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Exin ITIL-F ITIL Foundation Exam Practice Test

Demo: 45 questions
Total 324 questions

ITIL Foundation Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

Options:

A.

Technical management

B.

IT operations management

C.

Request fulfilment

D.

Applications management

Question 2

Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?

1. Capacity management

2. Request fulfilment

3. Demand management

4. Incident management

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

2 only

Question 3

Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?

1. Logging details of incidents and service requests

2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis

3. Restoring service

4. Implementing all standard changes

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1, 2 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 4

Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk

2. Virtual service desk

3. IT help desk

4. Follow the sun

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4 only

B.

2, 3 and 4 only

C.

1, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 only

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL / guidance?

Options:

A.

Local

B.

Centralized

C.

Outsourced

D.

Virtual

Question 6

Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?

1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful

2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment

3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Question 7

Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

Options:

A.

To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during design

B.

To design and develop capabilities for service management

C.

To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services

D.

To plan the resources required to manage a release

Question 8

Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages

B.

Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services

C.

Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced

D.

Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Question 9

Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

Options:

A.

Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management

B.

Change management, capacity management event management, service request management

C.

Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management

D.

Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfilment

Question 10

In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?

Options:

A.

Service strategy

B.

Service design

C.

Service transition

D.

Service operation

Question 11

Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?

1. Design and modeling

2. Reporting

3. Pattern recognition and analysis

4. Detection and monitoring

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1, 3 and 4 only

C.

2, 3 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Question 12

Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow

2. Measurement and reporting

3. Release and deployment

4. Process design

Options:

A.

2 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

All of the above

Question 13

Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

Options:

A.

Knowledge

B.

Information

C.

Wisdom

D.

Data

Question 14

Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?

Options:

A.

Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge

B.

Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom

C.

Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data

D.

Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom

Question 15

Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management?

Options:

A.

Automated detection of an infrastructure or application fault, using event/alert tools automatically to raise an incident

B.

Analysis of an incident by a technical support group which revels that an underlying problem exists, or is likely to exist

C.

Suspicion or detection of a cause of one or more incidents by the service desk

D.

Trending of historical incident records to identify one or more underlying causes

Question 16

Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?

Options:

A.

PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities

B.

IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA

C.

Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA

D.

Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting

Question 17

From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?

Options:

A.

User

B.

Customer

C.

Supplier

D.

Administrator

Question 18

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

Options:

A.

Configuration baseline

B.

Project baseline

C.

Change baseline

D.

Asset baseline

Question 19

Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

Options:

A.

Do

B.

Perform

C.

Implement

D.

Measure

Question 20

Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Change proposal

B.

Change policy

C.

Service request

D.

Risk register

Question 21

What is a RACI model used for?

Options:

A.

Performance analysis

B.

Recording configuration items

C.

Monitoring services

D.

Defining roles and responsibilities

Question 22

Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard?

Options:

A.

The IT director

B.

The process owner

C.

The service owner

D.

The customer

Question 23

Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure?

Options:

A.

RACI model

B.

Incident model

C.

Continual service improvement (CSI) approach

D.

The Deming Cycle

Question 24

Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?

1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance

2. Identifying improvement opportunities

3. Appointing people to required roles

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Question 25

A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

Options:

A.

Be accountable for the outcome of an activity

B.

Perform an activity

C.

Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity

D.

Manage an activity

Question 26

Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

Options:

A.

Where are we now?

B.

Where do we want to be?

C.

How do we get there?

D.

Did we get there?

Question 27

Which of the following BEST describes 'partners' in the phrase "people, processes, products and partners"?

Options:

A.

Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors

B.

Customers

C.

Internal departments

D.

The facilities management function

Question 28

The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. What are these four Ps?

Options:

A.

People, process, partners, performance

B.

Performance, process, products, plans

C.

People, process, products, partners

D.

People, products, plans, partners

Question 29

Which one of the following does service metrics measure?

Options:

A.

Functions

B.

Maturity and cost

C.

The end-to-end service

D.

Infrastructure availability

Question 30

At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined?

Options:

A.

Service design: Design the processes

B.

Service strategy: Develop the offerings

C.

Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment

D.

Service operation: IT operations management

Question 31

Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

Options:

A.

To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes

B.

To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)

C.

To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized

D.

To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

Question 32

Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Service catalogue management

C.

Supplier management

D.

Release and deployment management

Question 33

What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?

Options:

A.

Informational, scheduled, normal

B.

Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency

C.

Informational, warning, exception

D.

Warning, reactive, proactive

Question 34

Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

Options:

A.

Only changes that introduce new services

B.

It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activity

C.

Only changes to business critical systems

D.

Any change that the organization believes could benefit

Question 35

Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

Options:

A.

Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity

B.

Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components

C.

Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service

D.

Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Question 36

Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernible trends?

Options:

A.

Service level management

B.

Problem management

C.

Change management

D.

Event management

Question 37

Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

Options:

A.

A service level agreement (SLA)

B.

A request for change (RFC)

C.

The service portfolio

D.

A service description

Question 38

Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

Options:

A.

Service level management

B.

Problem management

C.

Change management

D.

Event management

Question 39

Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?

1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident

2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both of the above

D.

Neither of the above

Question 40

Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?

Options:

A.

Categorization

B.

Detection

C.

Prioritization

D.

Escalation

Question 41

Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?

Options:

A.

The five ITIL volumes are concise

B.

It is not tied to any particular vendor platform

C.

It tells service providers exactly how to be successful

D.

It is designed to be used to manage projects

Question 42

What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

Options:

A.

Employers

B.

Stakeholders

C.

Regulators

D.

Accreditors

Question 43

What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

Options:

A.

Business services

B.

Component services

C.

Supporting services

D.

Customer services

Question 44

What are customers of IT services who do NOT work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

Options:

A.

Strategic customers

B.

External customers

C.

Valued customers

D.

Internal customers

Question 45

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term 'service management'?

Options:

A.

A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services

B.

A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose

C.

The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities

D.

Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Demo: 45 questions
Total 324 questions