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IIA IIA-CIA-Part1 Internal Audit Fundamentals Exam Practice Test

Demo: 220 questions
Total 735 questions

Internal Audit Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following should be considered in developing a risk and control model for use in an engagement?

Options:

A.

The risk and control model should be globally accepted by the profession.

B.

The risk and control model should be strictly adhered to in performing the engagement.

C.

The risk and control model should be tailored to the organization that will be the subject of the engagement.

D.

The risk and control model should be developed individually by the auditor for use on individual audit projects within the planned engagement.

Question 2

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care to Insure that all significant risks will be identified,

B.

Internal auditors must apply the care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor

C.

Due professional care requires the internal auditor to conduct extensive examinations and verifications to ensure fraud does not exist,

D.

Due professional care is displayed during a consulting engagement when the internal auditor focuses on potential benefits of the engagement rather than the cost.

Question 3

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions is a chief audit executive required to take with regard to reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Report external assessments upon completion of such assessments

B.

Report external assessments at least annually

C.

Report ongoing monitoring quarterly

D.

Report post-engagement reviews at least once every five years

Question 4

Which of the following represents a deficiency in the control environment?

Options:

A.

The sales department has failed to achieve targets for the last nine months.

B.

Employees report suspicious activity by calling the organization ' s ethics hotline.

C.

Hiring procedures do not include background checks for prospective job candidates.

D.

Management reports three potential ethics issues to the board of directors.

Question 5

Which of the following is a control that is used mainly to check the integrity of data entered into a business application, whether the data is entered directly by staff, remotely by a business partner, or through a web-enabled application?

Options:

A.

General IT control.

B.

Processing control.

C.

Input control

D.

Integrity control

Question 6

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is appropriate for an internal auditor to perform with regard to the organization ' s corporate social responsibility (CSR) program?

1. Determine whether the organization has adequate controls to achieve its CSR objectives.

2. Facilitate a management self-assessment of CSR controls and results.

3. Consult on the project design and implementation for the CSR program.

4. Exclude CSR-related external risks that are beyond the control of the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1, 2 and 3 only.

C.

2, 3, and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only.

Question 7

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a large organization has been asked by the board to assume responsibility for risk management and compliance operations, both of which are distinct departments within the organization and are subject to periodic audits by the internal audit activity In regards to future audits of these functions which of the following approaches would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be overseen by a competent external assurance provider

B.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be overseen by a senior audit manager within the internal audit activity other than the CAE

C.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be conducted by internal auditors under the supervision of management from both functions

D.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be earned out by a team of the most experienced auditors overseen by the CAE

Question 8

The manager of the payroll department requested a review of the payroll process, but only wants the engagement to include processes related to approval of time worked. What type of activity is this?

Options:

A.

Financial assurance engagement.

B.

Operational consulting engagement.

C.

Compliance assurance engagement.

D.

Risk management consulting engagement.

Question 9

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would the internal audit activity examine in order to evaluate the organization ' s governance process for strategic and operational decisions ' ?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment process including interviews with senior management.

B.

The organization’s mission and value statements, code of conduct, and whistleblowing policy

C.

Board meeting minutes the board policy manual, and past audit reports

D.

Staff compensation objective setting and the performance evaluation policy and process

Question 10

Which of the following is a way to demonstrate an individual internal auditor ' s competency through continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Create different training budgets for each of the internal auditors

B.

Define average training hours per auditor as a team performance measure

C.

Analyze internal audit client survey feedback following audits

D.

Review training records for all internal auditors

Question 11

Once an organization ' s risks are identified, what would be the next step to ensure resources are properly allocated to manage those risks?

Options:

A.

Risk responses must be selected.

B.

Risks must be assessed.

C.

The risk universe must be established.

D.

Risk responses must be aligned.

Question 12

Which of the following statements is true regarding the independent peer review process undertaken to fulfill the requirement for an external quality assessment?

Options:

A.

Two individuals in the same internal audit activity may perform an independent peer review as long as they do not report to the same audit manager

B.

Individuals from a separate but related organization such as an affiliate may perform peer reviews

C.

Individuals working in separate internal audit activities may be considered independent as long as do not report to the same chief audit executive

D.

Peer reviews are generally less cost-effective than hiring an external quality assessor

Question 13

Regarding the chief audit executive (CAE). which ot the following is considered an impairment to the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE is asked to submit the liquidation of her travel allowances to human resources for approval.

C.

The CAE ' s supervisor is responsible for the risk management function.

D.

The CAE is asked to review new procedures before implementation.

Question 14

Which combination of strategies would provide the best evaluation of the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk assessment activity?

1. Interview staff at various levels to discuss the organization ' s objectives, significant risks, and risk appetite.

2. Review board meeting minutes to determine whether the significant risks identified are communicated timely to the board.

3. Evaluate the adequacy and timeliness of management remediation actions by reviewing the control design, testing the controls, and reviewing monitoring procedures.

4. Review the professional development plans of internal audit staff to ensure all are competent to assess the organization ' s risk assessment activity.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1.2, and 3 only.

C.

1.3. and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only.

Question 15

Senior management purchased surveillance cameras and installed them over a door that provides entry to an area where according to a recent internal audit report, hazardous materials exist and there is a high risk of explosion Which type of control was implemented in this situation?

Options:

A.

A corrective control

B.

A detective control

C.

A preventive control

D.

A directive control

Question 16

Which of the following best describes a responsibility of the board of directors with regard to risk management throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor the organization ' s overall risk activities in relation to its risk appetite and other risk criteria.

B.

Guide the integration of risk management with other business planning and management activities.

C.

Review the portfolio of risk of the organization in relation to its risk appetite.

D.

Assume responsibility for the effectiveness and success of the risk management framework

Question 17

A chief audit executive (CAE) has just joined an organization with an existing internal audit activity. Based on her review of the current organizational structure, the CAE determines that the internal audit activity lacks adequate independence. Which of the following actions is the CAE ' s best step to take next to move the internal audit activity toward organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Ensure the limitations are disclosed through communication with the board and senior management, so that the internal audit activity can continue operating under the same organizational structure.

B.

Request that the board restructure the reporting line of the internal audit activity to ensure the CAE has unrestricted access to the board.

C.

Rotate internal audit assignments among members of the internal audit activity to minimize the effects of the current structure.

D.

Train internal auditors about organizational independence and have them sign an acknowledgment of understanding.

Question 18

Which of the following would be the most effective in helping to detect fraud?

Options:

A.

Code of conduct.

B.

Exit interviews.

C.

Fraud awareness training

D.

Employee promotion policy.

Question 19

Due to unfavorable economic conditions management decided to postpone new investments for the next year. Which of the following best describes the risk management strategy used to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk reduction

D.

Risk transfer

Question 20

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The HAfs mandatory guidance on independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer.

B.

The board seeks senior management ' s recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit activity,

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline

Question 21

Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization ' s code of ethics?

Options:

A.

It should be written with primary consideration given to using a rule-based approach.

B.

It should be of two variations: one applicable internally and one applicable for third parties.

C.

Its operational effectiveness cannot be tested using traditional audit and rating systems such as maturity models.

D.

It should require an annual attestation of compliance with the code of conduct by all employees.

Question 22

Which of the following written documents typically offers the best evidence that internal auditors exercise due professional care in conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Internal audit charter.

B.

Workpaper.

C.

Audit report.

D.

Code of ethics.

Question 23

Which of the following is a primary responsibility of senior management with respect to ethical violations?

Options:

A.

Senior management provides oversight for the organization ' s ethical climate.

B.

Senior management promotes an ethical culture in the organization.

C.

Senior management assesses the effectiveness of the organization’s ethical programs.

D.

Senior management reviews major ethical policies in the organization for compliance

Question 24

Management has implemented a segregation-of-duties policy for handling inventory. Which of the following fraud risks would be more concerning to an internal auditor following the implementation of this new policy?

Options:

A.

The risk of collusion between parties.

B.

The risk of falsified reconciliations.

C.

The risk of low-liquidity inventory.

D.

The risk of damages to the inventory.

Question 25

Which of the following best describes the risk created when a manager bypasses organizational policies and procedures in order to meet an organization’s objective?

Options:

A.

Accountability/reward risk.

B.

Monitoring failure risk.

C.

Communication failure risk.

D.

Knowledge/skills risk

Question 26

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process,

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process.

Question 27

Which of the following is most likely to result in the impairment of independence for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) has a dual reporting relationship within the organization.

B.

The CAE performs an audit of a functional area that is also under the CAE ' s oversight.

C.

The CAE has unrestricted access to information throughout the organization and to the board.

D.

The board is involved in decisions to hire or remove the CAE and in drafting and approving an internal audit charter.

Question 28

The internal audit activity is asked to provide consulting services regarding the risks related to implementing a proposed new Inventory management system. Which of the following would be a key consideration of the internal audit activity in accepting this engagement?

Options:

A.

Ask the inventory manager to determine whether the work planned would be sufficient to meet the consulting engagement objectives.

B.

Ensure that the method used to communicate the results of the consulting engagement is consistent with the board ' s preferred method.

C.

Determine whether the benefits to be derived from the requested assessment would exceed the cost of providing the consulting service.

D.

Use email and telephone conversations to convey the results of the engagement, as these may prove to be the most efficient methods for communicating.

Question 29

How do assurance services and consulting services differ?

Options:

A.

There is less variety of consulting services that an internal audit activity might provide compared to assurance services

B.

Assurance services are limited to financial events or actions, and consulting services are not limited in this way

C.

Consulting services do not have to be included in the internal audit charter

D.

Other employees in an organization can provide consulting services but only an internal audit activity can provide assurance services

Question 30

If an internal auditor suspects fraud during an engagement which of the following is expected of the auditor?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the suspected activities to determine whether a forma! investigation is warranted,

B.

Immediately inform senior management and the board of the suspected fraud.

C.

Ascertain the level of resources needed to formally investigate the fraud, and proceed with the investigation if resources permit,

D.

Include in the engagement documentation all possible effects and the potential impact of the fraud to the organization

Question 31

An internal auditor is performing testing to gather evidence regarding an organization’s inventory account balance and is mindful of the possibility that the sample used might support the conclusion that the recorded account balance is not materially misstated when, in fact, it is. The auditor ' s concern best describes which of the following risks?

Options:

A.

incorrect rejection risk

B.

Incorrect acceptance risk.

C.

Tolerable misstatement risk.

D.

Anticipated misstatement risk

Question 32

Which of the following statements is true regarding control activities ' ?

Options:

A.

Control activities are defined by management through risk mitigation strategies

B.

Control activities should be defined for all business processes

C.

If two organizations have identical objectives and structures their control activities would be the same

D.

Organizations that are less regulated generally have more complex control activities than highly regulated organizations

Question 33

Which of the following factors is most important for internal auditors to consider when prioritizing fraud risks?

Options:

A.

The organization’s code of conduct.

B.

The organization’s competition.

C.

The organization’s code of ethics.

D.

The organization’s culture

Question 34

During an assurance engagement internal auditors interview operational management to gather and evaluate information. Which approach is most important for internal auditors to be able to listen effectively to interviewees in the given situation?

Options:

A.

Make an audio recording of the interview

B.

Interrupt with questions during unclear statements

C.

Express interest by asking follow-up questions

D.

Avoid periods of silence

Question 35

Which of the following is a limitation of detective internal controls in fraud management?

Options:

A.

Implementation costs tend to be higher than the expected benefits.

B.

They tend to be easy for fraudsters to circumvent.

C.

They are not designed to improve efficiency of operations.

D.

They are not effective in preventing fraud.

Question 36

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance risk management and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits

B.

More effective interviews

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools

D.

Reduced assurance costs

Question 37

Which of the following best demonstrates organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO.

B.

The CAE ' s compensation is approved by the chief financial officer.

C.

The CAE ' s appointment Is determined by the CEO

D.

The CAE reports administratively to the chief operating officer.

Question 38

An internal auditor is reviewing the results of an employee survey at a mining company. Which of the following would alert the auditor to a potential ethics issue?

Options:

A.

Women account for 20% of the total number of employees in the company.

B.

Thirty percent of employees feel confident in raising concerns without a fear of retaliation.

C.

Most employees believe that transparent and fair decision-making forms the basis of business ethics.

D.

Employees with longer work experience believe that they deserve more privileges than new hires.

Question 39

The chief audit executive (CAE) planned an in-person group training to help internal auditors perform onsite inspections of an automobile manufacturing facility. The training would have allowed the auditors to better understand the production of the organization ' s automobiles. However, a global health crisis has impacted the training by prohibiting in-person contact at the facility. Which of the following could the CAE use to provide auditors with a better understanding of the organization s production process?

Options:

A.

A general web-based training on auditing manufacturing processes.

B.

Self-study courses on the industry ' s production practices

C.

Industry publications that discuss production methods

D.

A virtual meeting with management that explains the production of automobiles

Question 40

The level of authority for the internal audit activity is granted by which of the following?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The International Professional Practices Framework.

D.

The IIA ' s Code of Ethics.

Question 41

Senior management has requested that the internal audit activity review and amend policies where necessary when auditing the purchasing department. To which of the following would the chief audit executive most likely give primary consideration when responding to this request?

Options:

A.

Auditor competency.

B.

Internal audit independence.

C.

Auditor objectivity.

D.

Engagement scope.

Question 42

Which of the following corporate social responsibility strategies is associated with responding to outside pressure by assuming additional responsibility?

Options:

A.

Accommodation.

B.

Reaction.

C.

Defense.

D.

Proaction.

Question 43

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

Question 44

The principle that " no action should be taken that may harm in some way the least fortunate people " is an expression of which of the following more general ethical principles?

Options:

A.

Utilitarian benefits.

B.

Personal virtues.

C.

Religious injunctions.

D.

Distributive justice.

Question 45

Which of the following would decrease or be reduced if an organization establishes and implements excessive internal controls?

Options:

A.

Production cycle time.

B.

Activities that add no value.

C.

Staff productivity.

D.

Complexity of operations.

Question 46

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities would typically be examined when using the maturity model approach for assessing an organization ' s risk management program?

Options:

A.

Monitor and review.

B.

Performance measurement.

C.

Setting the context.

D.

Communication.

Question 47

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

Options:

A.

The nature of consulting services typically is not included in the charter.

B.

The chief audit executive must formally review the charter at least once a year

C.

The nature of assurances provided to parties outside of the organization typically is not included in the charter.

D.

The charter typically defines the internal audit activity ' s position within the organization.

Question 48

The chief audit executive (CAE) has decided to outsource an audit of the organization ' s cloud governance in the annual audit plan. Why would the CAE outsource this audit?

Options:

A.

Lack of internal audit staff proficiency.

B.

Lack of audit planning.

C.

Lack of internal assessments.

D.

Lack of due professional care.

Question 49

There is a growing perception that employees generally evade their responsibilities. What impact will an internal auditor most likely see during an engagement?

Options:

A.

Supervisors are likely to reduce their level of supervision and increase span of control.

B.

Employees are likely to be supervised closely and given little freedom.

C.

Peer employees are likely to trust one another, but distrust management.

D.

Employees are likely to join forces to accomplish their duties as teams.

Question 50

The internal audit activity is performing an assessment of an organization ' s ethics program, and the engagement scope specifies a focus on the training program ' s design. According to IIA guidance, which of the following questions would be the most relevant?

1. Does the training include situations that require an ethical decision?

2. What percentage of employees have taken the training?

3. What are the results of the employee assessment of the organization ' s ethical climate?

4. Does the instructor provide feedback on the thought process to reach an ethical resolution?

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

Question 51

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor identified that a developer of the organization ' s enterprise resource planning (ERP) system had intentionally modified the production code to commit a fraudulent transaction. Which control activity should be implemented to prevent such issues in the future?

Options:

A.

Segregate duties between code development and migrating changes into production.

B.

Conduct fraud training for the IT team responsible for the ERP system.

C.

Penalize the developer who committed the fraud by terminating employment.

D.

Restrict developers ' access to the ERP system ' s test environment.

Question 52

Which of the following is (he most effective way any organization can ensure proper governance over its internal controls?

Options:

A.

By adopting the best practices of similar organizations in the industry.

B.

By adjusting their internal control framework as business practices evolve.

C.

By introducing the universally accepted COSO internal control framework.

D.

By encouraging the internal audit activity to provide training on internal controls.

Question 53

Which of the following is an example of an impairment to an internal auditor ' s independence?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor delays reporting material financial statement audit findings until after his parents sell all of their stock in the company

B.

Following the restructuring of the organization, the internal audit activity now reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

A new member of the internal audit activity, who was the accounts payable supervisor for two years, is asked to consult on the implementation of a new accounts payable system

D.

Believing there must be errors in a given balance sheet account the internal auditor decides to expand his testing

Question 54

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Results of internal assessments need to be reported to the board at least once every five years.

B.

The external assessor must present the findings from the external assessment to senior management and the board upon completion.

C.

Deficiencies within the internal audit activity must be reported to the board as soon as they are noted.

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring of the internal audit activity ' s performance must be reported to senior management and the board at least annually

Question 55

Which of the following approaches will internal audit utilize when developing a set of performance standards to measure an organization’s risk management process against?

Options:

A.

Key principles approach

B.

Process elements approach

C.

Holistic approach

D.

Maturity model approach

Question 56

It is important for the chief audit executive to consider the level of competence of the internal audit staff because their competence influences which of the following?

Options:

A.

The cost-benefit relationship of planned audits.

B.

Proficiency needed to carry out engagements.

C.

Achievement of the objectives of internal control.

D.

Quantity of the audits performed.

Question 57

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

Options:

A.

Automatic shut-off valve.

B.

Auto-correct software functionality.

C.

Confirmation with suppliers and vendors.

D.

Safety instructions.

Question 58

Which of the following is the best example of a risk appetite statement concerning an investment portfolio?

Options:

A.

We will request CEO approval for investments greater than S20 million and board approval for investments greater than $50 million.

B.

We will hedge 95 percent of our U S. currency exposure and 100 percent of our European currency exposure.

C.

We have a moderate tolerance for investment earnings volatility with a target value at risk of S50 million.

D.

We will report to the risk committee all credit losses greater than S10 million and all market value losses greater than S20 million.

Question 59

In which of the following scenarios would the chief audit executive (CAE) be required to decline the assignment?

Options:

A.

The CAE would need to procure external services to deliver the internal audit assurance program.

B.

There is no expertise within the internal audit team for detecting and investigating fraud.

C.

There is no expertise within the internal audit team for auditing an IT engagement.

D.

There is no available expertise on the internal audit team to perform a consulting engagement

Question 60

Which of the following controls would best mitigate the risk of fraud in the bidding process?

Options:

A.

Have a bidding committee open the tender bids.

B.

Restrict the time to submit tender bids.

C.

Keep minutes of pre-bid meetings.

D.

Allow the higher tenders to rebid.

Question 61

Which of the following is true with regard to an organization ' s risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Risks represent a single point estimate

B.

Each organization faces the same types of risk.

C.

Risks may relate to failing to achieve positive outcomes.

D.

Mitigated risks are no longer considered to be inherent.

Question 62

Which action by senior management indicates to the internal auditor that there may be fraudulent activities occurring within the organization?

Options:

A.

Setting unrealistic targets for staff to achieve

B.

Granting external audit firms access to staff and records.

C.

Automating some processes and allowing others to be performed manually

D.

Enforcing a zero-tolerance policy for misconduct

Question 63

When beginning an engagement to assess the effectiveness of the organization ' s newly revamped risk management processes, which of the following should internal auditors review first?

Options:

A.

Key risk disclosures in the annual report.

B.

Existing risk assessment and identification processes.

C.

Organizational strategy and business plans.

D.

Risk mitigation plans and risk responses.

Question 64

Applying ISO 31000, which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.

B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.

C.

The regulatory and competitive environment

D.

The method of determining the risk level.

Question 65

An internal auditor is updating the risk register for risks identified during a recent organizational risk assessment. According to the Standards, which of the following would the auditor include in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Management’s acceptance of inadequate controls for cybersecurity risk.

B.

Discussions with senior management relating to a new revenue stream.

C.

Mitigating controls implemented by the engagement supervisor

D.

Project manager planned hours versus time spent for all prior year projects

Question 66

A business unit manager was impressed by the competence of the internal auditor who was conducting an assurance engagement in his area and the manager made the auditor an attractive job offer to begin after the audit was completed The auditor later told her auditor in charge that she was considering the offer. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was most likely violated?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Objectivity

D.

No violation was committed

Question 67

With regard to governance, which of the following is a board-level responsibility rather than a management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Obtaining assurance on external financial, regulatory, and internal audits.

B.

Complying with laws, regulations, and codes.

C.

Assigning authority and responsibilities organization wide.

D.

Monitoring and measuring performance.

Question 68

The CEO has delegated several responsibilities to the internal audit activity. Which of the following directives should concern the chief audit executive the most?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors shall perform engagement-level risk assessments

B.

Internal auditors shall perform risk management activities.

C.

Internal auditors shall perform risk-based engagements

D.

Internal auditors shall perform organization wide risk assessments

Question 69

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) started analyzing the organization ' s policies in an attempt to customize them to address internal audit specifics. Which of the following organizationwide practices is most likely to be acceptable to the CAE?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors1performance evaluation is primarily based on both client satisfaction surveys and cost savings identified from the audits.

B.

Standard training for each employee, including internal auditors, is 10 hours per year.

C.

To enhance efficiency, internal auditors should not be rotated regularly among engagements.

D.

Hiring practices include requiring potential auditors to disclose any significant stock ownership in the organization.

Question 70

Who has the ultimate responsibility of implementing the organization’s governance system?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders

B.

The board

C.

The chief executive officer

D.

Internal auditors

Question 71

A manufacturer of power tools is experiencing regular fluctuations in the price of electrical power which is having a serious impact on the bottom line. Which of the following would be the most effective risk strategy to reduce the impact of these fluctuations?

Options:

A.

Use an average cost for power to smooth the bottom line.

B.

Analyze the amount of power used to produce each power tool.

C.

Review the current process to identify opportunities to reduce power usage.

D.

Use a forward contract for bulk power purchases

Question 72

The accounting department asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a review of suspicious transactions The CAE was an accounting manager for the organization six months ago How should she respond to the request?

Options:

A.

Decline, if it is consulting engagement because she recently worked in the organization s accounting department

B.

Accept, 11 is an assurance engagement, as she has been out of the department long enough to not impair objectivity.

C.

Inform the accounting department mat me engagement can take place m the future once she has been removed from accounting for a longer period of time.

D.

Accept, it is a consulting engagement with agreed-upon scope and services to be provided by me internal audit activity.

Question 73

In order for an internal auditor to assess the opportunity for fraud to occur in an organization, which of the following does the auditor first need to understand?

Options:

A.

Fraud prevention.

B.

Fraud detection.

C.

Corporate culture.

D.

Forensic analysis techniques.

Question 74

Which of the following should be part of the internal audit activity ' s duties?

Options:

A.

Actively reporting to the governing body.

B.

Providing risk management frameworks.

C.

Assisting management in developing processes and controls to manage risks and issues.

D.

Identifying and mitigating significant risks to the organization.

Question 75

An internal auditor is providing consulting services on an area he was responsible for three years ago. Part of the consulting scope covers a review of a performance measuring system that the auditor helped to develop. What is the best course of action for the auditor to take concerning the consulting service?

Options:

A.

Accept the consulting services only after receiving approval to do so from the board.

B.

Accept the consulting services. The objectivity won ' t be impaired if it has been more than a year since he last worked in the area under review.

C.

Refrain from providing the consulting service because he was responsible for that area and his objectivity will be impaired,

D.

Disclose the potential impairment to the customer before accepting the consulting engagement

Question 76

Which of the following actions should the organization ' s governing body perform to provide the most effective governance over the organization ' s culture?

Options:

A.

Coordinate control activities.

B.

Provide direction.

C.

Design key controls.

D.

Deliver assurance.

Question 77

Which of the following is a key determinant used by external auditors to decide whether they can rely on work performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The auditors ' independence.

B.

The auditors ' objectivity.

C.

The auditors ' integrity.

D.

The auditors ' confidentiality.

Question 78

An electrician visits a client to assess the scope of work. After the visit, the sales office compiles and sends the client a proposal based on the electrician ' s estimation and approved price list. The internal auditor notices that in the last six months, the number of cancelled proposals has increased substantially. Which of the following is a fraud risk scenario that the auditor should consider in this situation?

Options:

A.

Some electricians may be offering clients opportunities for reduced fees if they pay with cash.

B.

There is a new competitor in the area who offers better prices.

C.

Sales representatives may be manipulating the proposals to include additional costs.

D.

An unauthorized person may be modifying client data and cancelling the proposals.

Question 79

Which of the following would be considered an indicator that an organization ' s ethics program is not yet well developed?

Options:

A.

Disciplinary actions for ethics compliance violations are reviewed by the internal audit activity for consistency.

B.

Communication of ethics compliance expectations is the responsibility of employees ' direct managers.

C.

The organization ' s code of ethics and related compliance policy are reviewed annually for potential updates.

D.

The board of directors reviews ethics oversight metrics for violations and compliance.

Question 80

An internal auditor is trying to evaluate what could go wrong after determining that a risk management technique is operating effectively. What type of risk is the auditor assessing?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk.

B.

Residual risk.

C.

Impact risk.

D.

Detection risk.

Question 81

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates due professional care?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor who previously worked in the payroll department within the last year was intentionally excluded by the chief audit executive from the audit team assigned to a payroll audit

B.

While performing a payroll audit an auditor became skeptical about significant payments made to a manager. The auditor sought to determine whether these payments were reasonable through discussion with a manager in a different department in the organization

C.

The head of the payroll department being audited is a business partner of the engagement supervisor During the audit the engagement supervisor sought to maintain his objectivity by not participating in fieldwork

D.

An auditor assigned to a payroll audit was unable to reperform some complex payroll computations for a small number of employees The sum of these payments was below the materiality thresholds provided so the auditor did not perform further tests

Question 82

Which of the following is a detective control strategy against fraud?

Options:

A.

Requiring employees to attend ethics training.

B.

Performing background checks on employees.

C.

Implementing a control self-assessment.

D.

Performing a surprise audit

Question 83

If the skills and competencies are not present within the internal audit activity to complete an ad-hoc assurance engagement, which of the following is an acceptable

resolution?

Options:

A.

Politely decline the engagement due to a lack of qualified staff available at the time.

B.

Complete the engagement as requested, with the best of the current staffs abilities.

C.

Consider using employees from other departments in the organization on the audit team.

D.

Change the scope of the testing to ensure that only available staff proficiencies are used

Question 84

What is an appropriate first step in an internal auditor’s fraud risk assessment to evaluate how the organization manages such risk?

Options:

A.

Develop preventive and detective controls

B.

Identify potential fraud scenarios

C.

Assess the impact and likelihood of fraud risks

D.

Determine fraud risk responses

Question 85

An internal audit team analyzed the organization ' s value-at-risk model during an assurance engagement and suggested several useful improvements. Management was impressed by the internal audit team’s work and requested additional actions. Which of the following requested actions would impact internal audit independence most severely if fulfilled?

Options:

A.

Assess the effectiveness of the model at least semi-annually.

B.

Modify model inputs and suggest courses of action based on outcomes.

C.

Employ acquired experience to test other models used by the company.

D.

Validate whether model outputs serve the purpose stated by the model.

Question 86

Which of the following best describes the type of organizational culture known as adaptability culture ' ?

Options:

A.

A results-oriented culture that values competitiveness and personal initiative

B.

A culture that emerges in quick-response and high-risk decision-making environments

C.

A culture that is characterized by low involvement with environmental and health issues

D.

A culture that places high value on participation and meeting the needs of employees.

Question 87

Which of the following scenarios would cause a chief audit executive (CAE) to immediately discontinue using any statements that would indicate conformance with the Standards in an audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity used a risk-based approach to create the internal audit plan.

B.

The engagement supervisor considered requests from senior management regarding engagements to include in the internal audit plan.

C.

The CAE only accepted engagements that the internal audit activity collectively had the knowledge to perform.

D.

The area under review restricted the internal audit activity ' s ability to access records, impacting the audit results.

Question 88

What is the main difference between a consulting engagement versus an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The nature of services provided are defined in the internal audit charter.

B.

Internal auditors must maintain objectivity while performing their work.

C.

The objectives and scope of the engagement typically are directed by management.

D.

Internal auditors may assume management responsibilities.

Question 89

Which of the following best describes organizational governance processes?

Options:

A.

Processes employed by internal and external assurance providers to authorize, direct, and provide oversight to management to better enable the meeting of organizational objectives

B.

Processes employed by the board of directors to authorize and provide guidance and oversight to management to promote the achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Processes employed by the board of directors and senior management to mitigate risks to acceptable levels.

D.

Processes employed by risk owners to mitigate risks to acceptable levels within the organization ' s risk appetite

Question 90

Which of the following resources would be most effective for an organization that would like to improve how it informs stakeholders of its social responsibility performance?

Options:

A.

ISO 26000.

B.

Global Reporting Initiative.

C.

Open Compliance and Ethics Group.

D.

COSO’s enterprise risk management framework

Question 91

During an audit of a foreign subsidiary an internal audit team discovered that products were sold to a prohibited country due to sanctions. What is the best course of action for the internal audit team?

Options:

A.

Include the facts m the engagement communications

B.

Inform me external auditors of the violation.

C.

Report the violation to the government regulators

D.

Consult with the legal department

Question 92

Which of the following is a true statement regarding controls such as ethical values, tone at the top and operational style?

Options:

A.

Transaction testing, mapping and flowcharting is applicable while testing such controls

B.

Breakdowns in the these types of controls have historically led to fraudulent financial reporting

C.

Such controls can be defined as inherently ob)ective and tangible elements of control

D.

From an audit perspective it is significantly easier to assess ethical values than segregation of duties

Question 93

Which of the following is considered to be a threat to the internal auditor ' s objectivity?

Options:

A.

The auditor drafted the operational procedures of the area that she is currently auditing.

B.

The auditor received a bonus that was approved by the board of directors.

C.

The assigned auditor recommended operational procedures for the organization.

D.

The assigned auditor rotated out of the same business activity three years ago

Question 94

According to the 11A Code of Ethics, which of the following is required with regard to communicating results?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should present material information to appropriate personnel within the organization without revealing confidential matters that could be detrimental to the organization.

B.

The internal auditor should disclose all material information obtained by the date of the final engagement communication.

C.

The internal auditor should obtain all material information within the established time and budget parameters.

D.

The internal auditor should reveal material facts that could potentially distort the reporting of activities under review.

Question 95

According to MA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management ' s behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

Question 96

An IT contractor applied for an internal audit position at a bank. The contractor worked for the bank ' s IT security manager two years ago. If the audit manager interviewed the contractor and wants to extend a job offer, which of the following actions should the chief audit executive pursue?

Options:

A.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and state that the individual is free to perform IT audits, including security.

B.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, as it would be a conflict of interest

C.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, but state that the individual is not allowed to work on IT security audits for one year.

D.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and ask the individual to apply again in one year.

Question 97

Which of the following circumstances would most likely be considered a potential red flag for fraud by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The monthly payroll reports are not vetted to ensure terminated employees have been removed from the payroll system.

B.

The volume of nonroutine journal entries has steadily increased over time.

C.

The database of approved suppliers has not been reviewed in the last year.

D.

The recent employee survey indicates that some employees remain unaware of the organization’s whistleblower hotline.

Question 98

Which of the following is true for consulting engagements ' ?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity must ensure management actions have been effectively implemented or risk accepted

B.

A work program for the engagement is not required but may be developed

C.

The nature of consulting services does not have to be in the internal audit charter

D.

Risks identified from the engagement must be considered when evaluating the organization ' s risk management processes

Question 99

Which of the following would best preserve the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter is approved by the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

C.

The CAE ' s internal audit plan is endorsed by the board.

D.

The chief financial officer determines the appointment of the CAE.

Question 100

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot provide consulting services related to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

B.

The nature of consulting services to be performed by internal auditors must be defined in the internal audit charter

C.

If internal auditors have potential impairments to objectivity related to the proposed consulting engagement, the engagement must be declined.

D.

If internal auditors lack the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform the consulting engagement, the engagement can proceed with proper disclosures.

Question 101

Which of the following best demonstrates organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports directly to the board

B.

Internal auditors may not disclose personal data of the audit client

C.

Internal auditors may not accept gifts from management of the area under review

D.

Internal auditors must observe the law and make required disclosures

Question 102

To meet the resource requirements of this year’s internal audit plan, the chief audit executive (CAE) has recruited additional staff auditors, including an employee who resigned as a senior supervisor from the accounts payable department two months ago. There is a scheduled accounts payable review that the CAE wants to start within the next five months. Which approach should the CAE take, knowing the expertise of his new recruit in the area intended to be audited?

Options:

A.

Have the new internal auditor’s previous boss be excused from the area during fieldwork.

B.

Have the new internal auditor be responsible for the planning of the audit as well as the review of the audit fieldwork.

C.

Have the new internal auditor assigned to other responsibilities and not work on the accounts payable audit engagement.

D.

Have the new internal auditor assist with conducting the fieldwork, but ensure that her work is reviewed by the CAE.

Question 103

After the draft engagement report is issued, the manager of the area that was reviewed is informally interviewed by the engagement supervisor regarding the audit experience. Which of the following is most likely the purpose for this interview?

Options:

A.

Such an interview is performed when there is a need to dismiss an internal auditor

B.

Feedback from the manager will contribute to the audit team ' s professional development

C.

The manager ' s opinion will be used to form the final audit assessment and report rating.

D.

The manager will provide insights into the audited industry ' s trends

Question 104

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with the Standards regarding the internal audit activity ' s purpose authority, and responsibility?

Options:

A.

Discussion and formal presentation of the internal audit charter to the board of directors

B.

Certification by external auditors on the purpose, authority and responsibility of the internal audit activity

C.

Approval of senior management that the internal audit activity is functioning as originally designed

D.

Self-assessment of the internal audit activity completed by the chief audit executive

Question 105

In an environment where employees are frequently penalized for mistakes and the organizational culture is one of fear and blame which of the following is an internal auditor most likely to find?

Options:

A.

Management regularly overrides key controls

B.

Employee turnover is tow

C.

Careless behavior becomes normal

D.

Employee morale is low

Question 106

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true of assurance services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot assess an operation for which they were responsible within the previous year.

B.

Management of the area under review must agree with the engagement objectives, scope, and techniques.

C.

The engagement results will vary in form and content depending upon the needs and wishes of the engagement client.

D.

The only parties involved in the engagement are the internal auditor and management of the area under review.

Question 107

Which of the following best illustrates the application of due professional care during an audit of the procurement department?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor began checking purchase requisitions for proper authorizations. He stopped when he discovered an instance of noncompliance. and he concluded the controls were ineffective.

B.

The internal auditor discovered an instance where management did not follow the standard bidding processes. The auditor assessed the validity of management’sreasons for deviating from standard practice and the supporting documentation, and determined that the deviation was acceptable.

C.

The internal auditor selected a sample of purchase orders with amounts greater than S5.000, the threshold at which the organization requires a bidding process. The auditor obtained documentation of the bidding process for each purchase order in the sample.

D.

The internal auditor analyzed bidding documents provided by management. Management indicated that the documents were purchase orders issued to a sole-source vendor Based on the analysis and management ' s declaration, the internal auditor determined that the procurement process was effective.

Question 108

Which of the following would be a preventive control for helping to manage fraud in an organization?

Options:

A.

Reviews of reports to determine which issued payments lack evidence of supervisory review.

B.

A monthly review of new vendors performed by management for reasonableness.

C.

Bank reconciliations performed on a monthly basis by the accounting department.

D.

A code of conduct and whistleblower policy that must be signed by all employees annually.

Question 109

Which of the following indicates an appropriate disclosure of a potential nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

An external assessment of the internal audit activity was last performed six years ago.

B.

The internal audit activity has been in existence for four years but has not performed an external assessment.

C.

An internal assessment is not performed every year.

D.

The internal audit activity has been in existence for two years and has documented only an internal assessment.

Question 110

For a high-risk observation, which is the best approach to follow when management takes an aggressive, uncompromising position in opposition to the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The parties should work together to develop a mutually beneficial solution.

B.

The internal audit activity should share the observation with other business units to get their opinions.

C.

The internal audit activity should discuss with senior management, and if still not resolved, discuss with the board.

D.

The internal audit activity should accommodate management ' s position, since the relationship is more important than the fight.

Question 111

When testing a sample of payroll records during an engagement, an internal auditor suspects mat fraud has been committed. What should be the next step?

Options:

A.

The auditor should increase the sample size to determine the extent ol the fraud.

B.

The suspicions should be communicated to the chief audit executive.

C.

The testing should be completed with the results reported in the final audit report.

D.

A fraud investigator should examine the evidence and report back to the auditor.

Question 112

Which of the following situations is most likely to threaten the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board and administratively to the CEO.

B.

The annual budget for the internal audit activity is approved by the chief financial officer.

C.

The internal audit activity is completely outsourced to an external service provider.

D.

The internal audit manager provides consulting services to the procurement department, where she worked during the prior year.

Question 113

Which of the following most accurately describes the role of the board when it comes to organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Responsibility for outcome of the process.

B.

Responsibility to be involved in management of the organization.

C.

Responsibility to determine who is accountable for outcomes.

D.

Responsibility to identify risks in the organization’s business environment

Question 114

Which of the following best describes the risk contained in an initial public offering for a new stock?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Net risk.

C.

Inherent risk.

D.

Underlying risk.

Question 115

In an internal audit charter, which of the following statements regarding the chief audit executive (CAE) would be most directly related to describing the responsibilities of the internal audit activity*?

Options:

A.

The CAE shall report functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The CAE and the Internal audit activity shall have full access to any and all records and personnel of the organization that are relevant to audit engagements

C.

The CAE and the internal audit activity shall be independent and objective in performing their work.

D.

The CAE shall report periodically on the performance of the internal audit activity relative to its plan

Question 116

Which of the following skills is critical for assessing corporate social responsibility through a self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Assessment skills

B.

Assurance skills

C.

Interviewing skills

D.

Facilitation skills

Question 117

A global manufacturing company has three regional offices. The chief audit executive (CAE) is concerned about the cost of an upcoming external quality assessment of the internal audit activity. The last external assessment was performed six years ago. Recently, the internal audit staff at one of the regional offices performed an internal assessment. To ensure conformance with the Standards, what is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Request from the audit committee an additional budget and an extension so that the external assessment could be performed next year.

B.

Review the results of the internal assessment, identify weaknesses, and implement improvements at the remaining offices.

C.

Request the regional office that performed the internal assessment to perform an assessment of the remaining offices.

D.

Request that an external assessor validate the results of the internal assessment and review the remaining offices.

Question 118

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of an organization ' s risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance may or may not align with risk appetite depending on whether the assessment is quantitative or qualitative

B.

Risk is assessed on both an inherent and a residual basis

C.

The framework addresses four organizational objective categories strategic, historical, operational, and investment

D.

External risks and internal opportunities are omitted from the risk assessment scope

Question 119

Which of the following statements demonstrates that internal auditors are in conformance with the standard of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors have shown they have the freedom to carry out their responsibilities.

B.

Internal auditors have demonstrated the skills needed to carry out the audit engagement.

C.

Internal auditors have strictly followed a formal audit process in conducting their work.

D.

Internal auditors have demonstrated an unbiased mental attitude.

Question 120

Evidence discovered during the course of an engagement suggests that multiple incidents of fraud have occurred. There do not appear to be sufficient controls in place to prevent reoccurrence. Which of the following is the internal auditor ' s most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify management of the area under review and the other internal auditors involved in the engagement.

B.

Discuss the situation with the engagement supervisor to determine whether fraud investigation experts are required to investigate the matter properly.

C.

Fully document in the workpapers the evidence that has been discovered and recommend appropriate controls to address the fraud.

D.

Provide the evidence that was discovered to local law enforcement for possible prosecution of the suspected fraud.

Question 121

According to NA guidance, which of the following provides the best evidence of conformance with the Standards with respect to the proficiency required of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Discussions with the chief audit executive.

B.

A listing of employee profiles and certifications.

C.

Inquiry of external auditors.

D.

Validation by human resources.

Question 122

What is the primary reason for establishing a continuing professional development program within an organization ' s internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To ensure all internal audit responsibilities can be met

B.

To ensure all audit staff members are capable of performing a quality self-assessment.

C.

To ensure that each auditor maintains responsibility for his own professional development.

D.

To attract the best and most talented candidates in the profession

Question 123

A newly hired internal auditor is most likely to need further education in the area of business acumen in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

She was transferred from the managerial accounting department of the same organization.

B.

She was recruited from the internal audit activity of another organization that operates in a different industry.

C.

She was offered a permanent position after she had worked with the organization for two years in a temporary auditor-in-training position.

D.

She previously served on the organization ' s external audit team and was recruited to the internal audit activity following the current year ' s financial audit.

Question 124

Which of the following is the best way for internal auditors to demonstrate their proficiency to effectively carry out their professional responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Volunteer for audit engagements in areas or industries in which the auditor is unfamiliar

B.

Sign an annual attestation indicating that the auditor has all required competencies to perform her job effectively.

C.

Obtain appropriate professional certifications or other designations.

D.

Disclose potential impairments to independence or objectivity prior to performing an audit engagement.

Question 125

During an assurance engagement an internal auditor discovered that risk limits risk limit were set for a new market expansion project Management of the area under review was eager to comply and submitted a potential risk limit value for the auditor ' s review and approval. Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Review the submission and if no further remarks exist approve the risk limits

B.

Provide advice if needed and ask management of the area under review to forward to senior management and the board for approval

C.

Develop risk limit calculation criteria and ask management of the area under review to resubmit the values.

D.

Avoid providing any advice or review until the audit report is issued

Question 126

An internal auditor assessed the controls within his organization ' s payroll process and suspects that erroneous payments may have been made to a fraudulent bank account. What is the best course of action for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Speak to the payroll manager so he may investigate the auditor ' s observations.

B.

Continue to investigate the payments to confirm the accuracy of the observations, and determine whether further fraudulent payments have been made.

C.

Stop the audit and report the findings to senior management immediately.

D.

Escalate the concern to the engagement supervisor.

Question 127

Which of the following would best describe a control implemented to detect cash register disbursement fraud in a large retail store?

Options:

A.

Separate the duties of processing and authorizing refunds on merchandise

B.

Post signs in the register area prompting customers to ask for and examine their sales receipts

C.

Periodically count the cash in the register and compare it to the expected amount

D.

Use cash registers with internal tapes that are tamper proof and that require a manager to process voids or refunds

Question 128

An organization has limited resources to spend on corporate social responsibility initiatives. Which is the most suitable approach to determine how these resources should be used?

Options:

A.

Support a mix of environmental economic and social initiatives to ensure a balanced approach is taken

B.

Survey employees and external stakeholders to see which causes are best suited to the organization.

C.

Select corporate social responsibility initiatives that support the overall strategic goals of the organization

D.

Conduct a financial analysis to determine where the most impact can be made with the budget available

Question 129

What should be the first step for a newly hired chief audit executive to build and maintain the proficiency of the internal audit activity ' ?

Options:

A.

Incorporate the basic criteria of internal audit competency into job descriptions

B.

Complete a periodic skills assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

Develop a competency or skill assessment tool.

D.

Perform benchmarking with competitors to learn what other firms are doing related to this topic

Question 130

A newly hired chief audit executive is reviewing available documentation to provide evidence of conformance with the standard for continuing professional development. Which of the following documents is the most reliable source for this purpose?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s training policy.

B.

A list of auditors who requested to attend the next audit conference.

C.

Self-assessments against an internally developed audit benchmark

D.

In house training manual

Question 131

A regional entertainment organization is in the process of developing a corporate social responsibility (CSR) policy. Management invites ideas from employees when developing the CSR policy. Which of the following is the most appropriate idea to include?

Options:

A.

Management has overall responsibility for the effectiveness of governance, risk management, and internal control processes associated with CSR.

B.

The board is responsible for ensuring that CSR objectives are established, risks are managed, performance is measured, and activities are appropriately monitored and reported.

C.

Management is responsible for ensuring that the organization’s CSR principles are communicated, understood, and integrated into decision-making processes.

D.

Generally, CSR activities are limited to the management of the organization; thus, employees do not have a responsibility for ensuring the success of CSR objectives.

Question 132

During a payroll audit, the internal auditor discovered that several individuals who have the same position classification as he are earning a significantly higher salary. The auditor noted the names and amounts of each, and he planned to prepare a request to the chief audit executive for a salary increase based on this information. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was violated in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Competency.

B.

Objectivity,

C.

Integrity.

D.

Confidentiality

Question 133

An internal auditor was offered expensive tickets to a sporting event by the manager of an area that she was currently auditing. The auditor politely declined. Which of the following fundamental principles of the MA Code of Ethics did she display?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Independence.

C.

Competency.

D.

Objectivity

Question 134

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit charier?

Options:

A.

The charier should be revised and re-approved whenever a new chief audit executive (CAE) is appointed or at the request of the board

B.

The charier should be re-approved every five years, in conjunction with the external quality assessment

C.

The charier can be revised at the discretion of the CAE whenever 4 is determined that its content no longer supports the achievement of objectives

D.

The charier should be reviewed and resubmitted for board approval annually together with the audit plan

Question 135

An internal auditor has documented several instances in which management asked employees to ad against the policies and procedures. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Report the non-compliance cases to the board of directors.

B.

Recommend that management update its policies and procedures based on the circumstances.

C.

Investigate the rationale for management ' s actions.

D.

Recommend those employees to report the cases through the designed whistleblowing channel for the appropriate treatment.

Question 136

An internal auditor was completely honest with operational management when delivering unfavorable audit results. Which of the following best describes the IIA Code of Ethics principle that the auditor demonstrated?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Objectivity

C.

Competency

D.

Transparency

Question 137

Which of the following best demonstrates the authority of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Suggesting alternatives to decision makers.

B.

Improving the integrity of information.

C.

Determining the scope of internal audit services

D.

Achieving engagement objectives.

Question 138

Which of the following offers the feast evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

Options:

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization ' s system of internal controls to be adequate and effective.

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO.

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives.

Question 139

An internal audit activity uses a rotational program to recruit high-performing staff members from other parts of the organization One of these individuals is nearing the end of her four-year internal audit rotation The chief audit executive assigned her to an assurance engagement in the business area she will be going into when she leaves the internal audit activity Which of the following statements is

true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

Accepting the assignment is a violation of internal audit independence

B.

Accepting the assignment will improve competencies and develop relationships that will be needed in her next assignment

C.

Accepting the assignment creates the appearance of an impairment to her professional judgment and detectivity

D.

Accepting the assignment on the assurance engagement would be a breach of due professional care

Question 140

During an audit engagement of a large retail store, internal auditors noted significant discrepancies between available inventory and sales and suspect an abuse of cash register refunds and voids. Which of the following would be the most effective preventative control to reduce these losses?

Options:

A.

Ensure that returned merchandise is restocked to shelves or sent to the manufacturer by an independent employee.

B.

Call a sample of customers who returned merchandise to test the legitimacy of the returns and check refund amounts.

C.

Require that a manager use a reserved register code to approve voids or refunds.

D.

Analyze voids and refunds by employee, credit card number, and amount for unusual numbers, amounts, or patterns.

Question 141

According to The IIA’s Code of Ethics, which of the following best describes the principle of integrity?

Options:

A.

Auditors shall observe the law and make disclosures expected by the law and the profession

B.

Auditors shall disclose all material facts known to them that if not disclosed may distort the reporting of activities under review

C.

Auditors shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge skills and experience

D.

Auditors shall be prudent in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of their duties

Question 142

Which statement accurately describes the authority of the internal audit activity as outlined in the audit charter?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) shall report directly to the board and administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE shall provide senior management and the board with performance updates quarterly.

C.

The internal audit team shall have full access to the organization ' s records, physical property, and personnel required to conduct audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit activity shall maintain a quality assurance and improvement program in conformance with the Standards.

Question 143

Which of the following would most likely represent an objectivity impairment for an internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Providing fraud awareness training and disseminating information regarding the organization ' s fraud hotline.

B.

Performing consulting services after disclosing that the auditor had previous responsibilities in the area under review.

C.

Performing an assurance engagement related to the cash receipts process three years after transferring to the internal audit activity from accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a compliance audit on a vendor prior to disclosing that the vendor ' s office manager is the auditor’s brother.

Question 144

A multinational organization has asked the internal audit activity to assist in setting up the organization’s risk management system. The chief audit executive (CAE) agrees to take on the engagement as a consultant. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the CAE to undertake?

Options:

A.

Coordinate and facilitate risk workshops for management to attend.

B.

Establish the degree of risk appetite for management to accept.

C.

Set risk indicators and mitigation plans for management to implement

D.

Determine the number of significant risks for management to report to the board.

Question 145

Which requirement should the chief audit executive consider when communicating results of the quality assurance and improvement program to the board of a large

organization?

Options:

A.

The internal assessment results should be discussed once every five years,

B.

The rating conclusions and the impact from results of the external assessment should be explained,

C.

The results of the external assessment should be discussed every seven years,

D.

The qualifications and independence of the internal assessment team should be discussed

Question 146

Which of the following statements best describes how the internal audit activity obtains reasonable assurance that significant risks in the organization are identified and assessed?

Options:

A.

The internal auditors review the organization ' s strategic plan, business plan, and policies, and have discussions with the board and senior management.

B.

The internal auditors evaluate the adequacy and timeliness of management ' s reporting of risk management results.

C.

The internal auditors interview staff at various levels and determine whether the organization ' s objectives, significant risks, and risk appetite are articulated sufficiently.

D.

The internal auditors review recently completed risk assessments and related reports issued by senior management, external auditors, and other sources.

Question 147

Which of the following statements is true with regard to services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

For consulting engagements, internal auditors do not need to be alert to control issues.

B.

Assurance and consulting services have similar objectives.

C.

Internal auditors may not perform assurance and consulting roles at the same time.

D.

Both assurance and consulting engagements require a final engagement report

Question 148

An internal auditor in a newly established internal audit activity identifies many control weaknesses and raises a number of high-priority recommendations in her first few audit engagements. The internal auditor is concerned that there seems to be a poor understanding by management of risk and control. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

Options:

A.

Poor performance by individual operational managers in the areas audited.

B.

Unrealistic expectations by the internal audit activity on the quality of risk management and control.

C.

A lack of an effective organizational framework for risk management and control.

D.

A failure by the internal audit activity to identify and manage the organization ' s risks.

Question 149

Which of the following concepts is emphasized in the Mission of Internal Audit?

Options:

A.

Support of good governance and controls.

B.

Enhancement of organizational value.

C.

Protection of tangible and intangible assets.

D.

Provision of professional advisory and assurance services.

Question 150

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions best demonstrates that due professional care has been considered by the internal audit activity when conducting a review of an organization ' s assets?

Options:

A.

Determining whether any opportunity exists for senior executives to misappropriate property or funds

B.

Planning and executing fieldwork In a complete and timely manner to identify all significant risks

C.

Verifying whether the board of directors has implemented effective internal controls

D.

Having senior management determine whether the degree of work planned is sufficient to meet engagement objectives

Question 151

An engagement supervisor noted that an internal auditor ' s personal relationship with a process owner resulted in the auditor providing a favorable and partial assessment during an audit within that process owner ' s area. According to MA guidance, which of the following should be used to manage this impairment?

Options:

A.

An internal audit charter.

B.

An employee disciplinary policy.

C.

A functional audit committee.

D.

A functional reporting placement.

Question 152

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility (CSR) evaluation activities may be performed by the internal audit activity?

1. Consult on CSR program design and implementation.

2. Serve as an advisor on CSR governance and risk management.

3. Review third parties for contractual compliance with CSR terms.

4. Identify and mitigate risks to help meet the CSR program objectives.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3,

B.

1 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

Question 153

Which of the following is true regarding the stakeholder theory of corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

An organization has a fiduciary duty to put shareholders ' needs first

B.

Customers ' needs are the primary responsibility of the organization

C.

Competitors are considered stakeholders of the organization

D.

Employees are the organization ' s best assets and primary responsibility

Question 154

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive discusses the internal audit charter with senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

To provide guidance and solicit feedback on managing the internal audit activity as expected by various stakeholders.

B.

To provide an understanding of the Mission of Internal Audit and The IIA ' s mandatory guidance elements.

C.

To provide an update on the internal audit activity ' s quality of engagement supervision.

D.

To provide information on existing internal audit planning, changes to the internal audit plan, and the rationale for the changes

Question 155

An internal auditor believes that a weakness exists in the control environment relating to the delegation of authority and responsibility within the management structure. Which of the following actions should the internal auditor first consider in this matter?

Options:

A.

Recommend a control change and obtain management support

B.

Evaluate the potential impact on related controls

C.

Address the risk with senior management and the board

D.

Develop and communicate the scope and evaluation criteria to be used by management

Question 156

Which of the following parties would be responsible for ongoing monitoring of the organization ' s corporate social responsibility activities to reduce its carbon footprint?

Options:

A.

Chief audit executive

B.

Facility operation manager

C.

Public relations manager

D.

Regulatory agency

Question 157

Who is responsible for ensuring internal auditors’ continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Individual internal auditors.

B.

Chief audit executive.

C.

The board.

D.

Engagement supervisors.

Question 158

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan,

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting, investors generally do not rely on CSR information.

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary.

D.

Typically, operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

Question 159

Senior management is eager to assess the organization ' s risks with regard to electricity sales processes, but the senior management team does not know where to start. How can the internal audit activity assist?

Options:

A.

Outsource the identification of best practices for risk management to an external third party.

B.

Perform an audit engagement to identify risk management practices deployed in electricity sales processes.

C.

Recommend reporting the lack of risk management to government authorities and request guidance.

D.

Facilitate a self-assessment workshop with the employees responsible for process execution.

Question 160

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate example of the internal audit activity exercising due professional care during an audit of the payroll department?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors ensure that the work program is appropriately designed in order to identify all of the risks surrounding the payroll process.

B.

Internal auditors determine whether the policies, procedures, and practices of the payroll department are operating in accordance with relevant laws.

C.

Internal auditors verify whether the board of directors has implemented effective internal controls over the processes used by the payroll department.

D.

Internal auditors ask the organization ' s risk manager to determine whether the degree of work planned is sufficient to determine whether payroll payments were complete and accurate.

Question 161

An organization ' s operations management is aware of existing internal control deficiencies but they lack the competency to execute internal control measures. Which of the following actions if taken by the internal audit activity is appropriate to assist operating management in achieving continuous improvement on internal controls?

Options:

A.

Foster the importance of the control environment

B.

Provide training on controls and on self-monitoring processes

C.

Recommend installing an enterprisewide risk management system.

D.

Conduct more assurance assignments on high risk areas

Question 162

Which of the following describes a primary responsibility for the internal audit activity in helping management maintain effective controls?

Options:

A.

Promoting continuous evaluation

B.

Promoting continuous monitoring

C.

Promoting continuous improvement

D.

Promoting continuous reporting

Question 163

Which of the following is a responsibility of the internal audit activity as it relates to risk and risk management?

Options:

A.

Evaluating and suggesting improvements to the risk management process.

B.

Establishing the organization ' s risk appetite.

C.

Determining whether the risk attitude is aligned with shareholder interests.

D.

Ensuring an adequate risk management system is in place.

Question 164

In which scenario might it be considered problematic for the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide assurance services over the payroll function?

Options:

A.

The CAE previously undertook a consulting assignment in that area to improve processes,

B.

A couple of years ago, the CAE performed accounting functions for the payroll department.

C.

Prior to becoming the CAE, the CAE was the payroll manager.

D.

The assurance review was initiated following issues identified during a consulting assignment requested by management.

Question 165

Which of the following is a legitimate requirement for an internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Quality assessments should be performed by individuals with sufficient knowledge of the internal audit practices

B.

External quality assessments should be conducted every seven years

C.

All quality assessments should be either conducted or validated by an independent assessment team

D.

The results of the QAIP should be communicated to shareholders annually

Question 166

When a plant manager from within the organization is hired as a rotational internal auditor within the internal audit activity which area should he most likely be trained for immediately?

Options:

A.

Industry knowledge

B.

Project management

C.

Leadership skills

D.

Risk assessments

Question 167

According to MA guidance, which of the following is true with regard to the internal audit charter?

1. It specifies the minimum resources needed for assurance engagements.

2. It requires final approval from senior management.

3. It defines the internal audit activity ' s authority and responsibilities.

4. It describes the expectations for communicating the results of a quality assurance and Improvement program.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

3 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 4.

D.

2. 3. and 4.

Question 168

Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments must be performed by the chief audit executive.

B.

An internal assessment must be performed at least once every five years.

C.

It Is permissible to share the results of the QAIP with the organization ' s external auditors.

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring must be validated annually by an independent external assessor.

Question 169

Which of the following would be most helpful to measure whether an internal audit activity successfully provides risk-based assurance?

Options:

A.

Percentage of highly significant risks covered by internal audit plan.

B.

Percentage of previously unknown risks identified per engagement.

C.

Percentage of internal audit staff skilled in alignment with the organization ' s structure and key risks.

D.

Percentage of observations made in assurance engagements compared to advisory engagements.

Question 170

An external assessment of an organization ' s internal audit activity was last completed four years ago Which of the following options would be acceptable this year if the internal audit activity is to fulfill the requirements of the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity conducts a self-assessment that is validated by a qualified and experienced internal auditor and then schedules a qualified, independent external assessor

B.

The board nominates an independent individual from senior management in the organization to conduct an assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

An external auditor conducts an audit of the organization which includes information about the internal audit activity

D.

The chief audit executive schedules a self-assessment and the board approves the results

Question 171

What is the ultimate goal of establishing a robust risk management framework in an organization?

Options:

A.

To support the organization ' s risk culture, involving employees at all levels.

B.

To ensure that the organization attains a better financial position.

C.

To assist the organization in identifying and mitigating key risks.

D.

To facilitate the organization ' s achievement of business goals and objectives.

Question 172

According to IIA guidance which of the following correctly describes the standard risk treatments outlined in the process element approach of the framework for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance risk sharing application of controls, risk application.

B.

Risk avoidance risk identification application of controls risk acceptance.

C.

Risk identification risk assessment risk avoidance risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification risk assessment application of controls risk acceptance

Question 173

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department. Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

Question 174

Which of the following actions taken during an audit engagement is the best demonstration of an internal auditor ' s due professional care?

Options:

A.

Ensure that all financial information related to the engagement is included in the audit plan and examined for irregularities.

B.

Document all audit tests completely.

C.

Consider the possibility of noncompliance or irregularities at all times during an engagement.

D.

Notify the audit committee of any noncompliance or irregularity discovered during an engagement

Question 175

Which of the following best describes the role of internal control frameworks?

Options:

A.

They outline specific internal controls for an organization to implement to ensure business objectives will be achieved.

B.

They provide guidance related to internal control design and implementation to assist with the evaluation and benchmarking of business practices.

C.

They serve as a list of appropriate internal controls for auditors to ensure an organization is using best practices.

D.

They serve as a template for identifying standardized best practices in effective risk management across industries and countries.

Question 176

Which of the following statements is correct regarding disclosure of conformance or Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal audit activity that has been in existence fewer than five years cannot Indicate that it is operating in conformance with the Standards because it has not yet undergone an external assessment.

B.

Once an external assessment validates conformance with the Standards, the internal audit activity may continue to use the statement until the next external assessment.

C.

If it has been more than five years since the last external assessment was conducted, the Internal audit activity must cease indicating that it operates in conformance with the Standards.

D.

The chief audit executive must disclose every instance of noncompliance with the Code of Ethics or the Standards.

Question 177

An organization ' s board recommends revising the internal audit charter by adding requirements regarding the hiring and compensation of the chief audit executive as well as information on approving the internal audit budget. Which of the following is the board most likely defining in the charter?

Options:

A.

Functional and administrative responsibilities of internal audit activity.

B.

Authority and objectivity of internal audit activity.

C.

Independence and objectivity of internal audit activity.

D.

Assurance and improvement of internal audit activity.

Question 178

Following a quality assurance review of a small internal audit activity, the external reviewer and the chief audit executive (CAE) cannot agree on the importance of several deficiencies noted during the review. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the reviewer to take?

Options:

A.

Remove the areas of disagreement from the scope of the engagement and seek informal compromises with the CAE.

B.

Issue the report to senior management, noting the deficiencies for immediate resolution.

C.

Issue the report, noting the deficiencies with comments that address the areas of disagreement.

D.

Request arbitration from the audit committee to resolve discrepancies prior to issuing the final report

Question 179

The internal audit activity was denied access to expenditure and budget reports because they were considered to be confidential. This situation would result in which of the following limitations of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Independence

B.

Integrity

C.

objectivity

D.

Authority

Question 180

Which of the following tools would be most useful to an internal auditor performing an assessment of the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk responses?

Options:

A.

Heat map.

B.

Risk and control matrix.

C.

Risk register.

D.

Process map.

Question 181

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization ' s general attitude toward risk,

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management.

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization ' s general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept.

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms.

Question 182

Senior management and the board have expressed concerns about the length of engagements and whether their outcome aligns with the organization ' s strategies and objectives. Which of the following actions, if taken by the chief audit executive, could address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Communicating to internal audit staff instructions for completing engagements within shorter time periods.

B.

Requesting additional funding from the board to train internal audit staff on time and resource management.

C.

Implementing the use of agile auditing during engagements to meet expectations.

D.

Encouraging internal audit staff to participate in workshops to further develop their understanding of the organization ' s strategies.

Question 183

Which of the following factors are commonly assessed to determine the magnitude of risk events?

Options:

A.

Tolerance and appetite

B.

Inherent and residual risk

C.

Cost and benefit

D.

Impact and likelihood

Question 184

Which of the following principles of The IIA ' s Code of Ethics implies that internal auditors should refrain from performing assurance services when there is an impairment to audit independence that has not been declared?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Objectivity.

C.

Integrity.

D.

Competency.

Question 185

Which of the following is the best reason why the engagement supervisor should take care in explaining to local management the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the control environment?

Options:

A.

The assessment will cover soft controls and company values.

B.

The assessment will focus on the policy for a particular process.

C.

The assessment will lack a defined scope

D.

The assessment will probably uncover fraud risks.

Question 186

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the interna! audit activity ' s work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment,

B.

Policies that match internal auditors ' performance with feedback from management of the area under review.

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of inappropriate business relationships.

Question 187

Which of the following actions does a competency assessment tool help the chief audit executive perform?

Options:

A.

Record that the internal audit activity’s completion of audit assignments has been met.

B.

Hire qualified and skilled internal auditors for the organization ' s internal audit activity.

C.

Postpone audits where the internal team does not have the necessary skills or knowledge.

D.

Assess the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity to identify any gaps.

Question 188

Which of the following actions would be most effective to help an internal auditor determine how successful the organization has been in communicating the existence of its ethics hotline?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the number of anonymous hotline allegations against employee complaints.

B.

Surveying employees to determine whether they are aware of the hotline.

C.

Benchmarking the average time to investigate hotline complaints.

D.

Tracking the number of hotline allegations per total number of employees.

Question 189

The chief audit executive of a large national retailer is reviewing the purpose and objectives of the organization ' s internal audit activity

Which of the following objectives is best aligned with The IIA ' s Mission of Internal Audit?

Options:

A.

To implement a quality assurance and improvement program

B.

To assess the effectiveness of internal controls over organizational assets

C.

To ensure internal auditors possess the competencies needed to perform their responsibilities

D.

To operate within the budget established by the board of directors

Question 190

Which of the following fraud schemes is often an off-book fraud*?

Options:

A.

Payroll fraud

B.

Disbursement fraud

C.

Corruption

D.

Information misrepresentation

Question 191

In which of the following scenarios would the internal auditor’s objectivity be best protected?

Options:

A.

A former human resources manager conducts an effectiveness review of the appointment and termination process six months after transferring to the internal audit activity.

B.

An accounts payable clerk assists the internal auditors during an effectiveness review of the physical access controls to the server room.

C.

An internal auditor writes the system manual for a newly acquired payroll software application prior to conducting an effectiveness review of the system.

D.

An internal auditor conducts an effectiveness review of an organization ' s business continuity plan in which his son is a minority stockholder.

Question 192

Which of the following activities best ensures that internal auditors grow professionally in alignment with current industry trends to meet the expectations of primary stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Deploying self-assessments against a competency benchmark.

B.

Acquiring memberships in professional organizations.

C.

Developing professional succession plans.

D.

Obtaining subscriptions to professional journals in their area of interest.

Question 193

According to the Standards, in today ' s technology and business environments, how much computer and information systems-related knowledge and skills must an internal auditor have to be effective in fulfilling his job responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Auditors must have an IT specialty in at least one of their organization ' s key information technology systems.

B.

Auditors must be proficient in data analysis and computer assisted audit techniques for their organization.

C.

Auditors must understand their organization ' s integrated test facilities and generalized audit software.

D.

Auditors must understand their organization ' s IT governance, risk, and control processes.

Question 194

In an assurance engagement focused on the adequacy of organizationwide risk management practices, which of the following best describes a primary area of interest for the engagement?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of process-level and transaction-level controls.

B.

Conflicts of interest within the organizational structure of the senior management.

C.

The alignment of management decisions with the level of risk the organization is willing to accept.

D.

The actions of upper management in response to the internal audit activity ' s reporting

Question 195

Which of the following organizations is adopting an acceptance technique in terms of its risk response?

Options:

A.

An organization that takes no action in managing the possible exposure to an earthquake.

B.

An organization that opts out of investing in a new region due to volatility in foreign exchange rates.

C.

An organization that takes out insurance policies to protect its property and equipment.

D.

An organization that deploys policies and procedures to guide business activities and practices

Question 196

Which of the following statements represents the most appropriate correlation between an organization ' s risk maturity and the internal audit activity’s consulting role in risk management processes?

Options:

A.

When an organization has a high level of risk maturity the internal audit activity is less likely to provide consulting services related to risk management

B.

When an organization has a low level of risk maturity, the internal audit activity is less likely to provide consulting services related to risk management

C.

When an organization has a high level of risk maturity the internal audit activity is more likely to provide consulting services related to risk management

D.

There is typically no correlation between an organization’s risk maturity and the extent to which the internal audit activity’s consulting role in risk management processes

Question 197

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership.

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting.

Question 198

An organization is in the process of hiring a new chief audit executive (CAE). Which of the following can the potential candidates expect to be a part of the recruiting process or in place when the CAE is hired?

Options:

A.

There are checks to determine the existence of any potential conflict of interest.

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the highest level of management, the CEO.

C.

The CAE’s compensation depends on the performance of the organizational departments.

D.

Hiring and termination of the CAE is dependent on the decision of senior executives.

Question 199

Senior management asks the chief audit executive to review the organization ' s compliance with recently introduced legislation on international transfer pricing. The review requires an internal auditor who thoroughly understands the legislation and pricing methods. The internal audit activity does not have an auditor with those skills. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement to an external audit firm that has appropriate skills.

B.

Recruit a lawyer with knowledge of the legislation to the audit team and ask the new auditor to perform the engagement.

C.

Decline to perform the engagement, as the internal audit activity does not have the appropriate skill set.

D.

Carry out the engagement using existing internal audit staff to help them gain the appropriate experience.

Question 200

A chief audit executive (CAE) has no direct access to the board. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate way for the CAE to react?

Options:

A.

Ensure all subsequent audit reports include a disclaimer as to the lack of access to the board,

B.

Focus on operational audit work and disregard lack of direct access to the members of the board.

C.

Initiate changes to the internal audit charter to report to senior management for the time being,

D.

Engage in written communications with the board and present relevant issues in writing

Question 201

In which of the following audits would the internal auditors most likely contribute to the assessment of organizational governance?

Options:

A.

An assessment of compliance of individual data protection procedures with data protection regulations

B.

An assessment of profit and loss generated by financial assets and instruments in the past quarter

C.

An assessment of the effectiveness of back-up procedures and execution of business recovery plans

D.

An assessment of performance management practices and establishment of key performance indicators

Question 202

The internal auditor obtained large volumes of transaction history data for accounts on which he suspected that some fraudulent transactions occurred. Which of the following actions best demonstrates due professional care by the internal auditor?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor carefully scrutinized the data by manually reviewing each transaction to ensure that all irregularities were identified.

B.

The internal auditor employed the use of data analytics tools to sort, analyze, and detect anomalies in the data

C.

The internal auditor started the data analysis process by selecting a random sample of transactions on which to perform further tests.

D.

The internal auditor requested that the branch supervisor assist in identifying fraudulent transactions, as he was most familiar with the accounts being audited.

Question 203

Which of the following is a detective control?

Options:

A.

An organization requires certain employees who occupy sensitive positions to sign attestation to the code of conduct on an annual basis.

B.

A compliance specialist carries out quarterly reviews of an organization ' s compliance with regulatory requirements.

C.

A front desk officer in an organization requires that visitors are identified by the host before access is granted.

D.

An internal audit activity deploys audit management policies and procedures for team members.

Question 204

Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk management ensures the ability to eliminate potential hazards to the organization.

B.

Risk management includes consideration of potential opportunities for the organization.

C.

Risk management aids with the establishment of appropriate key performance indicators.

D.

Risk management increases employees ' commitment and belief in strategic goals.

Question 205

Which of the following indicates that internal audit independence may be compromised?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor maintains a close personal relationship with operational management.

B.

Material observations were intentionally left out of the audit report.

C.

Internal auditors assigned to the audit engagement did not have the knowledge, skills, and competencies needed to perform their responsibilities.

D.

An internal auditor failed to apply professional skepticism while performing audit tests in an area overseen by an experienced, reputable manager

Question 206

When issuing his department’s performance report, a sales director in an insurance company knowingly fails to correct the reserves for unearned income that resulted from cancellations of policy subscriptions. This could be considered which of the following types of fraud?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation

B.

Skimming

C.

Disbursement fraud

D.

Information misrepresentation

Question 207

A chief audit executive added more money to the IT training budget to ensure the organization ' s internal auditors were able to perform data analytics while performing an audit. Which core competency is being addressed?

Options:

A.

Data analytics

B.

IT fraud detection.

C.

Continuing professional development

D.

Due professional care.

Question 208

An accounts payable clerk who has access to the vendor master file replaced the payment details of a legitimate vendor with those of a friend before processing the payment through the organization ' s cashier. Immediately afterward, he restored the original vendor information. Which of the following controls could have prevented this fraud?

Options:

A.

Approval of master file change requests by the accounts payable supervisor

B.

Comparison of the check register to original invoices.

C.

Segregation of duties between accounts payable and the cashier.

D.

Frequent issuance of account statements sent to the vendors.

Question 209

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates that the chief audit executive is properly reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

Providing a written conformance statement to both senior management and the board.

B.

Giving copies of both external and internal assessments to the board.

C.

Keeping files of reports of ongoing external assessment monitoring.

D.

Retaining copies of board meeting minutes showing that discussions of assessments took place.

Question 210

Which of the following actions should an organization take to detect an emerging risk of potential fraud?

Options:

A.

Adopt reward and recognition programs that promote good behaviors

B.

Undertake background checks for new employees as part of the hiring process

C.

Establish an anonymous platform for reporting suspected unethical behaviors

D.

Institute periodic educational training on expected ethical behaviors

Question 211

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments. The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International! Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

Question 212

Which of the following tests would most likely help discover a fictitious invoice?

Options:

A.

Compare vendor addresses to employee addresses.

B.

Match cancelled checks to invoices.

C.

Search for duplicate payment amounts.

D.

Check employee bank records against invoice amounts.

Question 213

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions best demonstrates due professional care by an internal auditor when she discovers a number of fraud-related red flags during an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Conclude the engagement and inform management that fraud has occurred

B.

Perform further testing to verify the existence of fraud.

C.

Suspend the engagement and undertake a formal fraud investigation.

D.

Notify the board of the possible fraud immediately

Question 214

Which of the following frauds is most likely to occur in the accounts payable function?

Options:

A.

Factitious vendors are entered into the system, possibly resulting in improper disbursements.

B.

Bad debt expense is intentionally omitted from the financial statements.

C.

Certain costs are capitalized, rather than expensed.

D.

A related party receives benefits not appropriate in an arm ' s-length transaction.

Question 215

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the required elements of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments provide sufficient objectivity to provide evidence to the board that the internal audit activity understands the organization’s control processes.

B.

Quality assessments focus on the internal audit activity ' s structure, relationships with stakeholders, compliance with the Standards, and internal audit staff proficiency.

C.

In order to comply with the Standards, the internal audit activity must obtain an objective assessment of its processes and function at least once a year.

D.

Internal auditors completing internal assessments must demonstrate certification to perform quality assessments.

Question 216

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization ' s board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company.

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 217

Which of the following statements best illustrates why internal auditors assess soft controls?

Options:

A.

Assessing soft controls are an effective method of assessing risk related to personnel.

B.

Assessing soft controls, as opposed to hard controls, makes it easier to evaluate operating effectiveness.

C.

Assessing soft controls can help internal auditors in undertaking root-cause analysis.

D.

Assessing soft controls provides more objective information than assessing hard controls.

Question 218

At what point in time can an organization conclude that the established organizational governance framework was correctly implemented?

Options:

A.

When the internal auditor conducts observations and fieldwork.

B.

When management completes the risk assessment.

C.

When the internal auditor evaluation shows its soundness.

D.

When the organization ' s goals and objectives are met.

Question 219

When would on-the-job training be more effective?

Options:

A.

When participants already have a certain degree of experience and knowledge.

B.

When it makes up the largest part of the training budget.

C.

When it includes ongoing feedback and coaching from experienced team members.

D.

When it is standardized for the whole entire staff.

Question 220

An internal auditor in a busy internal audit activity reviews her continuing professional development records toward the end of the year and is concerned to find she has undertaken limited training and formal professional development. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for her to take?

Options:

A.

Remind the chief audit executive (CAE) that he is responsible for her continuing professional development and needs to address the issue

B.

Contact her professional organization and explain that she does not need formal professional development, as she is being developed sufficiently through undertaking audit engagements.

C.

Accept that she is unlikely to meet continuing professional development requirements but look to attend training courses at the next available time.

D.

Accept that she is responsible for her own continuing professional development, develop a professional plan, and discuss it with the CAE.

Demo: 220 questions
Total 735 questions