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IIA IIA-CCSA Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 40 questions
Total 270 questions

Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Rank vulnerability is based on:

Options:

A.

the auditor’s preliminary assessment of the adequacy of the controls

B.

the management’s emphasize to values, competence and integrity of the system

C.

a system of identification of risks and monitoring them on a regular basis

D.

a system of high volume of cash transactions

Question 2

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

the end product of strategic planning is the operational plan

B.

the start product of strategic planning is the strategic plan

C.

the end product of strategic planning is the strategic plan

D.

the end product of operational planning is the strategic plan

Question 3

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Checklist, a document similar to questionnaire that contains more narrative and less Yes/No questions.

B.

Memorandum, a document similar to questionnaire that contains less narrative and more Yes/No questions.

C.

Checklist, a document similar to questionnaire that contains less narrative and more Yes/No questions.

D.

Memorandum, a document similar to questionnaire that contains more narrative and less Yes/No questions.

Question 4

Remedy of the circumstances that allowed the unauthorized activity or return conditions to what they were before the violation, is called:

Options:

A.

Access control

B.

Solution

C.

Corrective controls

D.

None of the above

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT the process risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Risk Management

B.

Risk Identification

C.

Risk Measurement

D.

Risk Prioritization

Question 6

Under the Securities and Exchange Commission’s final rules, management’s annual internal control report must avoid:

Options:

A.

Identify the framework used by management to evaluate effectiveness of internal control.

B.

Shun around the internal control over financial reporting for the company.

C.

Management’s assessment of the effectiveness of the internal control.

D.

A statement that auditor has to issue an attention report on management’s assessment.

Question 7

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

The decision symbol have three exit points, these can be on the sides and the bottom.

B.

Flowcharts generally flow from top to bottom and right to left.

C.

Flowchart symbols may or may not start with a terminal symbol.

D.

Flowchart symbols should have a single entry point on the bottom of the symbol.

Question 8

The measures are generally quantitative in that they measure the quantities of products or services delivered by an organization are referred to as:

Options:

A.

Output measures

B.

Extensive measures

C.

Experimental measures

D.

Operational measures

Question 9

Votes are cast anonymously and all responses are confidential is one of the advantages of:

Options:

A.

Classified voting

B.

Electronic mailing

C.

Electronic voting

D.

None of the above

Question 10

No policy regarding identification, sale and disposal of obsolete and surplus materials is a fraud warning sign of Inventory

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 11

The purpose of multifaceted system of control processes is:

Options:

A.

to support people of the organization in management of control and achievement of the established and communicated objectives of the team

B.

to support people of the organization in management of processes and achievement of the established and communicated objectives of the organization

C.

to support people of the organization in management of changes and achievement of the established and communicated objectives of the project

D.

to support people of the organization in management of risks and achievement of the established and communicated objectives of the enterprise

Question 12

Tall organization structures have a large number of levels between the top of the organization and the bottom.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 13

Description, action steps, time frames, delineated responsibilities are all factors of Objective statements.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 14

___________ is the uncertainty or exposures that exist assuming no controls are in place.

Options:

A.

Systematic risk

B.

Business risk

C.

Procedural risk

D.

Inherent risk

Question 15

When internal auditors establishes trust and thus provides the basis for reliance on their judgment, this refers to:

Options:

A.

Veracity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Integrity

D.

Accuracy

Question 16

To test transactions for errors, which tool is used by using confirmation technique?

Options:

A.

Checklists

B.

Control evaluation tables

C.

Audit software

D.

Sampling software

Question 17

Accurate self-assessment is a realistic evaluation of your strengths and limitations.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?

Options:

A.

Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.

B.

Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.

C.

Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.

D.

Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.

Question 19

The technique that involves developing a sequence of possible events and projecting potential results refers to:

Options:

A.

scenario

B.

Action plan

C.

synthetic act

D.

none of the above

Question 20

Information related to either the elements outside the organization’s control or to elements that the organization can control at least to some extent is called:

Options:

A.

Performance

B.

Organizational

C.

Explanatory

D.

None of the above

Question 21

The characteristics or values that will be used to measure outputs, outcomes or service levels from the activities of each operating unit, function, program or activity defines:

Options:

A.

Performance plan

B.

Performance objectives

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Performance management

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT the entity’s objective that is consistent with the entity’s risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Strategic

B.

Operations

C.

Reporting

D.

Internal environment

Question 23

Management thinks in terms of risk (implicitly and explicitly), and management rarely thinks in terms of control.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 24

The risk that some action or inaction by the entity will impair the organization’s ability to reach its goals and objectives is known as:

Options:

A.

Reputation risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Strategic risk

D.

Fiscal risk

Question 25

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Competency refers to the validity and reliability of audit evidence.

B.

Sufficiency refers to the validity and reliability of resources.

C.

Capability refers to the capacity and reliability of audit evidence.

D.

Consistency refers to the steadiness and reliability of audit evidence

Question 26

Fill in the Blanks

________ are the targets or goals that an organization to needs to achieve in order to fulfill its purpose as articulated in its mission, mission and value statements.

Options:

Question 27

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructures of an organization are subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvements due to:

Options:

A.

Accountability for control

B.

Measuring methodology

C.

Evaluation methodology

D.

Self-assessment methodology

Question 28

The CSA process that results in identification of fraud indicators as well as actual fraudulent activities is called:

Options:

A.

Fraudulent statements

B.

Reduced risk of fraud

C.

Accountability and control

D.

Natural reluctance to change

Question 29

The emergence of _____________ as a key organizational process gives the internal auditing profession a unique opportunity to shift its focus to risk.

Options:

A.

Risk identification

B.

Risk management

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Risk mitigation

Question 30

Flowcharting is a common method used to document major processes in order to identify them within the program.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 31

In traditional approach, objectives used were of management’s and in control selfassessment approach it is of work teams’.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 32

People who make decisions themselves and issue orders to subordinates without seeking their input and without regard to their feelings are known as:

Options:

A.

Practitioners

B.

Stakeholders

C.

Participative managers

D.

Internal auditors

Question 33

SWOT Analysis is:

Options:

A.

the process of analyzing environmental information

B.

the process of monitoring environmental information

C.

the process of organization’s hierarchical information

D.

the process of analyzing technological policies

Question 34

Adjusting entries made without formal approval is a fraud warning of financial characteristics.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 35

In Facilitated team workshops, which is NOT the facilitated team format?

Options:

A.

Objective-based format

B.

Risk-based format

C.

Configuration-based format

D.

process-cased format

Question 36

The risks including exposure to equipment, machinery and work processes are referred to as:

Options:

A.

Expertise risks

B.

Safety risks

C.

Strategic risks

D.

Environmental risks

Question 37

A weak control is equal to high vulnerability and a strong control is equal to the low vulnerability.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 38

In linear organizations, decisions tend to follow from bottom to top through well-defined line of authority.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 39

What refers to shared beliefs, values and behaviors of the members of an organization?

Options:

A.

Culture

B.

Legation

C.

Refinement

D.

Attitude

Question 40

_________ are preferred if the culture in the organization may hinder open, candid discussions in workshop settings or of management desires to minimize the time spent and cost incurred in gathering the information.

Options:

A.

Interviews

B.

Surveys

C.

Dialogues

D.

Conferences

Demo: 40 questions
Total 270 questions