Labour Day Special Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70percent

Exin ITIL-F ITIL Foundation Exam Practice Test

Demo: 45 questions
Total 324 questions

ITIL Foundation Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?

Options:

A.

Service catalogue management

B.

Service portfolio management

C.

Service desk

D.

Business relationship management

Question 2

Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?

Options:

A.

Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require

B.

Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized

C.

Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked

D.

To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail

Question 3

Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?

1. Those planned to be delivered

2. Those being delivered

3. Those that have been withdrawn from service

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

All of the above

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Question 4

Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests'?

Options:

A.

Service transition planning and support

B.

Design coordination

C.

Service level management

D.

Change management

Question 5

Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

Options:

A.

Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity

B.

Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components

C.

Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service

D.

Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Question 6

Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?

Options:

A.

Planning how to recover the cost of a change

B.

Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful

C.

Planning how to compensate a user for a failed change

D.

Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change

Question 7

When can a known error record be raised?

1. At any time it would be useful to do so

2. After a workaround has been found

Options:

A.

2 only

B.

1 only

C.

Neither of the above

D.

Both of the above

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?

Options:

A.

To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents

B.

To manage problems throughout their lifecycle

C.

To restore service to a user

D.

To eliminate recurring incidents

Question 9

Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?

Options:

A.

Categorization

B.

Detection

C.

Prioritization

D.

Escalation

Question 10

Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?

1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer

2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet

Options:

A.

Both of the above

B.

1 only

C.

2 only

D.

Neither of the above

Question 11

Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?

Options:

A.

The results specific to the clauses in a service level agreement (SLA)

B.

The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service

C.

All the accumulated knowledge of the service provider

D.

All incidents reported to the service desk

Question 12

From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?

Options:

A.

The user

B.

The customer

C.

The supplier

D.

The administrator

Question 13

The BEST description of an incident is:

Options:

A.

An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service

B.

An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service

C.

Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned

D.

Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Question 14

Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

Options:

A.

Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)

B.

Customer and user satisfaction

C.

Service requirements and warranty

D.

Resources and capabilities

Question 15

The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?

Options:

A.

Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks

B.

Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk

C.

Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital

D.

Training of all staff and investment of capital

Question 16

Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk

2. Virtual service desk

3. IT help desk

4. Follow the sun

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4 only

B.

2, 3 and 4 only

C.

1, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 only

Question 17

Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?

Options:

A.

Technical management

B.

Service desk

C.

Application management

D.

Facilities management

Question 18

Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

Options:

A.

Technical management

B.

IT operations management

C.

Request fulfilment

D.

Applications management

Question 19

Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

Options:

A.

Defining where the vendor of an application should be located

B.

Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome

C.

Deciding who the vendor of storage devices will be

D.

Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application

Question 20

Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?

1. Logging details of incidents and service requests

2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis

3. Restoring service

4. Implementing all standard changes

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1, 2 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 21

What is a RACI model used for?

Options:

A.

Performance analysis

B.

Recording configuration items

C.

Monitoring services

D.

Defining roles and responsibilities

Question 22

Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?

1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance

2. Identifying improvement opportunities

3. Appointing people to required roles

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Question 23

Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure?

Options:

A.

RACI model

B.

Incident model

C.

Continual service improvement (CSI) approach

D.

The Deming Cycle

Question 24

A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

Options:

A.

Be accountable for the outcome of an activity

B.

Perform an activity

C.

Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity

D.

Manage an activity

Question 25

A process owner is responsible for which of the following?

1. Defining the process strategy

2. Assisting with process design

3. Improving the process

4. Performing all activities involved in a process

Options:

A.

2, 3 and 4 only

B.

All of the above

C.

1, 2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 4 only

Question 26

Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow

2. Measurement and reporting

3. Release and deployment

4. Process design

Options:

A.

2 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

All of the above

Question 27

Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?

Options:

A.

Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge

B.

Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom

C.

Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data

D.

Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom

Question 28

Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

Options:

A.

Knowledge

B.

Information

C.

Wisdom

D.

Data

Question 29

Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?

1. Design and modeling

2. Reporting

3. Pattern recognition and analysis

4. Detection and monitoring

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1, 3 and 4 only

C.

2, 3 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Question 30

What BEST defines IT service management?

Options:

A.

An organization supplying services to only external customers.

B.

The customer of an IT Service provider who defines and agrees the service targets.

C.

The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs.

D.

The resources that are utilized to provide value to customers through services.

Question 31

Implementation of ITIL service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps".

What are these four Ps?

Options:

A.

People, process, partners, performance

B.

Performance, process, products, problems

C.

People, process, products, partners

D.

People, products, perspective, partners

Question 32

Which one of the following does service metrics measure?

Options:

A.

Functions

B.

Maturity and cost

C.

The end-to-end service

D.

Infrastructure availability

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?

Options:

A.

The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue

B.

The design of new or changed services

C.

The design of market spaces

D.

The design of the technology architectures

Question 34

Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

Options:

A.

Where are we now?

B.

Where do we want to be?

C.

How do we get there?

D.

Did we get there?

Question 35

Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

Options:

A.

Implementing service and process improvements

B.

Reviewing measurements and metrics

C.

Creating a baseline

D.

Defining measurable targets

Question 36

What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

Options:

A.

Business services

B.

Component services

C.

Supporting services

D.

Customer services

Question 37

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term ‘service management’?

Options:

A.

A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services

B.

A group of interrelated, interacting or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose

C.

The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities

D.

Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Question 38

Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?

Options:

A.

One which directly supports the business processes of customers

B.

A service that cannot be allowed to fail

C.

One which is not covered by a service level agreement

D.

A service not directly used by the business

Question 39

Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?

Options:

A.

The five ITIL volumes are concise

B.

It is not tied to any particular vendor platform

C.

It tells service providers exactly how to be successful

D.

It is designed to be used to manage projects

Question 40

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term 'service management'?

Options:

A.

A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services

B.

A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose

C.

The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities

D.

Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Question 41

In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?

Options:

A.

Service strategy

B.

Service design

C.

Service transition

D.

Service operation

Question 42

Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?

Options:

A.

Reduced total cost of ownership

B.

Improved quality of service

C.

Improved Service alignment with business goals

D.

Better balance of technical skills to support live services

Question 43

Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access management

B.

Event management, incident management, change management, and access management

C.

Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event management

D.

Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management

Question 44

Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Service operation

B.

Service transition

C.

Continual service improvement

D.

Service strategy

Question 45

Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?

1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful

2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment

3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Demo: 45 questions
Total 324 questions