical property, and personnel required to conduct audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit activity shall maintain a quality assurance and improvement program in conformance with the Standards.

Question 84

A business unit manager was impressed by the competence of the internal auditor who was conducting an assurance engagement in his area and the manager made the auditor an attractive job offer to begin after the audit was completed The auditor later told her auditor in charge that she was considering the offer. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was most likely violated?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Objectivity

D.

No violation was committed

Question 85

What is the best course of action when the internal audit activity does not have the knowledge necessary to perform a planned audit of the organization ' s new IT data backup process?

Options:

A.

Postpone the audit engagement to a later date.

B.

Recruit and hire a full-time staff auditor who is proficient in data backup processes.

C.

Change the plan from an assurance engagement to a consulting engagement.

D.

Provide data backup training to the engagement supervisor.

Question 86

Which of the following best describes a purpose for the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter authorizes the internal audit activity ' s reporting structure and clearly defines the roles of each internal auditor.

B.

The internal audit charter defines the roles and responsibilities of the chief audit executive, board of directors, and senior management.

C.

The internal audit charter authorizes access to records, personnel, and physical properties relevant to the performance of audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit charter defines the criteria by which the internal audit activity ' s performance will be evaluated

Question 87

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement.

Question 88

Which of the following fraud schemes is often an off-book fraud*?

Options:

A.

Payroll fraud

B.

Disbursement fraud

C.

Corruption

D.

Information misrepresentation

Question 89

In which of the following situations would the organizational independence of an internal audit activity be impaired?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

Scope limitations are imposed on internal audits.

C.

The internal audit activity provides assurance services for an activity for which the engagement supervisor had responsibility within the previous year.

D.

The compensation committee of the board approves the remuneration of the chief audit executive.

Question 90

The internal audit activity is asked to provide consulting services regarding the risks related to implementing a proposed new Inventory management system. Which of the following would be a key consideration of the internal audit activity in accepting this engagement?

Options:

A.

Ask the inventory manager to determine whether the work planned would be sufficient to meet the consulting engagement objectives.

B.

Ensure that the method used to communicate the results of the consulting engagement is consistent with the board ' s preferred method.

C.

Determine whether the benefits to be derived from the requested assessment would exceed the cost of providing the consulting service.

D.

Use email and telephone conversations to convey the results of the engagement, as these may prove to be the most efficient methods for communicating.

Question 91

Which of the following is the appropriate next step after management identifies and implements risk responses?

Options:

A.

Prioritize risks.

B.

Assess the severity of risks.

C.

Develop a portfolio view of risks.

D.

Measure the velocity of risks.

Question 92

Which of the following is true regarding the use of a formal risk management framework?

1. It facilitates a methodical approach to risk mitigation.

2. It defines and standardizes the terminology used in risk communication.

3. It establishes the risk tolerance levels to be accommodated in the strategy.

4. It facilitates the alignment of risk mitigation strategies with management priorities.

Options:

A.

1. 2. and 3.

B.

1.2. and 4.

C.

1.3. and 4.

D.

2. 3, and 4.

Question 93

What should the internal audit function promote to most effectively deter fraud?

Options:

A.

Fraud data mining.

B.

Fraud risk assessments.

C.

Whistleblowing mechanisms.

D.

Ethical culture.

Question 94

Which of the following situations is most likely to heighten an internal auditor ' s professional skepticism regarding potential fraud?

Options:

A.

A procurement manager does not have the expected academic credentials for his position.

B.

A salesperson frequently complains about the organization ' s policy on sales commissions.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor has requested advances against her monthly salary on several occasions.

D.

A financial accountant is absent from work frequently due to regular medical procedures.

Question 95

Which of the following practices, applied by the chief audit executive {CAE), most likely indicates an effective continuing professional educational program for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE tasks internal auditors with coordinating assurance activities with other providers across the organization.

B.

The CAE encourages auditors to volunteer to support research work of the local professional institute.

C.

The CAE requires auditors to periodically attest to the profession ' s Code of Ethics.

D.

The CAE reminds auditors to ensure workpapers are completed for audit engagements.

Question 96

Nearing the completion of fieldwork, an internal auditor shared the draft report findings with management prior to the closing meeting. During the closing meeting, management expressed dissatisfaction in that they were not familiar with some of the findings. Management also noted that some aspects of the report seemed confusing. Which of the following competencies appears to have been lacking in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Communication.

B.

Business acumen.

C.

Persuasion.

D.

Critical thinking.

Question 97

A new CEO authorizes a vendor’s access to the organization’s vendor payment and contracting database as part of a review to identify wasteful spending. An employee in the contracting department raised concerns to the internal audit function about potential fraud involving the vendor’s access to the database’s sensitive information, including that of the vendor’s competitors.

Which is a potential fraud risk that requires special consideration during an internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The new CEO hired the vendor to perform work that the internal audit function could have performed.

B.

Vendor employees may not have been properly screened for database security clearance.

C.

The vendor has read-only access to all of the organization’s payments and contracting database.

D.

The vendor uses information from the database to gain information about services provided.

Question 98

A sales manager was recently bypassed for a promotion. He feels entitled to a higher salary and is angry that management does not recognize his contributions. To make up for this perceived injustice, he begins to record false expenses on his travel expense reports. This scenario best illustrates which of the following fraud risk factors?

Options:

A.

Incentive.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Opportunity.

Question 99

Which of the following is the best way for internal auditors to demonstrate their proficiency to effectively carry out their professional responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Volunteer for audit engagements in areas or industries in which the auditor is unfamiliar

B.

Sign an annual attestation indicating that the auditor has all required competencies to perform her job effectively.

C.

Obtain appropriate professional certifications or other designations.

D.

Disclose potential impairments to independence or objectivity prior to performing an audit engagement.

Question 100

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding proficiency?

Options:

A.

The globally accepted Certified Internal Auditor designation is mandatory at chief audit executive levels.

B.

Internal auditors are encouraged to obtain appropriate professional designations.

C.

Specialty designations are required for those who perform specialized audit and consulting work.

D.

Studies for professional designations are the preferred source of continuing professional education

Question 101

Which of the following skills is critical for assessing corporate social responsibility through a self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Assessment skills

B.

Assurance skills

C.

Interviewing skills

D.

Facilitation skills

Question 102

In which of the following situations has the internal auditor violated the IIA ' s Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

An employee confided in an internal auditor and told him about fradulent activities. Although the employee asked for confidentially, the auditor disclosed her identity later during police questioning.

B.

While auditing payroll controls, an auditor was granted temporary access to salary data. The auditor referred to the acquired information while negotiating her work conditions three months later.

C.

Management considers an auditor to be highly competent and asked the audit to participate in an upcoming acquisition project. The auditor declined the request, calming a lack of knowledge.

D.

An internal auditor failed to acquire the continuing education credits needed for the year and requested that. The IIA change his certification status to inactive until the completed the required education activities.

Question 103

A chief audit executive (CAE) has no direct access to the board. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate way for the CAE to react?

Options:

A.

Ensure all subsequent audit reports include a disclaimer as to the lack of access to the board,

B.

Focus on operational audit work and disregard lack of direct access to the members of the board.

C.

Initiate changes to the internal audit charter to report to senior management for the time being,

D.

Engage in written communications with the board and present relevant issues in writing

Question 104

According to HA guidance, which of the following is true regarding independence and objectivity for small internal audit activities?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may consider including a disclaimer on independence in audit reports.

B.

The CAE may consider greater involvement of those with suitable knowledge of audit practice.

C.

Conformance with this Standard is not dependent upon the size of the internal audit activity.

D.

Due to the small size of the internal audit activity, having an external assessment once every seven years is acceptable.

Question 105

A chief audit executive (CAE) recruited a few new internal auditors to reduce the resource gaps identified in this year ' s internal audit plan. One of the new recruits has several years of experience with the organization. Ten months ago. she served as a senior supervisor in the finance department. However, for the past 10 months, she has been helping the organization with implementing a new IT system. What approach should the CAE take for the upcoming financial statement controls audit?

Options:

A.

Assign the new auditor to assist with conducting the fieldwork. but ensure that her work is reviewed by the CAE.

B.

Assign the new auditor to assist with developing the audit program, but ensure that the audit program is executed by other audit staff.

C.

Ensure that the new auditor ' s previous manager, and other close former coworkers, are excused during the audit.

D.

Ensure that the new auditor is responsible only for the supervisory review, but not the execution of the audit field work.

Question 106

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of risk frameworks?

Options:

A.

They are only effective at the strategic level in managing key external and internal risks.

B.

They are jointly managed by the board and senior management to create a consensus for key risks.

C.

They are usually implemented as an automated methodology to identify and manage key risks at the process level.

D.

They are flexible in addressing and linking objectives and related risks across the organization.

Question 107

During his quarterly meeting with the chief audit executive (CAE), it was recommended to an experienced staff internal auditor that he complete a communication and leadership training. The training was also included in the auditor’ yearly professional development plan. The auditor is confused, as he believes he should attend trainings on technical areas rather than spend time on communication and leadership.

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding this scenario is true?

Options:

A.

Professional development includes participating in conferences, seminars, training programs, online courses, webinars, and certifications on technical areas only.

B.

The CAE is solely responsible for ensuring that each auditor is competent to adequately meet job requirements.

C.

The professional development plan may encompass a variety of trainings, including communication and leadership training most suitable for the individual auditor’s professional development.

D.

It is mandatory to complete all trainings as part of the professional development plan.

Question 108

An internal auditor has completed an assurance engagement Which of the following is most likely true regarding the engagement?

Options:

A.

During audit planning, the auditor provided the client with the scope of the engagement for their agreement

B.

The results of the engagement were included in a written report that was issued to the client who requested the engagement

C.

During audit planning, the auditor determined that the engagement scope would include a review of the security and privacy of payroll records

D.

The client requested the review of a new payroll system in order to improve the security of the system

Question 109

An organization allows the same individuals to physical access inventory and purchase new assets when supplies are depleted. Which of the following would best help the organization manage the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Accounting personnel should regularly perform reconciliation between invoices and purchase orders

B.

Accounting personnel should conduct a periodic inventory count and reconcile inventory movements

C.

internal auditors should review Vie frequency and volume of purchased assets to detect trends in the inventory levels

D.

Management should established a policy requiring new inventory asset purchases to be made on serialized order forms with copies retained

Question 110

According to the 11A Code of Ethics, which of the following is required with regard to communicating results?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should present material information to appropriate personnel within the organization without revealing confidential matters that could be detrimental to the organization.

B.

The internal auditor should disclose all material information obtained by the date of the final engagement communication.

C.

The internal auditor should obtain all material information within the established time and budget parameters.

D.

The internal auditor should reveal material facts that could potentially distort the reporting of activities under review.

Question 111

According to The IIA’s Code of Ethics, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

When an internal auditor releases required information to a regulator, resulting in a significant loss through fines and penalties for the organization, he fails to add value.

B.

When an internal auditor limits the scope of the audit engagement after learning that management is hiding relevant information, he demonstrates integrity.

C.

When an internal auditor disagrees with the treatment received by workers in the organization’s foreign subsidiary and alters the audit program to highlight the issue, the fails to demonstrate objectivity.

D.

When an internal auditor continues with an audit engagement, despite the audit client’s claims that the work performed is unnecessary and redundant, he fails to demonstrate competency.

Question 112

Which of the following scenarios is a characterize of an organization with a highly effective ethical culture?

Options:

A.

An organization implements and communicates to staff a formal and comprehensive code of conduct, which is clear and understandable.

B.

An organization waives reference and background checks when hiring for certain sensitive positions in order to not violate potential employees ' rights to privacy.

C.

An organization punishes senior management more harshly for ethics violations than it would for lower-level staff to send a message throughout the organization.

D.

An organization conducts surveys of employees, suppliers, and customers once every five years to determine the slate of the ethical climate in the organization.

Question 113

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the knowledge, skills, and competencies required of internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should possess the oral and written communication skills required to effectively communicate with management of the area under review.

B.

The engagement supervisor is responsible for the audit team’s proficient application of the Global Internal Audit Standards.

C.

Internal auditors who regularly conduct complex financial assurance engagements must also be fully proficient in fraud management.

D.

To meet the standard for proficiency, internal auditors assigned to an engagement must be knowledgeable and understand all issues impacting the engagement.

Question 114

An internal auditor is reviewing the results of an employee survey at a mining company. Which of the following would alert the auditor to a potential ethics issue?

Options:

A.

Women account for 20% of the total number of employees in the company.

B.

Thirty percent of employees feel confident in raising concerns without a fear of retaliation.

C.

Most employees believe that transparent and fair decision-making forms the basis of business ethics.

D.

Employees with longer work experience believe that they deserve more privileges than new hires.

Question 115

Which of the following actions by the chief audit executive (CAE) best describes a potential impairment to the internal audit function’s independence?

Options:

A.

Providing comparative remuneration data to the board during the CAE’s salary negotiations.

B.

Accepting management’s request to reschedule an audit engagement due to key staff absences.

C.

Reducing the scope of several engagements in response to a 15 percent budget cut imposed by senior management.

D.

Deferring consultation engagements to ensure key assurance audits are delivered on time.

Question 116

Which of the following would provide the best support for internal auditors to meet their continuing professional development requirements?

Options:

A.

Access to online internal audit and business skills courses.

B.

Records of self-assessment reports completed by the internal audit staff.

C.

Cosourcing arrangements with external providers on specific engagements.

D.

Performance reviews comparing internal auditors ' achievements against specified goals.

Question 117

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance, risk management, and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits.

B.

More effective interviews.

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools.

D.

Reduced assurance costs.

Question 118

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting investors generally do not rely on CSR information

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary

D.

Typically operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

Question 119

An internal auditor was completely honest with operational management when delivering unfavorable audit results. Which of the following best describes the IIA Code of Ethics principle that the auditor demonstrated?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Objectivity

C.

Competency

D.

Transparency

Question 120

The board scheduled a meeting with the chief audit executive (CAE) to determine why the internal audit function’s training budget is significantly higher compared to other departments within the organization. The CAE is expected to provide evidence to support that the internal audit function conforms with continuing professional development requirements.

Which of the following supporting documents should the CAE provide?

Options:

A.

A documented plan for attending professional conferences.

B.

Workpapers highlighting the work the internal auditor completed during each engagement.

C.

Lists of recommendations with senior management’s agreement.

D.

Project plan worksheets with high-risk areas for future engagements.

Question 121

A newly hired internal auditor is most likely to need further education in the area of business acumen in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

She was transferred from the managerial accounting department of the same organization.

B.

She was recruited from the internal audit activity of another organization that operates in a different industry.

C.

She was offered a permanent position after she had worked with the organization for two years in a temporary auditor-in-training position.

D.

She previously served on the organization ' s external audit team and was recruited to the internal audit activity following the current year ' s financial audit.

Question 122

Which of the following is the best way for an internal auditor to demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Conduct an audit to the same extent that another prudent auditor would under similar circumstances

B.

Seek feedback from the engagement supervisor during the engagement

C.

Execute internal audit work in such a manner as to provide absolute assurance of compliance

D.

Request and receive client feedback surveys during the engagement

Question 123

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates how the chief audit executive may ensure that due professional care is applied?

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures concerning the engagement process

B.

Develop a strategy for recruiting assigning, and training staff

C.

Outsource complex engagements to an external service provider

D.

Base the auditor evaluation process on the number of observations

Question 124

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

Question 125

According to NA guidance, which of the following conditions would enhance the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The organizational culture rewards critical and objective thinking.

B.

The quality of work performed by the internal audit activity is periodically reviewed,

C.

The organization establishes effective governing body oversight,

D.

Audit assignments are rotated among internal audit staff

Question 126

Which of the following should a general internal auditor be able to characterize as an IT-related risk?

Options:

A.

Computer servers are in a room that is accessible to all employees,

B.

An IT architect avoids taking vacations and sharing his workload with coworkers,

C.

Hours billed by IT developers exceed 24 hours daily.

D.

Audit logs are lacking in a system that processes personal data.

Question 127

Which of the following is a true statement regarding controls such as ethical values, tone at the top and operational style?

Options:

A.

Transaction testing, mapping and flowcharting is applicable while testing such controls

B.

Breakdowns in the these types of controls have historically led to fraudulent financial reporting

C.

Such controls can be defined as inherently ob)ective and tangible elements of control

D.

From an audit perspective it is significantly easier to assess ethical values than segregation of duties

Question 128

An internal audit activity is using the auditing-by-element approach to audit the organization ' s controls around corporate social responsibility. Which of the following would be an element for the internal audit activity to consider?

Options:

A.

Working conditions.

B.

Employees ' families.

C.

Marketplace competition.

D.

Shareholders and investors

Question 129

According to IIA guidance, which of the following training methods is considered most effective in assisting new entry-level internal auditors in achieving competence with internal audit practices in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Pursuance of an internal audit certification.

B.

Enrollment in internal audit practice webinars.

C.

Attendance of internal audit workshops.

D.

Involvement in a variety of audit assignments.

Question 130

To comply with the proficiency standard which of the following would the chief audit executive likely consider as the primary hiring criterion when choosing a new internal auditor?

Options:

A.

The length and consistency of the auditor ' s work experience

B.

The auditor ' s demonstrated problem-solving skills

C.

The auditor ' s skills compared to those already possessed by other audit staff

D.

The auditor ' s ability to be self motivated and a good team player

Question 131

The internal audit activity is undergoing a self-assessment as part of its quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following observations must be addressed in order for the internal audit activity to achieve conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter does not identify which audit services are outsourced.

B.

The internal audit charter has not been reviewed by the legal department.

C.

The internal audit charter has not been approved by the board within the past year.

D.

The internal audit charter does not describe the authority of the internal audit activity.

Question 132

Which of the following could increase risks to the organization’s control environment?

Options:

A.

Strong board of directors oversight.

B.

Incentive-based compensation structures.

C.

Lower than average employee turnover.

D.

Implementation of a fraud hotline.

Question 133

Which of the following best describes the risk created when a manager bypasses organizational policies and procedures in order to meet an organization’s objective?

Options:

A.

Accountability/reward risk.

B.

Monitoring failure risk.

C.

Communication failure risk.

D.

Knowledge/skills risk

Question 134

Which principle of the HA Code of Ethics focuses on continuing education and professional development?

Options:

A.

Due professional care

B.

Professionalism

C.

Proficiency

D.

Competency

Question 135

An internal auditor wants to compare her organization’s governance processes to those of a well-known governance model. Which of the following approaches would the auditor take for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis to assess me differences between the approaches

B.

Assess the governance processes using computerized modeling techniques

C.

identify any differences between the processes using a variance analysis

D.

Benchmark the governance processes using a capability maturity modal

Question 136

Which of the following strategies would be the most effective to share an organization ' s risk of losses through foreign currency transactions related to the accounts payable process?

Options:

A.

Using a hedging strategy.

B.

Implementing controls to follow up on deviations.

C.

Purchasing liability insurance.

D.

Purchasing foreign currency reserves.

Question 137

Which of the following actions should the organization ' s governing body perform to provide the most effective governance over the organization ' s culture?

Options:

A.

Coordinate control activities.

B.

Provide direction.

C.

Design key controls.

D.

Deliver assurance.

Question 138

During a complex financial compliance engagement, a senior internal auditor determines that current audit procedures are not sufficient for adequate testing She consults with a colleague and learns that a spreadsheet application contains a helpful tool She proceeds to use the tool to properly complete the evaluation Which of the following best describes the core competency displayed by the senior auditor?

Options:

A.

Business acumen

B.

Persuasion and collaboration

C.

Critical thinking

D.

Communication

Question 139

What must a chief audit executive do if significant changes to regulations may affect the nature of internal audit services?

Options:

A.

Discuss the changes with the external auditors.

B.

Discuss the changes with the CEO, who is responsible for escalating to the board.

C.

Discuss the changes with the board and senior management.

D.

No action is needed because the changes are unlikely to affect the work of internal auditors.

Question 140

In which of the following scenarios is the internal auditor in conformance with The IIA ' s Code of Ethics and the Standards?

Options:

A.

The auditor testifies in front of a jury about an organization ' s fraudulent financial practices after receiving a subpoena

B.

Management has agreed to remedy a significant control deficiency, so the auditor excludes the deficiency from the engagement report

C.

The chief audit executive declines an assurance engagement in IT because the internal audit activity is not proficient in IT

D.

The auditor communicates an audit opinion on fraud risk during an audit engagement’s preliminary fraud risk assessment

Question 141

Which of the following would be an important aspect of an internal auditor ' s role in fraud management?

Options:

A.

Utilizing analytical techniques to actively discover instances of potential fraud

B.

Conducting fraud based audits to ensure that fraud will be detected during engagements

C.

Implementing fraud prevention controls to minimize and mitigate the risk of fraud

D.

Reporting instances of fraud discovered during engagements to regulatory bodies

Question 142

Which of the following specifications in an internal audit charter is the most important factor in the internal audit activity’s independence?

Options:

A.

Description of internal audit activity ' s responsibilities

B.

Definition of internal auditing

C.

Statement of internal audit activity ' s authority

D.

Description of internal audit activity ' s reporting structure

Question 143

Which of the following is an example of risk monitoring to ensure a system is performing as intended?

Options:

A.

Checking the progress of risk treatment plans

B.

Considering the consequence and likelihood of risks

C.

Documenting the risks and their areas of impact

D.

Communicating to management about risks

Question 144

The organization ' s chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an immediate assurance engagement following several product recalls. However, the internal audit staff does not have the required Knowledge and experience to adequately assess all the relevant processes and procedures. According to 11A guidance, which of the following actions should the CAE take under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Use the current available resources to conduct the review and exclude those procedures that can ' t currently be performed.

B.

Implement an accelerated training plan to provide the audit staff with the necessary skills and knowledge to conduct the engagement.

C.

Encourage management to accept the assessed risk until the internal audit activity is able to adequately review the area.

D.

Obtain assistance for the audit team from other internal assurance providers who possess the requisite expertise in the area.

Question 145

Which of the following would best assist the internal audit activity in assessing whether an organization ' s responses to risk are aligned with its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the results of successful testing of controls and monitoring procedures implemented by management

B.

Determining that there are no gaps between the internal auditors ' risk assessment and the risk assessment performed by the organization

C.

Obtaining evidence that employees throughout the organization are aware of the organization s risk appetite

D.

Verifying that previously identified organizational risks were documented in board meeting minutes

Question 146

Whch ol the following would show appropriate disclosure of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) documented in the personal file a critical conflict of interest involving an internal audit on a upcoming contracting engagement.

B.

The CAE discussed with the board an issue regarding the internal activity performing an IT engagement without proper skills and knowledge.

C.

The CAE met with the peer review team to discuss an internal auditor’s failure to meet the annual requirements for continuing professional education.

D.

The CAE revealed to revealed to operational manager that he failed to appropriately consider risks while he was developing the audit plan.

Question 147

How can internal auditors best enhance the credibility and value of their work?

Options:

A.

By prioritizing management’s advisory requests over assurance engagements.

B.

By documenting workpapers after engagements are completed.

C.

By following audit programs from previous assurance engagements.

D.

By providing risk-based advice.

Question 148

Which of the following best describes why a chief audit executive might obtain the services of a fraud specialist to assist in a major fraud investigation?

Options:

A.

Fraud specialists are better at using computer-assisted audit techniques.

B.

Fraud specialists are better equipped to act as an expert witness in court.

C.

Fraud specialists are better able to properly apply due professional care.

D.

Fraud specialists are better at using crime scene investigation techniques.

Question 149

Which of the following corporate social responsibility strategies is associated with responding to outside pressure by assuming additional responsibility?

Options:

A.

Accommodation.

B.

Reaction.

C.

Defense.

D.

Proaction.

Question 150

Which of the following best describes the type of organizational culture known as adaptability culture ' ?

Options:

A.

A results-oriented culture that values competitiveness and personal initiative

B.

A culture that emerges in quick-response and high-risk decision-making environments

C.

A culture that is characterized by low involvement with environmental and health issues

D.

A culture that places high value on participation and meeting the needs of employees.

Question 151

Which of the following statements best describes internal auditors ' role in fraud detection?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors ' roles are similar to those performed by loss prevention managers or fraud investigators.

B.

Internal auditors ' demonstration of adequate professional skepticism during an audit engagement is of paramount importance.

C.

Internal auditors should consider fraud risks in every assignment and demonstrate due care by detecting fraud instances.

D.

Internal auditors should possess a fraud-related body of knowledge, enabling them to carry out preventative and detective measures.

Question 152

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

A description of their job responsibilities,

Options:

A.

A non-disclosure agreement.

B.

An annual declaration of commitment to

C.

The IIA s Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter.

Question 153

Which of the following best describes the internal audit activity’s responsibility within a risk and control framework?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity constitutes the first line of defense in effective risk management.

B.

The internal audit activity provides direction regarding internal controls implementation.

C.

The internal audit activity verifies that management has met its responsibility for implementing effective controls.

D.

The internal audit activity implements the internal control framework and advises management regarding best practices.

Question 154

Which of the following scenarios would most significantly restrict the areas where internal audit could perform assurance services?

Options:

A.

Regulators mandate specific audit engagements to be included in the audit plan.

B.

The internal audit activity reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the CEO and functionally to the audit committee.

D.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

Question 155

Which of the following is a threat to the internal audit function’s organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Unconscious or unintentional cognitive bias in interpreting information during internal audit engagements.

B.

Familiarity arising from a long-term working relationship with an engagement client.

C.

Auditing the implementation of a system after providing advisory services and recommendations for the implementation process.

D.

Restrictions on access to information throughout the organization.

Question 156

An organization’s management has asked the chief audit executive to help the HR team facilitate identifying corrective actions that will address gaps from a lack of succession planning.

Which of the following engagements would be the most appropriate to accomplish the objective?

Options:

A.

Risk and control self-assessment.

B.

Training.

C.

Process-mapping.

D.

Performance audit.

Question 157

When a plant manager from within the organization is hired as a rotational internal auditor within the internal audit activity which area should he most likely be trained for immediately?

Options:

A.

Industry knowledge

B.

Project management

C.

Leadership skills

D.

Risk assessments

Question 158

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a multinational corporation has been assigned to assist management in identifying an internal control framework for the organization. The CAE wants to ensure the framework is comprehensive and will effectively meet the needs of various stakeholders.

Which factor should the CAE primarily consider?

Options:

A.

The organization’s IT infrastructure and its alignment with business objectives.

B.

The CEO’s personal views on risk management.

C.

The organization’s strategic goals and risk appetite.

D.

The size and geographical dispersion of the organization.

Question 159

Which of the following is a control that is used mainly to check the integrity of data entered into a business application, whether the data is entered directly by staff, remotely by a business partner, or through a web-enabled application?

Options:

A.

General IT control.

B.

Processing control.

C.

Input control

D.

Integrity control

Question 160

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities would typically be examined when using the maturity model approach for assessing an organization ' s risk management program?

Options:

A.

Monitor and review

B.

Performance measurement.

C.

Setting the context.

D.

Communication.

Question 161

It is important for the chief audit executive to consider the level of competence of the internal audit staff because their competence influences which of the following?

Options:

A.

The cost-benefit relationship of planned audits.

B.

Proficiency needed to carry out engagements.

C.

Achievement of the objectives of internal control.

D.

Quantity of the audits performed.

Question 162

An employee accepts cash payments from customers and does not record the sale. This is an example of which of the following types of fraud?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation.

B.

Skimming

C.

Corruption.

D.

Lapping.

Question 163

Which of the following is a way to demonstrate an individual internal auditor ' s competency through continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Create different training budgets for each of the internal auditors

B.

Define average training hours per auditor as a team performance measure

C.

Analyze internal audit client survey feedback following audits

D.

Review training records for all internal auditors

Question 164

Which of the following is true regarding internal audit role ' s in The IIA ' s Three Lines Model?

Options:

A.

As internal control is part of risk management, the internal audit role in risk management implies reduced emphasis on internal control.

B.

Internal audit can blur the distinction between the second and the third lines as long as value is added.

C.

Internal audit cannot rely on other assurance providers when opining on the effectiveness of risk management.

D.

Internal audit should be aligned with first- and second-line functions through effective communication, cooperation, and collaboration.

Question 165

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership.

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting.

Question 166

IT management requires all employees in the IT department to attend annual training on the department’s mission values and key performance measures This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge’s kills gap

B.

Monitoring gap

C.

Accountability/reward failure

D.

Communication failure

Question 167

According to The IIA ' s Competency Framework, which competency is considered the mandatory minimum for internal auditors to possess when performing internal audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To recognize red flags that indicate fraud.

B.

To recommend controls to prevent fraud.

C.

To apply forensic auditing techniques to detect fraud.

D.

To evaluate the potential for fraud.

Question 168

Which of the following situations undermines the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity is responsible for the company ' s risk management function and its head manager reports to the chief audit executive

B.

A senior member of the internal audit activity once worked in the corporate finance department

C.

The organization ' s CEO reviews the internal audit activity ' s annual budget per the organization’s policies and procedures

D.

The internal audit activity often uses management ' s risk profile to build its own risk profile for annual planning

Question 169

In an assurance engagement focused on the adequacy of organizationwide risk management practices, which of the following best describes a primary area of interest for the engagement?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of process-level and transaction-level controls.

B.

Conflicts of interest within the organizational structure of the senior management.

C.

The alignment of management decisions with the level of risk the organization is willing to accept.

D.

The actions of upper management in response to the internal audit activity ' s reporting

Question 170

The chief audit executive of an organization assigns audit resources to undertake a consulting engagement requested by senior management the previous year, and a scheduled assurance audit of the procurement process Which of the following appropriately differentiates the two engagements?

Options:

A.

The details of assurance services are expected to be included in the risk-based audit plan; this is not the case for consulting services.

B.

The objectivity of assurance services is impaired when undertaken by internal auditors who have had recent prior responsibility in the area under review; this is not the case for consulting services

C.

The performance of assurance services may be outsourced for competency gaps: this is not the case for consulting services.

D.

The results of assurance services are required to be monitored; this is not the case for consulting services

Question 171

The board has not delegated responsibility for risk oversight and therefore does not receive regular reports on the organization’s most significant risks.

This situation signals that there is a potential problem related to which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization’s governance.

B.

The risk-based audit plan.

C.

The authority of the internal audit function.

D.

The organization’s culture of communication.

Question 172

Which of the following can be used to minimize employees’ resentment of controls?

Options:

A.

Making sure employees are exempt from participating in control creation

B.

Implementing controls without lengthy explanations of their purpose

C.

Developing general constricting controls rather than detailed ones

D.

Not using controls to achieve goals

Question 173

Senior management purchased surveillance cameras and installed them over a door that provides entry to an area where according to a recent internal audit report, hazardous materials exist and there is a high risk of explosion Which type of control was implemented in this situation?

Options:

A.

A corrective control

B.

A detective control

C.

A preventive control

D.

A directive control

Question 174

An internal auditor discovers that a production manager has been understating stock items produced in the factory and concealing it by accounting for it as abnormal waste.

Which of the following types of fraud does this exemplify?

Options:

A.

Skimming.

B.

Assets misappropriation.

C.

Financial statement fraud.

D.

Diversion.

Question 175

Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments must be performed by the chief audit executive.

B.

An internal assessment must be performed at least once every five years.

C.

It Is permissible to share the results of the QAIP with the organization ' s external auditors.

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring must be validated annually by an independent external assessor.

Question 176

To assure that the technical proficiency of internal auditors is appropriate for the audit engagements to be performed, a chief audit executive should:

Options:

A.

Consider the scope of work and level of responsibility when establishing criteria for education and experience in filling internal audit positions.

B.

Ensure that each newly hired auditor is qualified in all of the disciplines needed to accomplish the department’s audit mission.

C.

Oversee a training program that matches the actual training provided with the interests of individual auditors.

D.

Require all of the audit staff to pursue a minimum number of continuing professional education hours each year

Question 177

During an audit of company expenses, the internal auditor performed a test using data analytics and identified a violation of the company ' s expenses policy. The auditor who discovered the issue considered it a potential fraudulent transaction and informed the chief financial officer (CFO). The CFO dismissed the concern because he did not understand the data analytics test that was performed and the transaction was of a low value. Given this situation, which skills or competencies should this internal auditor seek to improve?

Options:

A.

Skills in evaluating the risk of fraud.

B.

Knowledge of key IT risks and controls

C.

Soft skills such as communication and negotiation.

D.

Knowledge and understanding of the company ' s expenses policy

Question 178

Which of the following functions does an internal audit charter serve?

Options:

A.

It provides a formal, written agreement with management and the board regarding the organization’s internal audit function.

B.

It provides all internal auditors with unlimited access to records, personnel, and physical property.

C.

It provides senior management with formal criteria for periodic assessments of the adequacy of the internal audit function’s purpose, authority, and responsibility.

D.

It provides the internal audit function with the authority to perform any fraud investigation engagement that can enhance or protect the value of the organization.

Question 179

What should be the first step for a newly hired chief audit executive to build and maintain the proficiency of the internal audit activity ' ?

Options:

A.

Incorporate the basic criteria of internal audit competency into job descriptions

B.

Complete a periodic skills assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

Develop a competency or skill assessment tool.

D.

Perform benchmarking with competitors to learn what other firms are doing related to this topic

Question 180

An internal auditor is preparing for an overseas engagement. As part of the engagement, the auditor will conduct interviews with managers from various regional offices around the world.

Which of the following is the most important for the auditor to consider in establishing good relationships with regional managers?

Options:

A.

That cultural norms at the corporate headquarters may apply to most of the regional offices.

B.

That business relationships at the corporate headquarters match those at each of the regional offices.

C.

That viewpoints expressed from the corporate headquarters are consistent among the regional offices.

D.

That communication skills used at the corporate headquarters should be adapted for each of the regional offices.

Question 181

With regard to IT governance, which of the following is the most effective and appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluate the skills and experience of potential chief information officer candidates to assess the best fit based on the organization ' s risk appetite.

B.

Evaluate the organization’s governance standards and assess IT-related activities to identify gaps and develop policies, ensuring alignment with the organization’s risk appetite.

C.

Assist management in interpreting complex IT-related privacy and security risk exposures and evaluating potential mitigation strategies.

D.

Assess whether governance activities are aligned with the organization ' s risk appetite and take into consideration emerging risks

Question 182

The board of a newly established organization was discussing the contents of the draft internal audit charter One board member suggested adding to the charter an obligation for the internal audit activity to develop controls in business procedures. The board member explained that the new organization needs professional-level developers, internal auditors have the necessary skills and competencies, and the internal audit activity is well positioned to assume this responsibility. Which of the following would be a potential concern if the board member’s suggestion is adopted?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Internal audit objectivity.

C.

Risk management assurance.

D.

Professional development.

Question 183

Which of the following statements is true regarding control activities ' ?

Options:

A.

Control activities are defined by management through risk mitigation strategies

B.

Control activities should be defined for all business processes

C.

If two organizations have identical objectives and structures their control activities would be the same

D.

Organizations that are less regulated generally have more complex control activities than highly regulated organizations

Question 184

Once an organization ' s risks are identified, what would be the next step to ensure resources are properly allocated to manage those risks?

Options:

A.

Risk responses must be selected.

B.

Risks must be assessed.

C.

The risk universe must be established.

D.

Risk responses must be aligned.

Question 185

Operational management in the IT department has developed key performance indicator reports, which are reviewed in detail during monthly staff meetings. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap,

B.

Monitoring gap.

C.

Accountability/reward failure,

D.

Communication failure.

Question 186

Senior management relies on the professional judgment of an internal auditor and uses outcomes of her audit work to make business decisions Which of the following personal qualities displayed by the internal auditor is most likely the foundation for this relationship?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Negotiation skills.

C.

Business acumen

D.

Flexibility

Question 187

According to NA guidance which of the following should be documented in the internal audit chatter?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment process applied by the internal audit activity

B.

The organization ' s internal control framework used by the internal audit activity

C.

The nature of consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

D.

The performance evaluation process used by the internal audit activity

Question 188

Management assessed the organization’s risk of expanding operations into a new, but volatile, region and began looking for a compatible local partner to manage sales and distribution. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Acceptance.

C.

Reduction.

D.

Sharing

Question 189

The internal audit activity conducted an organization wide risk assessment. One of the most significant risks identified is associated with the oil price market. The chief audit executive (CAE) is considering including in the annual audit plan an assessment of the effectiveness of oil price risk management. The manager responsible commented that the assessment was not needed, as market risks were regularly addressed by the financial risk committee. If the CAE decides to include this activity in the annual audit plan anyway, how should it be recorded?

Options:

A.

A consulting engagement independent of the financial risk committee ' s review.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

An assurance engagement.

D.

A joint consulting engagement with input from the financial risk committee.

Question 190

Management has implemented a segregation-of-duties policy for handling inventory. Which of the following fraud risks would be more concerning to an internal auditor following the implementation of this new policy?

Options:

A.

The risk of collusion between parties.

B.

The risk of falsified reconciliations.

C.

The risk of low-liquidity inventory.

D.

The risk of damages to the inventory.

Question 191

Which of the following best illustrates the application of due professional care during an audit of the procurement department?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor began checking purchase requisitions for proper authorizations. He stopped when he discovered an instance of noncompliance. and he concluded the controls were ineffective.

B.

The internal auditor discovered an instance where management did not follow the standard bidding processes. The auditor assessed the validity of management’sreasons for deviating from standard practice and the supporting documentation, and determined that the deviation was acceptable.

C.

The internal auditor selected a sample of purchase orders with amounts greater than S5.000, the threshold at which the organization requires a bidding process. The auditor obtained documentation of the bidding process for each purchase order in the sample.

D.

The internal auditor analyzed bidding documents provided by management. Management indicated that the documents were purchase orders issued to a sole-source vendor Based on the analysis and management ' s declaration, the internal auditor determined that the procurement process was effective.

Question 192

Which of the following is included in the risk identification process?

Options:

A.

Screening for the impact and likelihood or whether the risk is controllable.

B.

Weighing the likelihood that an event or condition will happen.

C.

Disclosing all plausible events or conditions that could occur.

D.

Determining controllability of an event or condition.

Question 193

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with IIA standards related to continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Retaining evidence of training in the form of continuing education credits

B.

Seeking guidance regarding internal audit best practices from The IIA

C.

Retaining supervisory reviews conducted on the basis of the development plan

D.

Giving consideration to certain areas of specialization as part of development planning

Question 194

The largest risks facing an organization should be mitigated by which type of controls?

Options:

A.

Entity-level

B.

Activity-level

C.

Transaction-level

D.

Process-level

Question 195

An internal auditor is updating the risk register for risks identified during a recent organizational risk assessment. According to the Standards, which of the following would the auditor include in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Management’s acceptance of inadequate controls for cybersecurity risk.

B.

Discussions with senior management relating to a new revenue stream.

C.

Mitigating controls implemented by the engagement supervisor

D.

Project manager planned hours versus time spent for all prior year projects

Question 196

Which of the following is an indicator that the internal audit activity does not fully conform with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The quality assurance and improvement program identified several opportunities for the internal audit activity to make improvements.

B.

In lieu of an external assessment, the internal audit activity performed a self-assessment with independent external validation.

C.

During an internal quality assessment, it was identified that rotational auditors often perform consulting engagements for areas of the organization where they had previous responsibilities.

D.

External assessments are performed every five years by a competent internal audit team from the organization ' s parent company.

Question 197

What controls could be implemented as a preventive measure against malicious insider threats, such as an unauthorized employee obtaining electronic customer sales information and later selling them to a competitor?

Options:

A.

Role-based access controls.

B.

Visitor management system controls.

C.

Network firewall prevention controls.

D.

Information classification controls.

Question 198

Which of the following indicates an appropriate disclosure of a potential nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

An external assessment of the internal audit activity was last performed six years ago.

B.

The internal audit activity has been in existence for four years but has not performed an external assessment.

C.

An internal assessment is not performed every year.

D.

The internal audit activity has been in existence for two years and has documented only an internal assessment.

Question 199

Which of the following statements is true regarding assurance and advisory services provided by an internal audit function?

Options:

A.

When internal auditors are performing an advisory engagement, they always focus on the organization as a whole.

B.

When internal auditors are performing advisory engagements, they focus only on areas not covered by assurance engagements.

C.

Advisory services are mainly applicable during the planning stages of projects to assess relevant risks.

D.

The type of information required depends on whether the engagement is assurance or advisory.

Question 200

For a high-risk observation, which is the best approach to follow when management takes an aggressive, uncompromising position in opposition to the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The parties should work together to develop a mutually beneficial solution.

B.

The internal audit activity should share the observation with other business units to get their opinions.

C.

The internal audit activity should discuss with senior management, and if still not resolved, discuss with the board.

D.

The internal audit activity should accommodate management ' s position, since the relationship is more important than the fight.

Question 201

Which of the following should be implemented to promote independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors do not review an area where they previously worked

B.

The internal audit charter is reviewed and updated annually

C.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board

D.

Management does not influence the consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

Question 202

Which of the following best describes a consulting engagement rather an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Bank internal auditors review an activity checklist to determine that the loan officer followed proper procedures.

B.

The chief financial officer asks for the internal auditor ' s opinion regarding whether the new accounting pronouncements were properly and comprehensively adopted

C.

An internal auditor is assigned to assess whether a proposed new initiative to convert a customer service system would be cost effective.

D.

Senior management asks the internal audit activity to review compliance with customer data security regulations

Question 203

Which step should an internal auditor complete during fieldwork to detect fraudulent activities during an audit?

Options:

A.

Check outlier cash payments for inconsistencies and discrepancies.

B.

Brainstorm possible cash payment schemes.

C.

Develop procedures to identify the employee who processed the fraudulent cash payment.

D.

Recommend procedures to segregate cash receipt and disbursement duties.

Question 204

With regard to organizational governance assurance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity ' ?

Options:

A.

Assess compliance with the organization ' s code of conduct

B.

Oversee the governance and risk management processes

C.

Initiate new organizational control processes

D.

Provide advice on organizational governance activities

Question 205

Which of the following should be part of the internal audit activity ' s duties?

Options:

A.

Actively reporting to the governing body.

B.

Providing risk management frameworks.

C.

Assisting management in developing processes and controls to manage risks and issues.

D.

Identifying and mitigating significant risks to the organization.

Question 206

Which of the following needs to be established prior to undertaking an assessment of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Department performance standards.

B.

Remediation timeframes.

C.

Nonconformance disclosures.

D.

External assessment resources

Question 207

After an engagement was completed and the final communication was issued, it came to the attention of the engagement supervisor that additional work was required to review some significant risks in the processes of the area under review.

How should the engagement supervisor proceed after completing the additional work?

Options:

A.

Update the final communications only if there are adverse findings stemming from the review.

B.

Update the report regardless of the additional findings to ensure senior management and risk owners are notified.

C.

Notify the chief audit executive of the findings, and allow her to determine whether communications are to be updated.

D.

Notify all parties of the errors and omissions from the original communications.

Question 208

An organization has discovered that an excessive number of labor hours has been entered into a costing system.

Which of the following controls should the organization implement to prevent this issue from reoccurring?

Options:

A.

Program input fields with maximum attributes.

B.

Perform recalculation tests during processing.

C.

Reconcile input control totals.

D.

Check data in input fields for consistency.

Question 209

An internal auditor assessed the controls within his organization ' s payroll process and suspects that erroneous payments may have been made to a fraudulent bank account. What is the best course of action for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Speak to the payroll manager so he may investigate the auditor ' s observations.

B.

Continue to investigate the payments to confirm the accuracy of the observations, and determine whether further fraudulent payments have been made.

C.

Stop the audit and report the findings to senior management immediately.

D.

Escalate the concern to the engagement supervisor.

Question 210

In which of the following ways could stakeholders be engaged in corporate social responsibility efforts?

Options:

A.

Investigation of health and safety incidents.

B.

Auditing of controls and management systems.

C.

Communication of disclosures and external reporting,

D.

Involvement in focus groups and complaint management

Question 211

Which of the following best describes organizational governance processes?

Options:

A.

Processes employed by internal and external assurance providers to authorize, direct, and provide oversight to management to better enable the meeting of organizational objectives

B.

Processes employed by the board of directors to authorize and provide guidance and oversight to management to promote the achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Processes employed by the board of directors and senior management to mitigate risks to acceptable levels.

D.

Processes employed by risk owners to mitigate risks to acceptable levels within the organization ' s risk appetite

Question 212

The results of an assessment of the adequacy of controls would be considered incomplete or misleading unless the internal auditor considers which of the following?

Options:

A.

Number of mitigating controls.

B.

Effectiveness of the control environment

C.

Use of computer-assisted auditing techniques.

D.

IT security controls

Question 213

An organization is testing a new IT system for digital data storage and security. The internal audit activity has been asked to evaluate the system in a consulting engagement. Although several internal auditors on staff are qualified to perform basic assessments of IT systems, none are familiar with the new system. Which of the following is a legitimate response to the prospective client?

1. Decline the engagement.

2. Proceed with the engagement, performing only those parts of the engagement that the internal auditors are qualified to perform.

3. Accept the engagement and develop the additional competencies in-house prior to the engagement ' s starting date.

4. Make arrangements to obtain assistance from a competent IT auditing expert.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1. 2, and 3 only.

D.

1, 3, and 4 only.

Question 214

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by a new chief audit executive would be most appropriate to gain an understanding of the current level of knowledge, skills, and competencies required by an internal audit activity to fulfill its responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Identify gaps in the activity’s proficiency, based on criteria defined by a widely accepted competency framework.

B.

Have a quality assessment review performed by an expert external entity.

C.

Identify a mature internal audit activity to serve as a benchmark for measuring the internal audit activity’s competence.

D.

Assess whether members of the internal audit activity understand and apply the 11As mandatory guidance.

Question 215

Which of the following would best preserve the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter is approved by the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

C.

The CAE ' s internal audit plan is endorsed by the board.

D.

The chief financial officer determines the appointment of the CAE.

Question 216

An organization is implementing a new cybersecurity policy and has established a committee to ensure stakeholder alignment across the organization ' s infrastructure, network, and security teams. The head of the committee has asked the chief audit executive if the internal audit activity could play a role in these efforts. According to HA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response?

Options:

A.

It is not appropriate for the internal audit activity to play a role because its independence must be protected.

B.

The internal audit activity should not participate because there are no IT auditors on staff.

C.

The internal audit activity is knowledgeable about risk and therefore should prioritize the organization ' s responses and control activities for the committee.

D.

The internal audit activity may assist the committee and consult with management on the organization ' s responses and control activities.

Question 217

The collaborating style for conflict resolution, where the parties promote assertiveness and work together to develop a mutually beneficial solution, is best used in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Parties are confident of the solution and are ready to defend it.

B.

There is a high level of trust among the parties.

C.

Resolution is time sensitive and a quick decision is necessary.

D.

The issue is more important to one patty than the others.

Question 218

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive (CAE) best demonstrates the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE seeks senior management approval of the internal audit charter

B.

The CAE obtains senior management ' s approval to hire staff

C.

The CAE reports significant issues to the organization ' s CEO

D.

The CAE provides the board with an annual budget for approval

Question 219

According to IIA guidance which of the following correctly describes the standard risk treatments outlined in the process element approach of the framework for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance risk sharing application of controls, risk application.

B.

Risk avoidance risk identification application of controls risk acceptance.

C.

Risk identification risk assessment risk avoidance risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification risk assessment application of controls risk acceptance

Question 220

An internal auditor notes that inventory counts are conducted on Mondays only and that all documentation is on paper as there are no computers in the underground warehouses. Also she notices that the person responsible for receiving the goods is the same one who distributes materials and spare parts Finally, she sees that spare parts are written off and taken by the heads of mining units to different underground locations to wait for their turn to be installed. Which of the described findings requires more consideration from a fraud risk perspective?

Options:

A.

The job responsibilities of the warehouse employee compromise segregation of duties

B.

Spare parts are written off before their actual usage and installation

C.

Warehouse management is conducted on paper and requires further investigation

D.

The inventory counts take place on specific days of the week for no apparent reason

Question 221

Which of the following is true about a system of internal control?

Options:

A.

Internal control should be updated at least annually.

B.

Technology does not change the internal control landscape.

C.

Strategy should fit the system of internal control.

D.

Articulating measurable objectives is part of internal control.

Question 222

In which of the following scenarios would it be appropriate for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards?

Options:

A.

It A new internal audit activity was formed four years ago. An external assessment was never performed, but successive internal assessments were performed and support the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards

B.

An internal self-assessment completed yesterday found that the internal audit activity did not conform with the Standards when carrying out its work. However, the preceding independent external assessment supports the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

C.

To reduce costs, the CAE excluded the use of external assessors from the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program for the past seven years.However, the CAE concluded that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards because all internal assessments over the period have supported this conclusion.

D.

The results of the last external assessment of the internal audit activity, performed a little over five years ago, indicated that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards. The most recent internal assessment performed within the past year also indicates conformance.

Question 223

Which of the following is a detective control?

Options:

A.

An organization requires certain employees who occupy sensitive positions to sign attestation to the code of conduct on an annual basis.

B.

A compliance specialist carries out quarterly reviews of an organization ' s compliance with regulatory requirements.

C.

A front desk officer in an organization requires that visitors are identified by the host before access is granted.

D.

An internal audit activity deploys audit management policies and procedures for team members.

Question 224

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding ethics is true?

Options:

A.

Business ethics may vary within an organization with both domestic and foreign operations.

B.

Business ethics are universal in nature and organizations across the world are expected to comply with similar standards.

C.

A business ethics policy for an organization is established solely to direct the behavior and expectations of employees.

D.

Business ethics of an organization must remain independent from those of suppliers, customers, and business partners.

Question 225

A significant number of employees expressed concerns of a hostile work environment within a large manufacturing plant, which is in contrast to the organization ' s stated culture of tolerance and open communication. Which of the following approaches would be most effective for an internal auditor to assess whether the organization supports a culture of tolerance and open communication?

Options:

A.

Assess plant employees ' social media activity for specific messages related to tolerance and open communication

B.

Compare plant employees’ compensation and benefits with those at similar sized organizations that have a stated culture of tolerance and open communication.

C.

Evaluate organization policies and procedures for references related to encouraging tolerance and open communication.

D.

Conduct a meeting with all plant employees and management to discuss tolerance and open communication

Question 226

The internal audit activity completed its analysis of sample transactions to determine occurrences of double billings According to If A guidance, which of the following best demonstrates that internal auditors exercised due professional care during the review?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors found no instances of double billing and concluded there were no significant risks in this area.

B.

Internal auditors documented the scope and methodology of the data testing.

C.

Internal auditors discussed with management how data is safeguarded.

D.

Internal auditors received formal performance feedback from the engagement supervisor.

Question 227

Which of the following accurately describes the concept of inherent risk?

Options:

A.

Risk factors that exist when controls are in place and operating effectively

B.

Internal risk factors assuming no controls are in place

C.

Risk factors that cannot be mitigated because they are innate to a process

D.

Combination of internal and external risk factors in their pure state assuming no controls are in place

Question 228

An internal auditor in a busy internal audit activity reviews her continuing professional development records toward the end of the year and is concerned to find she has undertaken limited training and formal professional development. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for her to take?

Options:

A.

Remind the chief audit executive (CAE) that he is responsible for her continuing professional development and needs to address the issue

B.

Contact her professional organization and explain that she does not need formal professional development, as she is being developed sufficiently through undertaking audit engagements.

C.

Accept that she is unlikely to meet continuing professional development requirements but look to attend training courses at the next available time.

D.

Accept that she is responsible for her own continuing professional development, develop a professional plan, and discuss it with the CAE.

Question 229

Prior to commencing a financial compliance engagement, the engagement supervisor reads the business plan for the finance department and meets informally with the director to learn more about any key issues. Which of the following competencies is the engagement supervisor demonstrating?

Options:

A.

The ability to inspire trust

B.

The ability to communicate effectively

C.

The ability to display courage

D.

The ability to understand the needs of stakeholders

Question 230

Which of the following would be considered a monitoring activity in organization wide risk management?

Options:

A.

Validate the results of management ' s self-assessment.

B.

Perform reviews of personnel.

C.

Maintain rigorous and comprehensive documentation.

D.

Obtain authorizations and signatures.

Question 231

An internal auditor assessed that the risk of steel theft at a plant is high. In response, the plant ' s management introduced a number of controls, including fences around the facility, a metal detector at the entrance, and monthly steel inventory counts. If the controls operate as intended, which of the following outcomes would the internal auditor hope to see?

Options:

A.

The inherent risk will be mitigated to a level lower than the residual risk.

B.

The inherent risk will be reduced to an acceptable level.

C.

The residual risk will be reduced to an acceptable level.

D.

The residual risk will be eliminated

Question 232

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan,

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting, investors generally do not rely on CSR information.

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary.

D.

Typically, operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

Question 233

An internal audit activity is taking steps to promote professional development among the staff, and is in the process of implementing a mentorship program. According to HA guidance, which of the following is important for a successful mentorship program?

Options:

A.

It is best if the mentor is the chief audit executive.

B.

Mentor meeting documentation should be retained in personnel files.

C.

It should target both new hires and highly experienced staff.

D.

Meetings with mentors should be formal and scheduled.

Question 234

An auditor for a large wholesaler is evaluating the controls over the approval and oversight of credit sales. Which of the following procedures would be a control weakness?

Options:

A.

The credit department is responsible for approving shipments to all customers

B.

The finance committee of the board of directors periodically reviews credit standards

C.

Customers who fail to meet credit requirements must pay cash for shipments upon delivery

D.

The sales department is responsible for determining the credit ratings of customers

Question 235

Which of the following is most accurate concerning corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

A moral agent in an organization makes decisions that are based on the rules and regulations of the organization as they apply to human resources decisions

B.

The utilitarian approaching deciding on ethical dilemmas is concerned with choosing the simplest solution that will apply to the most people

C.

Ethics are not defined by laws but they are not a matter of free choice ethics are based on standards of conduct derived from shared principles and values

D.

The individualism approach to ethical decision making is focused on implementing a customized long-term outcome that is most beneficial for the entire organization

Question 236

A medical clinic has developed a policy that prohibits its doctors from performing certain high-risk optional medical procedures.

Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Reduction.

B.

Mitigation.

C.

Transfer.

D.

Avoidance.

Question 237

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates that the chief audit executive is properly reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

Providing a written conformance statement to both senior management and the board.

B.

Giving copies of both external and internal assessments to the board.

C.

Keeping files of reports of ongoing external assessment monitoring.

D.

Retaining copies of board meeting minutes showing that discussions of assessments took place.

Question 238

An internal auditor has documented several instances in which management asked employees to ad against the policies and procedures. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Report the non-compliance cases to the board of directors.

B.

Recommend that management update its policies and procedures based on the circumstances.

C.

Investigate the rationale for management ' s actions.

D.

Recommend those employees to report the cases through the designed whistleblowing channel for the appropriate treatment.

Question 239

Which of the following internal control attributes would an internal auditor test to understand whether organizational structure supports effective internal control?

Options:

A.

Incentives and compensation practices.

B.

Tone at the top.

C.

Risk management oversight.

D.

Internal reporting responsibilities.

Question 240

According to MA guidance, which of the following is true with regard to the internal audit charter?

1. It specifies the minimum resources needed for assurance engagements.

2. It requires final approval from senior management.

3. It defines the internal audit activity ' s authority and responsibilities.

4. It describes the expectations for communicating the results of a quality assurance and Improvement program.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

3 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 4.

D.

2. 3. and 4.

Question 241

Which of the following preventative controls would be most effective for organizations facing business disruptions and respective financial losses?

Options:

A.

Develop a business continuity plan for contingent situations,

B.

Insure the organization against financial losses.

C.

Rely on third-party cloud solution providers for the organization ' s systems.

D.

Hedge company assets via purchasing derivatives.

Question 242

A financial services organization ' s board is assessing increased regulations and its effect on current industry lending practices. Which of the following committees would help the board identify and assess the effects of the increased regulations?

Options:

A.

Quality committee.

B.

Audit committee.

C.

Risk committee.

D.

Governance committee.

Question 243

Which of the following is an example of the chief audit executive (CAE) demonstrating due professional care?

Options:

A.

The CAE relies on CAEs in other organizations to understand how due professional care should be executed in her internal audit activity

B.

The CAE meets with the board of directors on a quarterly basis to provide a status update.

C.

The CAE assesses the audit staff ' s knowledge and skills annually to determine whether additional resources are needed to fulfill the internal audit plan.

D.

The CAE provides absolute assurance to line management during each eternal audit engagement

Question 244

An internal auditor identified an inefficiency in a control and made recommendations to strengthen the control environment, but senior management was reluctant to adopt the recommendations because there were concerns regarding staff acceptance of the change of processes. Consequently, the auditor agreed to remove the observation from the audit report.

Which of the following competencies does the auditor lack?

Options:

A.

Connectivity.

B.

Strategic thinking.

C.

Influence.

D.

Collaboration.

Question 245

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the chief audit executive s responsibility for confirming to the board the organizational independence of the internal audit activity ' ?

Options:

A.

The CAE must do this at least annually

B.

The CAE must do this at least once every five years

C.

The CAE must do this upon completion of each external quality assessment

D.

The CAE should do this periodically in conjunction with a review of the internal audit charter

Question 246

Which of the following is an indicator that an organization ' s risk management processes are effective?

Options:

A.

Departmental objectives are managed by department heads and are independent of the organization ' s mission.

B.

Organization wide mechanisms exist to enable the identification and assessment of all significant risks.

C.

Department heads have the autonomy to determine risk responses that fall outside of the organizations risk appetite

D.

Relevant risk information is captured and communicated primarily between management and the board

Question 247

An internal auditor performed a consulting engagement last year which included assisting with management ' s design of controls over the procurement function. How should the chief audit executive plan an assurance engagement on the adequacy of the internal control system in the procurement function in the current year?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to another internal auditor on staff

B.

Outsource the engagement to ensure independence

C.

Harness the auditor ' s knowledge of the procurement function by assigning the engagement to the same internal auditor

D.

Postpone the engagement to the following year to ensure enough time has passed since the controls were designed

Question 248

Which of the following best demonstrates the board of directors ' governance over internal control?

Options:

A.

The board bears direct responsibility for developing and implementing the internal control system.

B.

The majority of board members are experienced and qualified members of the organization ' s executive management team.

C.

The board may be assisted by an audit committee, chaired by the chief audit executive.

D.

The board is responsible for succession planning for the CEO and other key members of the executive management team.

Question 249

Which of the following is true about corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Social and environmental considerations are required parts of an organization ' s decision making

B.

The Global Reporting Initiative provides standards on required disclosures of CSR.

C.

CSR activities are overseen and managed by operational management.

D.

Internal auditors can provide assurance on reported sustainability results.

Question 250

A senior executive at a government-owned organization received an invitation to attend a public exhibition where he can learn about new trucks relevant to the organization ' s business. As a special perk, the executive is offered an opportunity to drive a luxury vehicle manufactured by one of the exhibiting companies. Prior to the event, the executive asked for the chief audit executive s (CAE’s) advice. What should the CAE recommend as the most appropriate course of action for the executive?

Options:

A.

Attend the event, but decline the offer to use the luxury vehicle

B.

Decline the invitation to the exhibition.

C.

Ask the board to decide on the issue.

D.

Select a lower-level employee to enjoy the luxury vehicle instead

Question 251

The chief audit executive of a large national retailer is reviewing the purpose and objectives of the organization ' s internal audit activity

Which of the following objectives is best aligned with The IIA ' s Mission of Internal Audit?

Options:

A.

To implement a quality assurance and improvement program

B.

To assess the effectiveness of internal controls over organizational assets

C.

To ensure internal auditors possess the competencies needed to perform their responsibilities

D.

To operate within the budget established by the board of directors

Question 252

An internal auditor assigned to a supplier management process engagement reviews the risk assessment with the process owner The auditor inquires about the risk response for potentially engaging unqualified third-party service providers The process owner responds that due diligence checks are undertaken to make sure that third parties possess requisite competencies before they are engaged Which of the following risk management techniques is the process owner using?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance

B.

Risk reduction

C.

Risk sharing

D.

Risk acceptance

Question 253

With regard to governance, which of the following is a board-level responsibility rather than a management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Obtaining assurance on external financial, regulatory, and internal audits.

B.

Complying with laws, regulations, and codes.

C.

Assigning authority and responsibilities organization wide.

D.

Monitoring and measuring performance.

Question 254

An organization sells products through distributors. The organization ' s chief audit executive insists that the organization ' s code of conduct be applicable to their distributors as well. Which of the following risks would this mitigate?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Market manipulation

C.

intellectual property leakage

D.

Reputational damage

Question 255

An internal auditor is reviewing the organization’s procurement processes. The procurement manager states that suppliers’ bank details are verified by phone call directly with the supplier before being updated in the procurement system. The organization has around 3,000 suppliers. The auditor is skeptical that a phone call is made for each supplier when bank details are changed.

The auditor decides to verify the manager’s statement by analyzing the change to one supplier’s bank details.

Which piece of evidence would convince the auditor that the control described by the procurement manager is effective?

Options:

A.

A commercial registration document of the supplier to verify its existence.

B.

Details of the last bank payment made to the selected supplier and verification against the bank account invoice.

C.

An annual confirmation email from each member of the procurement team to the procurement manager stating that bank details were confirmed.

D.

Documentation of the call made with the supplier that includes the details of both parties and the information to be verified.

Question 256

Which of the following statements best describes a functional difference between external auditors and internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors evaluate past achievements to understand whether controls are operating effectively, and external auditors focus on the accuracy of financial reporting.

B.

Internal auditors provide assurance about the sufficiency of controls to manage risks. Including risks of failure to achieve future goals, and external auditors evaluate the accuracy and understandability of financial reporting.

C.

internal auditors are always employed by the organization, rather than outsourced, and external auditors are never employed by the organization but contracted independently.

D.

Internal auditors are most directly concerned with the detection of fraud, while external auditors are most directly concerned with the prevention of fraud.

Question 257

Which of the following actions does a competency assessment tool help the chief audit executive perform?

Options:

A.

Record that the internal audit activity’s completion of audit assignments has been met.

B.

Hire qualified and skilled internal auditors for the organization ' s internal audit activity.

C.

Postpone audits where the internal team does not have the necessary skills or knowledge.

D.

Assess the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity to identify any gaps.

Demo: 257 questions
Total 858 questions