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Exin ITIL ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 77 questions
Total 514 questions

ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011) Questions and Answers

Question 1

In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?

Options:

A.

Service strategy

B.

Service design

C.

Service transition

D.

Service operation

Question 2

Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

Options:

A.

To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle

B.

To proactively prevent all outages to IT services

C.

To design and build processes which will meet business needs

D.

To deliver andmanage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Question 3

Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?

Options:

A.

Service asset and configuration management

B.

Event management

C.

Service catalogue management

D.

Problem management

Question 4

Which of the following are managed by facilities management?

1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room

2. Applications

3. Power and cooling equipment

4. Recovery sites

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

All of the above

C.

1, 3 and 4 only

D.

1 and 3 only

Question 5

Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?

Options:

A.

Supplier management and service level management

B.

Supplier management and change management

C.

Availability management and service level management

D.

Supplier management and availability management

Question 6

Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management

B.

Event management, incident management, change management, and accessmanagement

C.

Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfillment, and event management

D.

Incident management, service desk, request fulfillment, access management, and event management

Question 7

Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

Options:

A.

Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

B.

Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening

C.

Eliminatingrecurring incidents

D.

Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

Question 8

Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?

1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is

2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider

3. Defining how value is created

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

All of the above

Question 9

Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

Options:

A.

Service design

B.

Service transition

C.

Continual service improvement

D.

Service operation

Question 10

Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?

1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time

2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both of the above

D.

Neither of the above

Question 11

What is the pre-authorized change known as?

Options:

A.

A normal change

B.

A retrospective change

C.

A standard change

D.

An ordinary change

Question 12

What should be documented as part of every process?

Options:

A.

The process owner, process policy and set of process activities

B.

The service owner, service level agreement and set of process procedures

C.

The policy owner, operational level agreement and set of process steps

D.

The service manager, service contract and set of work instructions

Question 13

What processes represent the scope of financial management for IT services?

Options:

A.

Budgeting, costing and charging

B.

Budgeting, accounting and charging

C.

Cost models and invoicing

D.

Charging, accounting and billing

Question 14

Which statement about services is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

External services are provided to business units in the same organisation

B.

Internal services are provided by suppliers to the internal IT department

C.

External services are delivered to external customers

D.

Internal services are delivered to external customers

Question 15

Which of the following in NOT an objectives of the operations management function?

Options:

A.

Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur

B.

Delivering Operational improvements to achieve reduced costs.

C.

Management of the definitive media library (DML)

D.

Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

Question 16

Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi-level service level agreement (SLA.?

Options:

A.

Technology, customer, user

B.

Corporate, customer, service

C.

Corporate, customer, technology

D.

Service, user, IT

Question 17

What is the CORRECT definition of service management?

Options:

A.

A set of specialised assets for transitioning services into the live operational environment

B.

A set of specialised organisational capabilities for delivering value to customers in the form of

services

C.

A groupof events that meet the demand from customers for services that they receive

D.

A group of people that manages services to fulfil the needs of users and customers

Question 18

Third parties responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT services is a

description of which stakeholder?

Options:

A.

External Customers

B.

Suppliers

C.

Operations

D.

External Consultants

Question 19

Which of the following correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?

Options:

A.

Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other

B.

Urgency should be based on impact and priority

C.

Impact should be based on urgency and priority

D.

Priority should be based on impact and urgency

Question 20

Which statement about stakeholders is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Customers, users and suppliers are examples of stakeholders who are can be external to the service

provider organization

B.

External customers are those who work for the same organization as the IT service provider

C.

Internal customers are always charged for the IT services they receive from the IT service providerorganization

D.

Internal customers purchase services from third party suppliers by means of a legally binding contract

or agreement

Question 21

Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk

2. Virtual service desk

3. IT help desk

4. Follow the sun

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4 only

B.

2, 3 and 4 only

C.

1, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2and 3 only

Question 22

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

Options:

A.

Configuration baseline

B.

Project baseline

C.

Change baseline

D.

Asset baseline

Question 23

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

Options:

A.

To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

B.

Providesthe rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services

C.

To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening

D.

To detect security events and make sense of them

Question 24

The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within knowledge management?

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Information

C.

Knowledge

D.

Governance

Question 25

Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?

Options:

A.

Reduced total cost of ownership

B.

Improved quality of service

C.

Improved Service alignment with business goals

D.

Better balance of technical skills to support live services

Question 26

Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided

2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided

3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction

4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1, 2 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Question 27

What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

Options:

A.

The change authorization board

B.

The change advisory board

C.

The change implementer

D.

The change manager

Question 28

Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

Options:

A.

Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve

B.

Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?

C.

Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution

D.

What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Question 29

Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Service level management

B.

IT operations management

C.

Capacity management

D.

Incident management

Question 30

Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?

1. ITIL is vendor neutral

2. It does not prescribe actions

3. ITIL represents best practice

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Question 31

Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?

Options:

A.

Something that won't happen

B.

Something that will happen

C.

Something that has happened

D.

Something that might happen

Question 32

Which of the following is the goal or purpose of service level management?

Options:

A.

To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services

B.

To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services

C.

To create and populatea service catalogue

D.

To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

Question 33

Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Service Transition

B.

Risk Management

C.

IT Service Continuity Management

D.

Availability Management

Question 34

What are Request Models used for?

Options:

A.

Capacity Management

B.

Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests

C.

Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approachessuch as local or remote

D.

Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

Options:

A.

Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur

B.

Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs

C.

First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users

D.

Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

Question 36

Which of the following is commonly found in a contract underpinning an IT service?Financial arrangements related to the contract Description of the goods or service provided Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

All of the above

Question 37

Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?

Options:

A.

The Asset Register

B.

The Service Knowledge Management System

C.

The Known Error Database

D.

The Information ManagementSystem

Question 38

Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?

1. Known Error Data

2. Change Schedules

3. Service Knowledge Management System

4. The output from monitoring tools

Options:

A.

1,2 and 3 only

B.

1,2 and4 only

C.

2,3 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Question 39

Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?

Options:

A.

Service Desk

B.

IT Operations Control

C.

Technical Management

D.

Facilities Management

Question 40

The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Continual Service Improvement

B.

Service Strategy

C.

Service Design

D.

Service Transition

Question 41

Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did we get there?"

Options:

A.

Service Strategy

B.

Service Design

C.

Service Operation

D.

Service Transition

Question 42

Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

Options:

A.

Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output

B.

A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service

C.

A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred

D.

An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service

Question 43

What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?

Options:

A.

Customer / Business Needs

B.

Service Release

C.

Service Requirements

D.

Service Solution

Question 44

Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

Options:

A.

Services and Infrastructure

B.

Applications andInfrastructure

C.

Resources and Capabilities

D.

Utility and Warranty

Question 45

Service Acceptance criteria are used to?

Options:

A.

Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle

B.

Ensure Portfolio Management is in place

C.

Ensure delivery and support of a service

D.

Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported

Question 46

One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?

Options:

A.

Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

B.

Only requirements needed and agreed

C.

Only capabilities needed and agreed

D.

Only resources and capabilities needed

Question 47

Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?

1. Local Service Desk

2. Virtual Service Desk

3. IT Help Desk

4. Follow the Sun

Options:

A.

2, 3 and 4 only

B.

1,2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2 and 3 only

D.

1, 3 and 4 only

Question 48

What is the definition of an Alert?

Options:

A.

A type of Incident

B.

A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

C.

Anerror message to the user of an application

D.

An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures

Question 49

Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

Options:

A.

Where are we now?

B.

Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement

C.

Prepare for action

D.

Define what you should measure

Question 50

In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.

It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:

Options:

A.

Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line

B.

Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line

C.

Only manage Incidents effectivelyat the 3rd line

D.

Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line

Question 51

What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?

Options:

A.

Strategic service

B.

Delivered service

C.

Internal service

D.

External service

Question 52

Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?

1. Details of failed changes

2. Updates to the change schedule

3. Reviews of completed changes

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1 and 2only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1 and 3 only

Question 53

Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which stage of the service lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Service strategy

B.

Service transition

C.

Service operation

D.

Continual service improvement

Question 54

Which Functions are included in IT operations management?

Options:

A.

Network management and application management

B.

Technical management and change management

C.

IT operations control and facilities management

D.

Facilities management and release management

Question 55

Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes?

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Capacity management

C.

Service transition planning and support

D.

Release management

Question 56

Which of the following statement about the service owner is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own

B.

Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own

C.

Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which support the service they own

D.

Is accountable for a specific service within an organization

Question 57

The definitive media library is the responsibility of:

Options:

A.

Facilities management

B.

Access management

C.

Request fulfillment

D.

Service asset and configuration management

Question 58

Which process has the following objective “Establish new or changed services into supported environments within the predicted cost, time and resource estimates”?

Options:

A.

Service strategy

B.

Service transition planning and support

C.

Service level management

D.

Change management

Question 59

Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?

Options:

A.

Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests

B.

Menu-driven range of self help and service requests

C.

Web front-end

D.

A direct interface into the back end process handling software

Question 60

Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?

Options:

A.

Remediation planning

B.

Categorization

C.

Prioritization

D.

Review and close

Question 61

Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?

Options:

A.

To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services

B.

To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services

C.

To create and populate a service catalogue

D.

To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

Question 62

Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?

Options:

A.

Incident management

B.

Access management

C.

Change management

D.

Request fulfillment

Question 63

Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?

1. The services

2. The architectures

3. The configuration items

4. The processes

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1, 3 and 4 only

C.

2, 3 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Question 64

What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?

Options:

A.

Informational, scheduled, normal

B.

Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency

C.

Informational, warning, exception

D.

Warning, reactive, proactive

Question 65

The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?

Options:

A.

Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks

B.

Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk

C.

Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital

D.

Training of all staff and investment of capital

Question 66

Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard?

Options:

A.

The IT director

B.

The process owner

C.

The service owner

D.

The customer

Question 67

Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

Options:

A.

Technical management

B.

IT operations management

C.

Request fulfillment

D.

Applications management

Question 68

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?

Options:

A.

A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services

B.

A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together fora common purpose

C.

The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities

D.

Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Question 69

Which one of the following is NOT a valid purpose or objective of problem management?

Options:

A.

To prevent problems and resultant incidents

B.

To manage problems throughout their lifecycle

C.

To restore service to auser

D.

To eliminate recurring incidents

Question 70

Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The ECAB considers every high priority request for change (RFC)

B.

Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes

C.

The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may notbe time to call a full CAB

D.

The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director

Question 71

Which of the following do Technology metrics measure?

Options:

A.

Components

B.

Processes

C.

The end to end service

D.

Customer satisfaction

Question 72

Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models?

1) Roles and responsibilities

2) Template release and deployment

3) Supporting systems, tools and procedures.

4) Handover activities and responsibilities

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3 only.

B.

2, 3 and 4 only.

C.

All of the above

D.

1 and 4 only.

Question 73

What are the two major processes in Problem Management?

Options:

A.

Technical and Service

B.

Resource and Proactive

C.

Reactive and Technical

D.

Proactive and Reactive

Question 74

A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:

Options:

A.

TheRACI Model

B.

A Release Package

C.

A Request Model

D.

The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle

Question 75

In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:

Options:

A.

IT Infrastructure and Applications

B.

Services, technology and tools

C.

Goods provided by third parties to supportthe IT Services

D.

All assets belonging to the Service Provider

Question 76

Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the organization can continue to operatein the event of a major disruption or disaster

B.

To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers

C.

To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected from threats, damageor loss

D.

To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation

Question 77

Identify the input to the Problem Management process.

Options:

A.

Request for Change

B.

Problem Resolution

C.

Incident Records

D.

New Known Errors

Demo: 77 questions
Total 514 questions