A company's security team recently discovered a number of workstations that are at the end of life. The workstation vendor informs the team that the product is no longer supported and patches are no longer available The company is not prepared to cease its use of these workstations Which of the following would be the BEST method to protect these workstations from threats?
Deploying whitelisting to the identified workstations would be the best method to protect these workstations from threats. Whitelisting is a technique that allows only authorized applications, processes, or users to run or access a system or resource. Whitelisting can help limit the attack surface and prevent malware or unauthorized software from running on a system3. Deploying whitelisting to the workstations that are at the end of life can help mitigate the risk of exploitation due to lack of patches or support from the vendor.
The following output is from a tcpdump al the edge of the corporate network:
Which of the following best describes the potential security concern?
Encapsulated traffic may evade security monitoring and defenses by hiding or obfuscating the actual content or source of the traffic. Encapsulation is a technique that wraps data packets with additional headers or protocols to enable communication across different network types or layers. Encapsulation can be used for legitimate purposes, such as tunneling, VPNs, or NAT, but it can also be used by attackers to bypass security controls or detection mechanisms that are not able to inspect or analyze the encapsulated traffic .
The Chief information Officer of a large cloud software vendor reports that many employees are falling victim to phishing emails because they appear to come from other employees. Which of the following would BEST prevent this issue
DKIM, or DomainKeys Identified Mail, is an email authentication method that uses a digital signature to let the receiver of an email know that the message was sent and authorized by the owner of a domain1 DKIM helps prevent phishing emails that spoof or impersonate other domains by verifying the identity and integrity of the sender. DKIM works by adding a DKIM signature header to each outgoing email message, which contains a hash value of selected parts of the message and the domain name of the sender. The sender’s domain also publishes a public key in its DNS records, which can be used by the receiver to decrypt the DKIM signature and compare it with its own hash value of the message. If they match, it means that the message was not altered in transit and that it came from the claimed domain.
While reviewing abnormal user activity, a security analyst notices a user has the following fileshare activities:
Which of the following should the analyst do first?
The security incident response process is a set of procedures and guidelines that define how to identify, contain, analyze, and recover from security incidents that compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an organization’s assets or operations. Initiating the security incident response process for unauthorized access is the first and most appropriate action that the analyst should take, as it would allow the analyst to follow a structured and consistent approach to handle the situation and mitigate the impact of the incident1.
An email analysis system notifies a security analyst that the following message was quarantined and requires further review.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take?
The email message that was quarantined and requires further review is an example of a phishing attempt that tries to trick the recipient into buying gift cards for a fake urgent request from a senior executive. The security analyst should delete the email and block the sender to prevent further attempts from reaching other users in the organization. Releasing the email for delivery, contacting a purchasing agent to expedite, or purchasing the gift cards and submitting an expense report are actions that would fall for the phishing attempt and result in financial loss or reputation damage for the organization. Reference: https://www.csoonline.com/article/3444488/what-is-phishing-how-this-cyber-attack-works-and-how-to-prevent-it.html
A security analyst found an old version of OpenSSH running on a DMZ server and determined the following piece of code could have led to a command execution through an integer overflow;
Which of the following controls must be in place to prevent this vulnerability?
The security analyst should implement a control that uses built-in functions from libraries to check and handle long numbers properly. This will help prevent integer overflow vulnerabilities, which occur when a value is moved into a variable type too small to hold it. For example, if an integer variable can only store values up to 255, and a value of 256 is assigned to it, the variable will overflow and wrap around to 0. This can cause unexpected program behavior or lead to buffer overflow vulnerabilities if the overflowed value is used as an index or size for memory allocation1. Built-in functions from libraries can help avoid integer overflow by performing checks on the input values and the resulting values, and throwing exceptions or errors if they exceed the limits of the variable type2.
Which of the following is MOST important when developing a threat hunting program?
Understanding assets and categories of assets is most important when developing a threat hunting program. Assets are anything that have value to an organization, such as data, systems, networks, applications, devices, people, processes, or reputation. Categories of assets are groups of assets that share common characteristics or attributes, such as type, function, location, owner, or criticality. Understanding assets and categories of assets can help to identify and prioritize the potential targets and impact of threats in an organization. Understanding assets and categories of assets can also help to determine and apply appropriate security controls and measures for each asset or category. Understanding assets and categories of assets can also help to collect and analyze relevant data and indicators for each asset or category during threat hunting activities. Understanding penetration testing techniques (A) is not most important when developing a threat hunting program. Penetration testing techniques are methods or tools that are used to simulate attacks on a system or network to evaluate its security posture and identify vulnerabilities or weaknesses. Penetration testing techniques can help to validate and improve the security of an organization, but they are not directly related to threat hunting activities. Penetration testing techniques are reactive rather than proactive approaches to security. Understanding how to build correlation rules within a SIEM (B) is also not most important when developing a threat hunting program. Correlation rules are logic statements that define relationships or patterns between different events or data points in a system or network. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates data from various sources in an organization to provide security monitoring and alerting capabilities1. Correlation rules can help to detect and respond to known threats in an organization, but they are not sufficient for threat hunting activities. Correlation rules are based on predefined criteria rather than hypotheses or assumptions about unknown threats. Understanding security software technologies © is also not most important when developing a threat hunting program. Security software technologies are applications or programs that provide security functions or features for an organization, such as antivirus software, firewalls, encryption software, VPNs (Virtual Private Networks), etc2. Security software technologies can help to protect an organization from various threats, but they are not essential for threat hunting activities. Security software technologies are based on signatures or heuristics rather than indicators of compromise or behavioral analysis.
References: 1: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/technical-controls 2: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25888/security-development-lifecycle-sdl
A security analyst is reviewing the following Internet usage trend report:
Which of the following usernames should the security analyst investigate further?
The Internet usage trend report shows that User 4 has an unusually high amount of data downloaded compared to other users. User 4 downloaded 2.5 GB of data in one day, while the average data downloaded by other users was around 0.2 GB. This could indicate that User 4 is engaged in some suspicious or malicious activity, such as downloading unauthorized or illegal content, exfiltrating sensitive data, or installing malware. Therefore, the security analyst should investigate User 4 further to determine the nature and source of the data downloaded.
A security analyst implemented a solution that would analyze the attacks that the organization's firewalls failed to prevent. The analyst used the existing systems to enact the solution and executed the following command:
$ sudo nc —1 —v —e maildaemon.py 25 > caplog.txt
Which of the following solutions did the analyst implement?
The correct answer is D. Honeypot. A honeypot is a security mechanism designed to detect and deflect attempts at unauthorized use of information systems. In this case, the analyst has set up a system to listen on a network port that is commonly used for email traffic. The purpose of this honeypot is to attract attackers and allow the security analyst to observe their behavior and tactics. By monitoring the traffic that is captured in the caplog.txt file, the analyst can identify attacks that were not blocked by the organization’s firewalls1.
A. Log correlation is not correct. Log correlation is a process of analyzing and correlating data from multiple sources, such as firewalls, servers, applications, or devices, to identify patterns, trends, or anomalies. Log correlation can help to improve security visibility, detection, and response, but it does not describe the solution that the analyst implemented.
B. Crontab mail script is not correct. Crontab is a tool that allows users to schedule commands or scripts to run at specified times or intervals on a Linux system. A mail script is a script that can send or receive email messages using a mail server. A crontab mail script could be used to automate email tasks, such as sending reports or alerts, but it does not describe the solution that the analyst implemented.
C. Sinkhole is not correct. A sinkhole is a technique that redirects malicious or unwanted traffic to a controlled destination, such as a fake or isolated server. A sinkhole can help to prevent or mitigate the impact of attacks, such as botnets, malware, or phishing, by blocking or capturing the traffic. However, a sinkhole does not describe the solution that the analyst implemented.
1: CompTIA CySA+ Exam: Implementing a Firewall Analysis Solution
A security analyst is deploying a new application in the environment. The application needs to be integrated with several existing applications that contain SPI Pnor to the deployment, the analyst should conduct:
A PCI assessment should be conducted prior to the deployment of a new application that contains SPI (Sensitive Personal Information). A PCI assessment is an evaluation of how well an organization complies with the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), which is a set of requirements for protecting cardholder data. PCI DSS applies to any organization that stores, processes, or transmits cardholder data, such as credit card numbers, expiration dates, or security codes4. A PCI assessment can help identify and remediate any gaps or weaknesses in the security controls of an application that handles cardholder data.
During a forensic investigation, a security analyst reviews some Session Initiation Protocol packets that came from a suspicious IP address. Law enforcement requires access to a VoIP call
that originated from the suspicious IP address. Which of the following should the analyst use to accomplish this task?
Wireshark is a tool that can capture and analyze network traffic, including Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) and Voice over IP (VoIP) packets. The security analyst can use Wireshark to extract the audio data from the VoIP call that originated from the suspicious IP address and provide it to law enforcement. iptables, tcpdump, and Netflow are other tools that can manipulate or monitor network traffic, but they cannot extract audio data from VoIP packets. Reference: https://www.wireshark.org/docs/wsug_html_chunked/ChVoIPAnalysis.html
A security analyst observes a large amount of scanning activity coming from an IP address outside the organization's environment. Which of the following should the analyst do to block this activity?
A firewall is a device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Creating a firewall rule to block the IP address that is scanning the organization’s environment is an effective way to stop this activity and prevent potential attacks. Creating an IPS rule to block the subnet, sinkholing the IP address, or closing all unnecessary open ports are other possible actions, but they are not as specific or efficient as creating a firewall rule to block the IP address. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/small-business/resource-center/security/firewall.html
An information security analyst discovered a virtual machine server was compromised by an attacker. Which of the following should be the first steps to confirm and respond to the incident? (Select two).
These steps are the best to confirm and respond to the incident because they preserve the state of the compromised server for further analysis and evidence collection. Pausing the virtual machine prevents any further changes or damage by the attacker, while taking a snapshot creates a copy of the virtual machine’s memory and disk contents.
Which of the following BEST describes what an organizations incident response plan should cover regarding how the organization handles public or private disclosures of an incident?
The disclosure section of an organization’s incident response plan should cover how the organization handles public or private disclosures of an incident. The disclosure section should contain the organization’s legal and regulatory requirements regarding disclosures, such as the type, content, format, timing, and recipients of the disclosures. The disclosure section should also specify the roles and responsibilities of the personnel involved in the disclosure process, such as who is authorized to make or approve disclosures, who is responsible for communicating with internal and external stakeholders, and who is accountable for ensuring compliance with the disclosure requirements. The disclosure section should not focus on how to reduce the likelihood customers will leave due to the incident (A), as this is a business objective rather than a disclosure requirement. The disclosure section should not include the names and contact information of key employees who are needed for incident resolution ©, as this is an operational detail rather than a disclosure requirement. The disclosure section should not contain language explaining how the organization will reduce the likelihood of the incident from happening in the future (D), as this is a remediation action rather than a disclosure requirement.
A company's Chief Information Security Officer [CISO) is concerned about the integrity of some highly confidential files. Any changes to these files must be tied back to a specific authorized user's activity session. Which of the following is the best technique to address the ClSO's concerns?
Regularly use SHA-256 to hash the directory containing the sensitive information. Monitor the files for unauthorized changes. This option is the best technique to ensure the integrity of the files and tie any changes to a specific user session. Hashing is a process that generates a unique value for a given input, and any modification to the input will result in a different hash value. By using SHA-256, which is a secure hashing algorithm, the analyst can compare the hash values of the files before and after each user session and detect any unauthorized changes.
A network appliance manufacturer is building a new generation of devices and would like to include chipset security improvements. The management team wants the security team to implement a method to prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset. Which of the following would meet this objective?
The correct answer is C. eFUSE. An eFUSE is a type of electronic fuse that can be programmed to permanently alter the functionality or configuration of a chipset. An eFUSE can be used to prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset, by locking the firmware to a specific version or preventing unauthorized modifications. An eFUSE can also provide other benefits, such as anti-tampering, anti-counterfeiting, and device authentication1.
A. UEFI is not correct. UEFI stands for Unified Extensible Firmware Interface, and it is a standard that defines the software interface between an operating system and a platform firmware. UEFI can provide security features, such as secure boot, which verifies the integrity of the boot loader and prevents unauthorized code execution during the boot process. However, UEFI does not prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset2.
B. A hardware security module is not correct. A hardware security module (HSM) is a physical device that provides secure storage and processing of cryptographic keys and operations. An HSM can protect sensitive data and transactions, such as encryption, decryption, signing, or verification, from unauthorized access or tampering. However, an HSM does not prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset3.
D. Certificate signed updates are not correct. Certificate signed updates are a method of ensuring the authenticity and integrity of firmware updates by using digital certificates and signatures. Certificate signed updates can prevent malicious or corrupted firmware updates from being installed on the chipset, but they do not prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset.
1: What Is an eFUSE? 2: What Is UEFI? 3: What Is a Hardware Security Module (HSM)?
A risk assessment concludes that the perimeter network has the highest potential for compromise by an attacker, and it is labeled as a critical risk environment. Which of the following is a valid compensating control to reduce the volume of valuable information in the perimeter network that an attacker could gain using active reconnaissance techniques?
A valid compensating control to reduce the volume of valuable information in the perimeter network that an attacker could gain using active reconnaissance techniques is a control that demonstrates that firewall rules are peer reviewed for accuracy and approved before deployment. This control can help ensure that the firewall rules are configured correctly and securely, and that they do not allow unnecessary or unauthorized access to the perimeter network. The other options are not compensating controls or do not address the risk of active reconnaissance. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 14; https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-3/compensating-controls
Which of the following can detect vulnerable third-parly libraries before code deployment?
Static analysis is a method of analyzing the source code or binary code of an application without executing it. Static analysis can detect vulnerable third-party libraries before code deployment by scanning the code for references to known vulnerable libraries or versions and reporting any issues or risks12.
Impact analysis is a process of assessing the potential effects of a change on a system or service, such as performance, availability, security and compatibility. Impact analysis does not detect vulnerable third-party libraries before code deployment, but rather helps to evaluate and communicate the consequences of a change.
Dynamic analysis is a method of analyzing the behavior or performance of an application by executing it under various conditions or inputs. Dynamic analysis does not detect vulnerable third-party libraries before code deployment, but rather helps to identify any errors or defects that occur at runtime.
Protocol analysis is a method of examining the data exchanged between devices or applications over a network by capturing and interpreting the packets or messages. Protocol analysis does not detect vulnerable third-party libraries before code deployment, but rather helps to monitor and troubleshoot network communication.
A digital forensics investigator works from duplicate images to preserve the integrity of the original evidence. Which of the following types of media are most volatile and should be preserved? (Select two).
Memory cache and swap volume are types of media that are most volatile and should be preserved during a digital forensics investigation. Volatile media are those that store data temporarily and lose their contents when the power is turned off or interrupted. Memory cache is a small and fast memory that stores frequently used data or instructions for faster access by the processor. Swap volume is a part of the hard disk that is used as an extension of the memory when the memory is full or low .
A security analyst is analyzing the following output from the Spider tab of OWASP ZAP after a vulnerability scan was completed:
Which of the following options can the analyst conclude based on the provided output?
The output shows the result of using OWASP ZAP’s Spider tab after a vulnerability scan was completed. The Spider tab allows users to crawl web applications and discover pages and resources that can be assessed for vulnerabilities. The output shows that the scanner discovered various pages under different directories, such as /admin/, /blog/, /contact/, etc., as well as some parameters and forms that can be used for testing inputs and outputs. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://www.zaproxy.org/docs/desktop/start/features/spider/
Which of the following is an advantage of SOAR over SIEM?
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) reduces the amount of human intervention required, which is an advantage over SIEM (Security Information and Event Management). SIEM is a tool that collects, analyzes, and correlates data from various sources, such as logs, alerts, and events, to provide security monitoring and incident detection. SIEM can help security teams identify and prioritize potential threats, but it still requires manual intervention to investigate and respond to incidents2. SOAR is a tool that builds on SIEM by automating and orchestrating various security tasks and workflows, such as incident response, threat hunting, and threat intelligence. SOAR can help security teams reduce manual effort, improve efficiency, and accelerate incident resolution3.
A current, validated DLP solution Is now in place because of a previous data breach However, a new data breach has taken place The following symptoms were observed shorty after a recent sales meeting:
* Sensitive corporate documents appeared on the dark web.
* Unusually large packets of data were being sent out.
Which of the following is most likely occurring?
This is most likely occurring based on the symptoms observed after a recent sales meeting. An insider threat is a person who has legitimate access to an organization’s network or data and uses it for malicious purposes, such as stealing, leaking, or sabotaging information. The symptoms suggest that someone from the sales team or someone who attended the meeting has copied sensitive corporate documents and uploaded them to the dark web using large data packets.
Which of the following is a reason for correctly identifying APTs that might be targeting an organization?
APTs utilize methods and technologies differently than other threats. APTs stand for Advanced Persistent Threats, and they are sophisticated and stealthy attacks that target specific organizations or networks over a long period of time, often with political or financial motives. APTs utilize methods and technologies differently than other threats, such as using custom-made malware, exploiting zero-day vulnerabilities, leveraging social engineering techniques, or employing multiple vectors of attack. APTs can also evade detection by existing security tools or controls, by using encryption, obfuscation, proxy servers, or other techniques to hide their activities or communications.
A help desk technician inadvertently sent the credentials of the company's CRM n clear text to an employee's personal email account. The technician then reset the employee's account using the appropriate process and the employee's corporate email, and notified the security team of the incident According to the incident response procedure, which of the following should the security team do NEXT?
The security team should perform postmortem data correlation next after receiving notification of the incident from the help desk technician. Postmortem data correlation is an activity that involves analyzing data from various sources (such as logs, alerts, reports, etc.) to identify root causes, impacts, indicators of compromise (IoCs), lessons learned, and recommendations for improvement after an incident3. Postmortem data correlation can help the security team to:
Which of the following BEST describes how logging and monitoring work when entering into a public cloud relationship with a service provider?
A service level agreement (SLA) and a contract are documents that define the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved in a public cloud relationship. Logging and monitoring are important security activities that should be clearly specified in the SLA and contract, such as who will perform them, what data will be collected, how long will it be stored, and how will it be accessed or shared. Logging and monitoring are still needed in a public cloud environment, but they are not done solely by the data owners or the service provider. Reference: https://www.csoonline.com/article/2121595/what-to-look-for-in-a-cloud-security-sla.html
A security analyst needs to recommend the best approach to test a new application that simulates abnormal user behavior to find software bugs. Which of the following would best accomplish this task?
Fuzzing is a technique that involves sending random, malformed, or unexpected inputs to an application to trigger errors, crashes, or vulnerabilities. Fuzzing can be used to test the robustness and security of software, especially when the source code is not available or the input format is complex1. Fuzzing can also simulate abnormal user behavior, such as entering invalid data, clicking on random buttons, or sending malicious requests2.
Fuzzing tools are software programs that automate the process of generating and sending inputs to the application under test. There are different types of fuzzing tools, such as black-box fuzzers, white-box fuzzers, and grey-box fuzzers, depending on the level of information and feedback they have about the application1. Some examples of fuzzing tools are AFL, Peach, and [Sulley].
Polymorphic methods are techniques that allow fuzzing tools to modify or mutate the inputs in different ways, such as changing the length, value, type, or structure of the data. Polymorphic methods can increase the diversity and effectiveness of the inputs and help discover more bugs or vulnerabilities in the application .
Therefore, using fuzzing tools with polymorphic methods would be the best approach to test a new application that simulates abnormal user behavior to find software bugs. This approach would generate a large number of inputs that cover various scenarios and edge cases and expose any flaws or weaknesses in the application’s functionality or security.
A security engineer is reviewing security products that identify malicious actions by users as part of a company's insider threat program. Which of the following is the most appropriate product category for this purpose?
UEBA stands for User and Entity Behavior Analytics, which is a category of security products that use machine learning and statistical analysis to identify malicious actions by users or entities on a network. UEBA products can detect anomalous or suspicious behaviors that deviate from normal patterns or baselines, such as data exfiltration, privilege escalation, unauthorized access, insider threats, or compromised accounts. UEBA products can also provide alerts, reports, or recommendations for response actions based on the detected behaviors.
The majority of a company's employees have stated they are unable to perform their job duties due to outdated workstations, so the company has decided to institute BYOD. Which of the following would a security analyst MOST likely recommend for securing the proposed solution?
VDI means virtual desktop interface. Using VDI, you can maintain a standard image and remove the threat of an infected machine plugging into your network.
A firewalled environment for client devices and a secure VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) for BYOD users would be the most likely recommendation for securing the proposed solution. A firewalled environment can help isolate and protect the client devices from unauthorized network access or attacks. A secure VDI can provide a virtualized desktop environment for BYOD users that can be centrally managed and controlled by the organization. A VDI can also prevent data leakage or malware infection from BYOD devices, as the data and applications are stored on the server side rather than on the device itself5.
When of the following techniques can be implemented to safeguard the confidentiality of sensitive information while allowing limited access to authorized individuals?
Masking is a technique that involves replacing or hiding some parts of sensitive information with symbols or characters, such as asterisks (*) or Xs. Masking can help safeguard the confidentiality of sensitive information while allowing limited access to authorized individuals, because it obscures the original data without altering its format or structure. For example, masking can be used to hide some digits of a credit card number or a social security number. Deidentification, hashing, or salting are other techniques that involve transforming or modifying sensitive information, but they do not allow limited access to authorized individuals. Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/ims/14.1?topic=masking-data
A Chief Information Security Officer has requested a security measure be put in place to redirect certain traffic on the network. Which of the following would best resolve this issue?
Sinkholing is a technique for manipulating data flow in a network; you redirect traffic from its intended destination to a server of your choosing. It can be used maliciously, to steer legitimate traffic away from its intended recipient, but security professionals more commonly use sinkholing as a tool for research and reacting to attacks1.
For example, sinkholing can be used to redirect traffic from a botnet or a malware-infected host to a server under the control of the defender, where the traffic can be analyzed, blocked, or neutralized. This can help identify and isolate compromised devices, prevent command-and-control communication, and disrupt malicious activities2.
The other options are not the best solutions for the following reasons:
An information security analyst is compiling data from a recent penetration test and reviews the following output:
The analyst wants to obtain more information about the web-based services that are running on the target. Which of the following commands would most likely provide the needed information?
Telnet is a command-line tool that can be used to connect to a remote host on a specified port, and to send or receive data over that connection. Telnet can be used to obtain more information about the web-based services that are running on the target, by interacting with them or observing their responses. For example, telnet 10.79.95.173 443 would connect to the target on port 443, which is commonly used for HTTPS or SSL/TLS encrypted web traffic.
Which of the following organizational initiatives would be MOST impacted by data severighty issues?
Data sovereignty is the idea that data are subject to the laws and governance structures of the nation where they are collected1 Data sovereignty issues can impact organizational initiatives that involve transferring or storing data across different jurisdictions, such as moving to a cloud-based environment. Cloud computing involves using remote servers and networks to store and process data, which may be located in different countries or regions with different data protection laws and regulations2 This can create challenges for organizations that need to comply with data sovereignty requirements of their own country or their customers’ countries, such as data localization, data access, data security, data breach notification, etc3
References: 1 Data sovereignty - Wikipedia 2 What Is Data Sovereignty? Everything You Need to Know - Permission.io 3 What is data sovereignty? - IONOS
A security analyst notices the following proxy log entries:
Which of the following is the user attempting to do based on the log entries?
Scanning the network is what the user is attempting to do based on the log entries. The log entries show that the user is sending ping requests to various IP addresses on different ports using a proxy server. Ping requests are a common network diagnostic tool that can be used to test network connectivity and latency by sending packets of data and measuring their response time. However, ping requests can also be used by attackers to scan the network and discover active hosts, open ports, or potential vulnerabilities .
A company experienced a security compromise due to the inappropriate disposal of one of its hardware appliances. Sensitive information stored on the hardware appliance was not removed prior to disposal. Which of the following is the BEST manner in which to dispose of the hardware appliance?
Secure and thorough disposal can involve deleting or wiping all data from the hardware appliances, physically destroying or shredding them, or recycling them through certified vendors or programs. Compliance with company policies can help to ensure that the disposal follows the best practices and standards for data protection and environmental responsibility .
References: : https://www.bestbuy.com/site/services/recycling/pcmcat149900050025.c?id=pcmcat149900050025 : https://www.epa.gov/recycle/electronics-donation-and-recycling : https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatacenter/tip/A-6-step-guide-for-hardware-disposal
A forensic analyst is conducting an investigation on a compromised server Which of the following should the analyst do first to preserve evidence''
A forensic analyst is conducting an investigation on a compromised server. The first step that the analyst should do to preserve evidence is to back up all log files and audit trails. This will ensure that the analyst has a copy of the original data that can be used for analysis and verification. Backing up the log files and audit trails will also prevent any tampering or modification of the evidence by the attacker or other parties. The other options are not the first steps or may alter or destroy the evidence. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 16; https://www.nist.gov/publications/guide-collection-and-preservation-digital-evidence
An analyst Is reviewing a web developer's workstation for potential compromise. While examining the workstation's hosts file, the analyst observes the following:
Which of the following hosts file entries should the analyst use for further investigation?
The hosts file is a text file that maps hostnames to IP addresses, and it can be used to override DNS resolution. The hosts file entries that should be used for further investigation are the ones that point to external or suspicious IP addresses, such as 198.51.100.5, which is a reserved IP address for documentation purposes. The other entries are either loopback addresses (::1 and 127.0.0.1) or internal network addresses (192.168.3.249), which are less likely to be malicious.
An analyst is responding to an incident within a cloud infrastructure Based on the logs and traffic analysis, the analyst thinks a container has been compromised Which of the following should Ihe analyst do FIRST?
The analyst should isolate the container from production using a predefined policy template first. Isolating the container is a containment measure that can help prevent the spread of the compromise to other containers or systems in the cloud infrastructure. Containment is an important step in the incident response process, as it can limit the impact and damage of an incident. Using a predefined policy template can help automate and standardize the isolation process, ensuring that it is done quickly and consistently1.
Which of the following is a reason to use a nsk-based cybersecunty framework?
A risk-based cybersecurity framework is a set of guidelines and best practices that helps an organization identify, assess, prioritize, and mitigate cyber risks. By using a risk-based approach, an organization can allocate its resources more efficiently and effectively to address the most critical and likely cyber risks. A risk-based approach does not always require quantifying each cyber risk, nor is it driven by regulatory compliance or prioritizes vulnerability remediation by threat hunting. Reference: https://www.nist.gov/cyberframework/risk-management
A security analyst is reviewing a firewall usage report that contains traffic generated over the last 30 minutes in order to locate unusual traffic patterns:
Which of the following source IP addresses does the analyst need to investigate further?
The security analyst needs to investigate further the source IP address 10.50.180.49. This IP address belongs to a private network that is not routable on the internet. However, the firewall usage report shows that this IP address has sent traffic to an external destination on port 443 (HTTPS). This could indicate that the IP address is spoofed or compromised by an attacker who is using it to exfiltrate data or communicate with a command-and-control server.
A threat intelligence group issued a warning to its members regarding an observed increase in attacks performed by a specific threat actor and the related loCs. Which is of the following is (he best method to operationalize these loCs to detect future attacks?
This is the best method to operationalize these loCs to detect future attacks because it allows the company to collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on the indicators of compromise (loCs) from various sources and systems. A SIEM stands for security information and event management, which is a software or service that provides centralized visibility and management of security events and data.
A company notices unknown devices connecting to the internal network and would like to implement a solution to block all non-corporate managed machines. Which of the following solutions would be best to accomplish this goal?
This solution is the best to accomplish the goal of blocking all non-corporate managed machines from connecting to the internal network. NAC stands for network access control, which is a method of enforcing policies and rules on network devices based on their identity, role, location, and other attributes. 802.1X is a standard for port-based network access control, which authenticates devices before granting them access to a network port or wireless access point.
An application developer needs help establishing a digital certificate for a new application. Which of the following illustrates a certificate management best practice?
The best practice for establishing a digital certificate for a new application is to ensure the certificate is requested from a trusted CA. A CA stands for Certificate Authority, and it is an entity that issues and verifies digital certificates, which are electronic documents that contain a public key and a digital signature that prove the identity and authenticity of an application, a website, or a person. Requesting a certificate from a trusted CA can help ensure that the certificate is valid, secure, and recognized by other parties.
A security analyst needs to provide a copy of a hard drive for forensic analysis. Which of the following would allow the analyst to perform the task?
Option C shows a device that can perform a forensic copy of a hard drive. A forensic copy, also known as a forensic image or a bit-stream image, is an exact, unaltered digital copy of a piece of digital evidence. A forensic copy captures everything on the hard drive, including active and latent data, and preserves the integrity of the original evidence. A forensic copy can be used for forensic analysis without risking any changes to the original drive1. Option C shows a device that can connect to two hard drives and create a forensic copy from one drive to another using a write-blocker. A write-blocker is a tool that prevents any data from being written to the destination drive, ensuring that only a read-only copy is made2.
A security analyst is concerned about sensitive data living on company file servers following a zero-day attack that nearly resulted in a breach of millions of customer records. The after action report indicates a lack of controls around the file servers that contain sensitive data. Which of the following DLP considerations would best help the analyst to classify and address the sensitive data on the file servers?
Use data-at-rest scans to locate and identify sensitive data. This option is the best DLP consideration for addressing the sensitive data on the file servers. Data-at-rest scans are performed on data that is stored on a device or a network, such as file servers, and can help identify and classify sensitive data based on predefined policies or rules. The other options are not relevant for this scenario, as they either deal with data in transit (network DLP appliances), data in use (endpoint DLP agents), or cloud-based data (CASB device).
Which of the following is the BEST way to gather patch information on a specific server?
A custom script is a piece of code that can be written to perform a specific task or automate a process. A custom script can be used to gather patch information on a specific server by querying the server’s operating system, registry, or patch management software and retrieving the relevant data. A custom script can be more flexible and efficient than other methods, such as Event Viewer, SCAP software, or CI/CD, which may not provide the exact information needed or may require additional steps or tools.
Which of following allows Secure Boot to be enabled?
UEFI, or Unified Extensible Firmware Interface, is a specification that defines the software interface between an operating system and platform firmware. UEFI replaces the legacy BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) interface that was used to boot and configure computers. UEFI provides several advantages over BIOS, such as faster boot times, better security features, larger disk support, graphical user interface, etc. One of the security features that UEFI supports is Secure Boot, which is a mechanism that ensures that only authorized software can run during the boot process. Secure Boot prevents unauthorized or malicious code from loading or executing before the operating system starts. Secure Boot works by verifying the digital signature of each piece of boot software against a database of trusted keys stored in UEFI firmware. If the signature is valid, the software is allowed to run; otherwise, it is blocked or rejected.
After a remote command execution incident occurred on a web server, a security analyst found the following piece of code in an XML file:
Which of the following it the BEST solution to mitigate this type of attack?
The piece of code in the XML file is an example of a command injection attack, which is a type of attack that exploits insufficient input validation or output encoding to execute arbitrary commands on a server or system2 The attacker can inject malicious commands into an XML element that is processed by an XML handler on the server, and cause the server to execute those commands. The best solution to mitigate this type of attack is to implement a better level of user input filters and content sanitization, which means checking and validating any user input before processing it, and removing or encoding any potentially harmful characters or commands.
A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is concerned the company will be exposed to data sovereignty issues as a result of some new privacy regulations to help mitigate this risk. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to implement an appropriate technical control. Which of the following would meet the requirement?
Data Sovereignty means that data is subject to the laws and regulations of the geographic location where that data is collected and processed. Data sovereignty is a country-specific requirement that data must remain within the borders of the jurisdiction where it originated. At its core, data sovereignty is about protecting sensitive, private data and ensuring it remains under the control of its owner. You're only worried about that if you're in multiple locations. . https://www.virtru.com/blog/gdpr-data-sovereignty-matters-globally
Geographic access requirements are an appropriate technical control to implement to mitigate data sovereignty issues. Data sovereignty issues arise when data is subject to different laws and regulations depending on where it is stored or processed. For example, some countries may have stricter data protection or privacy laws than others, or may impose restrictions on cross-border data transfers. Geographic access requirements can help ensure that data is only accessed from locations that comply with the applicable laws and regulations, and prevent unauthorized access from locations that do not.
A security analyst is reviewing the following log entries to identify anomalous activity:
Which of the following attack types is occurring?
A directory traversal attack is a type of web application attack that exploits insufficient input validation or improper configuration to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope of the web server. The log entries given in the question show several requests that contain “…/” sequences in the URL, which indicate an attempt to move up one level in the directory structure. For example, the request “/images/…/…/etc/passwd” tries to access the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information on Linux systems. If successful, this attack could allow an attacker to read, modify, or execute files on the web server that are not meant to be accessible.
A developer downloaded and attempted to install a file transfer application in which the installation package is bundled with acKvare. The next-generation antivirus software prevented the file from executing, but it did not remove the file from the device. Over the next few days, more developers tried to download and execute the offending file. Which of the following changes should be made to the security tools to BEST remedy the issue?
Blocking the download of the file via the web proxy is the best change to make to the security tools to remedy the issue. A web proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client and a web server, filtering or modifying requests and responses according to predefined rules1. Blocking the download of the file via the web proxy can prevent developers from accessing and executing the offending file that is bundled with adware. This can reduce the risk of infection or compromise of the developer workstations and improve their performance and security. Blacklisting the hash in the next-generation antivirus system (A) is not the best change to make to the security tools to remedy the issue. Blacklisting is a technique that involves blocking or denying access to known malicious or unwanted entities based on their identifiers, such as hashes, IP addresses, domains, etc2. Blacklisting the hash in the next-generation antivirus system can prevent developers from executing the offending file that is bundled with adware, but it does not prevent them from downloading it. This can still consume network bandwidth and disk space and expose developers to potential threats. Manually deleting the file from each of the workstations (B) is not the best change to make to the security tools to remedy the issue. Manually deleting the file from each of the workstations can remove the offending file that is bundled with adware, but it does not prevent developers from downloading it again. This can be a time-consuming and inefficient process that requires human intervention and coordination. Removing administrative rights from all developer workstations © is not the best change to make to the security tools to remedy the issue. Removing administrative rights from all developer workstations can limit developers’ ability to install or execute unauthorized or malicious applications, such as adware, but it does not prevent them from downloading them. This can also affect developers’ productivity and functionality by restricting their access to legitimate applications or settings.
References: 1: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/technical-controls 2: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25888/security-development-lifecycle-sdl
A security analyst discovers suspicious host activity while performing monitoring activities. The analyst pulls a packet capture for the activity and sees the following:
Which of the following describes what has occurred?
The packet capture shows that the host sent a Client Hello message to utoftor.com on port 443. This message is part of the TLS (Transport Layer Security) handshake protocol, which is used to establish a secure connection between a client and a server1. The Client Hello message contains information such as the supported TLS version, cipher suites, and extensions that the client can use for the secure connection. The server is expected to respond with a Server Hello message that selects the parameters for the secure connection. However, the packet capture does not show any response from the server, which means that the host only attempted to make a secure connection to utoftor.com, but did not succeed. The host did not download (B) or reject (D) any application from utoftor.com.
An organizational policy requires one person to input accounts payable and another to do accounts receivable. A separate control requires one person to write a check and another person to sign all checks greater than $5,000 and to get an additional signature for checks greater than $10,000. Which of the following controls has the organization implemented?
Segregation of duties is a security control that requires multiple people to be involved with completing a task. This helps prevent fraud, as it ensures that no one individual has the ability to commit fraud or make mistakes without other people being aware of it
Which of the following best explains why it is important for companies to implement both privacy and security policies?
The correct answer is D. Both policies have some overlap, but the differences can have regulatory consequences. Privacy and security policies are both important for companies to protect their data and comply with various laws and regulations. However, privacy and security policies are not the same, and they have different goals and requirements.
Privacy policies are nontechnical controls that define how a company collects, uses, shares, and protects personal information from its customers, employees, or partners. Privacy policies are based on the principles of data minimization, consent, transparency, and accountability. Privacy policies aim to respect the rights and preferences of data subjects and comply with different privacy regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA)1.
Security policies are technical or nontechnical controls that define how a company protects its data and systems from unauthorized access, modification, or destruction. Security policies are based on the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Security policies aim to prevent or mitigate the impact of cyberattacks and comply with different security standards, such as the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) or the ISO/IEC 27000 series2.
Which of the following are important reasons for performing proactive threat-hunting activities7 (Select two).
Proactive threat-hunting is the process of actively searching for unknown threats in the network, rather than waiting for alerts or indicators of compromise. Some of the important reasons for performing proactive threat-hunting activities are:
During an Incident, it Is determined that a customer database containing email addresses, first names, and last names was exfiltrated. Which ot the following should the security analyst do NEXT?
An incident communications process is a set of procedures that defines how to communicate with internal and external stakeholders during and after an incident, such as customers, employees, management, regulators and media. An incident communications process can help to provide accurate, timely and consistent information about the incident, its impact and the actions taken to resolve it. An incident communications process can also help to maintain trust and reputation, comply with legal obligations and prevent misinformation or confusion3 .
A security officer needs to find the most cost-effective solution to the current data privacy and protection gap found in the last security assessment. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?
A data minimization plan is a strategy that aims to reduce the amount and type of data that an organization collects, stores, and processes. It can help improve data privacy and protection by limiting the exposure and impact of a data breach or loss. Creating a data minimization plan is the best recommendation for a security officer who needs to find the most cost-effective solution to the current data privacy and protection gap. Requiring users to sign NDAs, adding access control requirements, or implementing a data loss prevention solution are other possible solutions, but they are not as cost-effective as creating a data minimization plan. Reference: https://www.csoonline.com/article/3603898/data-minimization-what-is-it-and-how-to-implement-it.html
An incident response plan requires systems that contain critical data to be triaged first in the event of a compromise. Which of the following types of data would most likely be classified as critical?
PII stands for personally identifiable information, and it is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate a specific individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, or biometric data. PII data is considered critical because it can be used by attackers to commit identity theft, fraud, or other crimes. PII data is also subject to various laws and regulations that require organizations to protect it from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure1.
A new variant of malware is spreading on the company network using TCP 443 to contact its command-and-control server The domain name used for callback continues to change, and the analyst is unable to predict future domain name variance Which of the following actions should the analyst take to stop malicious communications with the LEAST disruption to service?
A sinkhole is a technique that redirects malicious network traffic to a controlled destination, such as a fake server or a black hole. A sinkhole can be used to stop malicious communications with a command-and-control server by preventing the malware from reaching its intended destination. A high entropy level means that the sinkhole can generate random domain names that match the changing domain name used by the malware for callback. Blocking TCP/443 at the edge router, disabling TCP/53 at the perimeter firewall, or configuring the DNS forwarders to use recursion are other possible actions that could stop malicious communications, but they could also disrupt legitimate services that use those protocols or settings. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/dns-sinkholing.html
A security analyst is reviewing port scan data that was collected over the course of several months. The following data represents the trends:
Which of the following is the BEST action for the security analyst to take after analyzing the trends?
According to the CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Study guide, the best action for the security analyst to take after analyzing the trends is to investigate why the number of open SSH ports varied during the six months. This could indicate that malicious actors are attempting to gain access to the system, and it would be important to find out the root cause of this activity in order to prevent further intrusions. Additionally, raising a concern to a supervisor regarding possible malicious use of port 8443 would also be a prudent step, as this port is often used by attackers. As stated in the study guide, "Monitoring network ports and traffic can provide insight into suspicious activity and may be necessary to identify malicious activities". Additionally, "Ports can be used to gain unauthorized access to a system, so it is important to monitor the ports and to take steps to ensure that only necessary ports are open".
An incident response team detected malicious software that could have gained access to credit card data. The incident response team was able to mitigate significant damage and implement corrective actions. By having incident response mechanisms in place. Which of the following should be notified for lessons learned?
Lessons learned is a critical stage of incident response that involves evaluating the effectiveness of the response, identifying gaps and areas for improvement, and updating the incident response plan accordingly1. Company leadership should be involved in this process to ensure they are aware of the incident, its impact, and the actions taken to prevent or mitigate future incidents. Additionally, company leadership can provide support and guidance for implementing the recommendations from the lessons learned session2.
An organization is concerned about the security posture of vendors with access to its facilities and systems. The organization wants to implement a vendor review process to ensure \hi> policies implemented by vendors are in line with its own. Which of the following will provide the highest assurance of compliance?
An independent third-party audit report can provide the highest assurance of compliance with the organization’s policies by vendors, as it involves an objective and unbiased evaluation of the vendor’s security posture and practices by an external auditor who follows established standards and criteria. An independent third-party audit report can help verify if the vendor meets the organization’s requirements and expectations, as well as identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed.
A routine vulnerability scan detected a known vulnerability in a critical enterprise web application. Which of the following would be the BEST next step?
A routine vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing known vulnerabilities in a system or network using automated tools or software3 A vulnerability scan does not necessarily mean that there is an active threat or exploit on the system or network, but rather that there are potential weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. The best next step after a routine vulnerability scan detected a known vulnerability in a critical enterprise web application is to evaluate the risk and criticality of the vulnerability, which means assessing the likelihood and impact of an exploit on the web application, and prioritizing the remediation actions based on the severity and urgency of the vulnerability.
An internally developed file-monitoring system identified the following except as causing a program to crash often:
Which of the following should a security analyst recommend to fix the issue?
The security analyst should recommend replacing the strcpy function with a safer alternative. The strcpy function is a C library function that copies a string from one buffer to another. However, this function does not check the size of the destination buffer, which can lead to buffer overflow vulnerabilities if the source string is longer than the destination buffer. Buffer overflow vulnerabilities can allow attackers to execute arbitrary code or crash the program. A safer alternative to strcpy is strncpy, which limits the number of characters copied to the size of the destination buffer.
A technician working at company.com received the following email:
After looking at the above communication, which of the following should the technician recommend to the security team to prevent exposure of sensitive information and reduce the risk of corporate data being stored on non-corporate assets?
An email banner is a message that is added to the top or bottom of an email to provide some information or warning to the recipient. An email banner should be implemented to identify emails coming from external sources to prevent exposure of sensitive information and reduce the risk of corporate data being stored on non-corporate assets. An email banner can help employees recognize phishing or spoofing attempts and avoid clicking on malicious links or attachments. It can also remind employees not to share confidential information with external parties or forward corporate emails to personal accounts. The other options are not relevant or effective for this purpose. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 13; https://www.csoonline.com/article/3235970/what-is-spoofing-definition-and-how-to-prevent-it.html
A security analyst is investigating a compromised Linux server. The analyst issues the ps command and receives the following output:
Which of the following commands should the administrator run next to further analyze the compromised system?
/bin/ls -1 /proc/1301/exe is the command that will show the absolute path to the executed binary file associated with the process ID 1301, which is ./usr/sbin/sshd. This information can help the security analyst determine if the binary is an official version and has not been modified, which could be an indicator of a compromise. /proc/1301/exe is a special symbolic link that points to the executable file that was used to start the process 1301 .
A company needs to expand Its development group due to an influx of new feature requirements (rom Its customers. To do so quickly, the company is using Junior-level developers to fill in as needed. The company has found a number of vulnerabilities that have a direct correlation to the code contributed by the junior-level developers. Which of the following controls would best help to reduce the number of software vulnerabilities Introduced by this situation?
This control would best help to reduce the number of software vulnerabilities introduced by this situation because it ensures that code quality and security standards are met before deploying to production. Senior-level developers can provide feedback, guidance, and corrections to junior-level developers and catch any errors or flaws in their code.
A security analyst discovers the company's website is vulnerable to cross-site scripting. Which of the following solutions will best remedy the vulnerability?
Server-side input validation is a solution that can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities by checking and filtering any user input that is sent to the server before rendering it on a web page. Server-side input validation can help to ensure that the user input conforms to the expected format, length and type, and does not contain any malicious characters or syntax that may alter the logic or behavior of the web page. Server-side input validation can also reject or sanitize any input that does not meet the validation criteria .
Which of the following is MOST dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test?
The testing is outside the contractual scope is the most dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test. A contractual scope defines the boundaries and limitations of the testing, such as the target systems, networks, applications, methods, techniques, tools, time frame, and deliverables. Testing outside the contractual scope can violate the agreement between the tester and the client and cause legal or ethical issues. Testing outside the contractual scope can also damage or disrupt the client environment by affecting systems, networks, applications, or data that are not authorized or intended for testing. Testing outside the contractual scope can also compromise the validity and reliability of the test results and recommendations. There is a longer period of time to assess the environment (A) is not necessarily dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test. A longer period of time can allow for more thorough and comprehensive testing and analysis of the vulnerabilities and risks in the client environment. However, a longer period of time can also increase the exposure and likelihood of detection by attackers or defenders. There is a shorter period of time to assess the environment © is also not necessarily dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test. A shorter period of time can reduce the exposure and likelihood of detection by attackers or defenders. However, a shorter period of time can also limit the depth and breadth of testing and analysis of the vulnerabilities and risks in the client environment. No status reports are included with the assessment (D) is not dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test. Status reports are documents that provide updates on the progress and findings of the testing to the client or stakeholders. Status reports can help to communicate effectively and transparently with the client or stakeholders and address any issues or concerns that may arise during the testing. However, status reports do not directly affect the client environment or its security.
A security analyst responds to a series of events surrounding sporadic bandwidth consumption from an endpoint device. The security analyst then identifies the following additional details:
• Bursts of network utilization occur approximately every seven days.
• The content being transferred appears to be encrypted or obfuscated.
• A separate but persistent outbound TCP connection from the host to infrastructure in a third-party cloud is in place.
• The HDD utilization on the device grows by 10GB to 12GB over the course of every seven days.
• Single file sizes are 10GB.
Which of the following describes the most likely cause of the issue?
data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from an organization’s network to an external destination, usually for malicious purposes such as espionage, sabotage, or theft. The details given in the question suggest that data exfiltration is occurring from an endpoint device. The bursts of network utilization every seven days indicate periodic data transfers. The content being transferred appears to be encrypted or obfuscated to avoid detection or analysis. The persistent outbound TCP connection from the host to infrastructure in a third-party cloud indicates a possible command and control channel for an attacker. The HDD utilization on the device grows by 10GB to 12GB over the course of every seven days, and single file sizes are 10GB, indicating that large amounts of data are being collected and compressed before being exfiltrated.
A company is building a new fabrication plant and designing its production lines based on the products it manufactures and the networks to support them. The security engineer has the following requirements:
• Each production line must be secured using a single posture.
• Each production line must only communicate with the other lines in a least privilege method.
• Access to each production line from the rest of the network must be strictly controlled.
To best provide the protection that meets these requirements, each product line should be:
Logical segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller, isolated segments based on logical criteria, such as function, role, or application. Logical segmentation can be implemented using various technologies, such as VLANs, subnets, virtual firewalls, or software-defined networking (SDN). Logical segmentation can enhance the security of a network by reducing the attack surface, limiting the lateral movement of threats, enforcing the principle of least privilege, and facilitating the monitoring and auditing of network traffic12.
Firewall is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Firewall can be deployed at the network perimeter or within the network to create internal zones or segments. Firewall can protect a network from unauthorized access, malicious attacks, or data exfiltration by allowing or blocking traffic based on the source, destination, port, protocol, or application3 .
To best provide the protection that meets the requirements of the security engineer, each product line should be logically segmented and firewalled to control inbound and outbound connectivity. This way, each product line can be secured using a single posture that is consistent and manageable. Each product line can also communicate with the other lines in a least privilege method by allowing only the necessary traffic and blocking the rest. Access to each product line from the rest of the network can be strictly controlled by applying firewall rules that restrict or limit the traffic based on the business needs.
As part of the senior leadership team's ongoing nsk management activities the Chief Information Security Officer has tasked a security analyst with coordinating the right training and testing methodology to respond to new business initiatives or significant changes to existing ones The management team wants to examine a new business process that would use existing infrastructure to process and store sensitive data Which of the following would be appropnate for the security analyst to coordinate?
Threat modeling is a process that helps identify and analyze the potential threats and vulnerabilities of a system or process. It can help evaluate the security risks and mitigation strategies of a new business process that would use existing infrastructure to process and store sensitive data. A black-box penetration testing engagement, a tabletop exercise, or a business impact analysis are other methods that can be used to assess the security or resilience of a system or process, but they are not as appropriate as threat modeling for coordinating the right training and testing methodology to respond to new business initiatives or significant changes to existing ones. Reference: https://owasp.org/www-community/Application_Threat_Modeling
A user reports a malware alert to the help desk. A technician verities the alert, determines the workstation is classified as a low-severity device, and uses network controls to block access. The technician then assigns the ticket to a security analyst who will complete the eradication and recovery processes. Which of the following should the security analyst do next?
Sanitizing the workstation and verifying countermeasures are restored are part of the eradication and recovery processes that the security analyst should perform next. Eradication is the process of removing malware or other threats from the affected systems, while recovery is the process of restoring normal operations and functionality to the affected systems. Sanitizing the workstation can involve deleting or wiping any malicious files or programs, while verifying countermeasures are restored can involve checking and updating any security controls or settings that may have been compromised .
A security analyst wants to capture large amounts of network data that will be analyzed at a later time. The packet capture does not need to be in a format that is readable by humans, since it will be put into a binary file called "packetCapture." The capture must be as efficient as possible, and the analyst wants to minimize the likelihood that packets will be missed. Which of the following commands will best accomplish the analyst's objectives?
The tcpdump command is a network packet analyzer tool that can capture and display network traffic. The -w option specifies a file name to write the captured packets to, in a binary format that can be read by tcpdump or other tools later. This option is useful for capturing large amounts of network data that will be analyzed at a later time, as the question requires. The packet capture does not need to be in a format that is readable by humans, since it will be put into a binary file called “packetCapture”. The capture must be as efficient as possible, and the -w option minimizes the processing and output overhead of tcpdump, reducing the likelihood that packets will be missed.
An organization is required to be able to consume multiple threat feeds simultaneously and to provide actionable intelligence to various teams. The organization would also like to be able to leverage the intelligence to enrich security event data. Which of the following functions would most likely help the security analyst meet the organization's requirements?
The correct answer is C. Detection and monitoring. Detection and monitoring is a function that involves collecting, analyzing, and correlating data from various sources, such as threat feeds, logs, alerts, or events, to identify and respond to potential or ongoing threats. Detection and monitoring can help the organization to consume multiple threat feeds simultaneously and to provide actionable intelligence to various teams, such as security operations center (SOC) analysts, incident responders, or threat hunters. Detection and monitoring can also help the organization to leverage the intelligence to enrich security event data, such as adding context, severity, or priority to the events1.
A. Vulnerability management is not correct. Vulnerability management is a function that involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating the weaknesses or flaws in systems, applications, or networks that could be exploited by attackers. Vulnerability management can help the organization to reduce its attack surface and prevent potential breaches, but it does not directly involve consuming multiple threat feeds simultaneously or providing actionable intelligence to various teams.
B. Risk management is not correct. Risk management is a function that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that could affect the organization’s assets, operations, or objectives. Risk management can help the organization to prioritize and implement appropriate controls or mitigation strategies to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks, but it does not directly involve consuming multiple threat feeds simultaneously or providing actionable intelligence to various teams.
D. Incident response is not correct. Incident response is a function that involves preparing for, detecting, containing, analyzing, and recovering from security incidents that compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the organization’s assets or operations. Incident response can help the organization to minimize the damage and restore normal operations as quickly as possible, but it does not directly involve consuming multiple threat feeds simultaneously or providing actionable intelligence to various teams.
1: Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA
A security analyst needs to automate the incident response process for malware infections. When the following logs are generated, an alert email should automatically be sent within 30 minutes:
Which of the following is the best way for the analyst to automate alert generation?
A security information and event management (SIEM) system is a tool that collects and analyzes log data from various sources and provides alerts and reports on security incidents and events. A security analyst can create a custom rule on a SIEM system to automate the incident response process for malware infections. For example, the analyst can create a rule that triggers an alert email when the SIEM system detects logs that match the criteria of malware infection, such as process name, file name, file hash, etc. The alert email can be sent within 30 minutes or any other desired time frame. The other options are not suitable or sufficient for this purpose. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 15; https://www.sans.org/reading-room/whitepapers/analyst/security-information-event-management-siem-implementation-33969
A cybersecunty analyst needs to harden a server that is currently being used as a web server The server needs to be accessible when entenng www company com into the browser Additionally web pages require frequent updates which are performed by a remote contractor Given the following output:
Which of the following should the cybersecunty analyst recommend to harden the server? (Select TWO).
Disabling the Telnet service would harden the server by removing an insecure protocol that transmits data in cleartext and could allow unauthorized access to the server. Changing the SSH port to a non-standard port would harden the server by reducing the exposure to brute-force attacks or port scans that target the default SSH port (22). Uninstalling the DNS service, performing a vulnerability scan, changing the server’s IP to a private IP address, or blocking port 80 with the host-based firewall would not harden the server or could affect its functionality as a web server. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/access-lists/13608-21.html
A new government regulation requires that organizations only retain the minimum amount of data on a person to perform the organization's necessary activities. Which of the following techniques would help an organization comply with this new regulation?
Deidentifying a data subject means removing or obscuring any data that can be used to identify, locate, or contact an individual, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, social security numbers, etc. Deidentifying a data subject throughout the organization’s applications can help comply with the new regulation that requires only retaining the minimum amount of data on a person to perform the organization’s necessary activities.
An organization has specific technical nsk mitigation configurations that must be implemented before a new server can be approved for production Several critical servers were recently deployed with the antivirus missing unnecessary ports disabled and insufficient password complexity Which of the following should the analyst recommend to prevent a recurrence of this risk exposure?
Automated security controls testing is a method that uses tools or scripts to verify that the security controls of a system or device are configured correctly and comply with the organization’s policies and standards. Performing automated security controls testing of expected configurations prior to production would help prevent a recurrence of the risk exposure caused by missing antivirus, unnecessary ports enabled, and insufficient password complexity. Performing password-cracking attempts, Nmap scans, or antivirus scans on all devices before they are released to production are other methods that can help detect some security issues, but they are not as comprehensive or efficient as automated security controls testing. Reference: https://www.nist.gov/system/files/documents/2017/04/28/sp800-115.pdf
During the forensic analysis of a compromised machine, a security analyst discovers some binaries that are exhibiting abnormal behaviors. After extracting the strings, the analyst finds unexpected content. Which of the following is the next step the analyst should take?
Validating the binaries’ hashes from a trusted source is the next step the analyst should take after discovering some binaries that are exhibiting abnormal behaviors and finding unexpected content in their strings. A hash is a fixed-length value that uniquely represents the contents of a file or message. By comparing the hashes of the binaries on the compromised machine with the hashes of the original or legitimate binaries from a trusted source, such as the software vendor or repository, the analyst can determine whether the binaries have been modified or replaced by malicious code. If the hashes do not match, it indicates that the binaries have been tampered with and may contain malware.
Which of the following BEST describes HSM?
HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a computing device that manages digital keys, performs encryption/decryption functions, and maintains other cryptographic functions2. HSM is a dedicated crypto processor that is specifically designed for the protection of the crypto key lifecycle. HSM can store cryptographic keys that are used for encryption, authentication, digital signatures, and other security functions. HSM can also generate random keys that are unique to each device and never leave the chip. HSM can protect these keys from unauthorized access or tampering by using hardware isolation and encryption3. HSM can also measure and verify the integrity of the operating system and firmware on a device by using a process called attestation. HSM does not manage cryptography (A), as cryptography is the science or art of creating and using secret codes. HSM does not manage physical keys ©, as physical keys are tangible objects that are used to lock or unlock something. HSM does not manage algorithms (D), as algorithms are sets of rules or instructions that are used to solve problems or perform tasks.
References: 2: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/technical-controls 3: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25888/security-development-lifecycle-sdl
A security analyst who works in the SOC receives a new requirement to monitor for indicators of compromise. Which of the following is the first action the analyst should take in this situation?
Developing a query to search for the indicators of compromise is the first action the analyst should take in this situation. Indicators of compromise (IOCs) are pieces of information that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker. IOCs can include IP addresses, domain names, file hashes, URLs, or other artifacts that are associated with malicious activity. Developing a query to search for IOCs can help to identify any potential incidents or threats in the environment and initiate further investigation or response .
A company's legal and accounting teams have decided it would be more cost-effective to offload the risks of data storage to a third party. The IT management team has decided to implement a cloud model and has asked the security team for recommendations. Which of the following will allow all data to be kept on the third-party network?
SaaS stands for Software as a Service, which is a cloud model that allows users to access software applications over the internet without installing or maintaining them on their own devices. SaaS will allow all data to be kept on the third-party network, because the software applications and the data they generate or process are stored on the cloud provider’s servers. VDI, CASB, and FaaS are other terms related to cloud computing or security, but they do not match the description of keeping all data on the third-party network. Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/software-as-a-service
In SIEM software, a security analysis selected some changes to hash signatures from monitored files during the night followed by SMB brute-force attacks against the file servers Based on this behavior, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST to prevent a more serious compromise?
The first action that should be taken to prevent a more serious compromise is to check the hash signatures, comparing them with malware databases to verify if the files are infected. This will help to determine if the changes to hash signatures were caused by malicious software or legitimate updates. If the files are infected, they should be quarantined and removed from the network. Checking the hash signatures will also help to identify the type and source of the malware, which can inform further actions such as blocking malicious domains or IPs, updating antivirus signatures, or notifying users3.
A security analyst recently observed evidence of an attack against a company's web server. The analyst investigated the issue but was unable to find an exploit that adequately explained the observations.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
If an analyst observes evidence of an attack but cannot find an exploit that adequately explains the observations, it may indicate the presence of a zero-day vulnerability, which is an unknown vulnerability that attackers can exploit to gain unauthorized access to systems. In such cases, traditional security tools may not be able to detect or prevent the attack. Therefore, the analyst should investigate further to identify and mitigate the vulnerability to prevent further exploitation.
A security analyst was transferred to an organization's threat-hunting team to track specific activity throughout the enterprise environment The analyst must observe and assess the number ot times this activity occurs and aggregate the results. Which of the following is the BEST threat-hunting method for the analyst to use?
Stack counting is the best threat-hunting method for the analyst to use to observe and assess the number of times a specific activity occurs and aggregate the results. Stack counting is a technique that involves collecting data from multiple sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and grouping them by a common attribute, such as an IP address, a user name, or a process name. Stack counting can help identify patterns, trends, outliers, or anomalies in the data that may indicate malicious activity or compromise.
As a proactive threat-hunting technique, hunters must develop situational cases based on likely attack scenarios derived from the available threat intelligence information. After forming the basis of the scenario, which of the following may the threat hunter construct to establish a framework for threat assessment?
A hypothesis is a statement that can be tested by threat hunters to establish a framework for threat assessment. A hypothesis is based on situational awareness and threat intelligence information, and describes a possible attack scenario that may affect the organization. A hypothesis can help to guide threat hunters in their investigation by providing a clear and specific question to answer, such as “Is there any evidence of lateral movement within our network?” or “Are there any signs of data exfiltration from our servers?”.
Forming a hypothesis, looking for indicators of compromise, and using the findings to proactively improve detection capabilities are examples of the value of:
Threat hunting is a proactive process of searching for signs of malicious activity or compromise within a system or network, by using hypotheses, indicators of compromise, and analytical tools. Threat hunting can help improve detection capabilities by identifying unknown threats, uncovering gaps in security controls, and providing insights for remediation and prevention. Vulnerability scanning (A) is a reactive process of scanning systems or networks for known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that can be exploited by attackers. It can help identify and prioritize vulnerabilities, but not proactively hunt for threats. Red teaming © is a simulated attack on a system or network by a group of ethical hackers who act as adversaries and try to breach security controls. It can help test the effectiveness of security defenses and response capabilities, but not proactively hunt for threats. Penetration testing (D) is similar to red teaming, but with a more defined scope and objective. It can help evaluate the security of a system or network by simulating real-world attacks and exploiting vulnerabilities, but not proactively hunt for threats.
References: : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/33297/threat-hunting : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4160/web-application-security-scanner-was : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/32694/red-teaming : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/13493/penetration-testing
A cybersecurity analyst routinely checks logs, querying for login attempts. While querying for unsuccessful login attempts during a five-day period, the analyst produces the following report:
Which of the following BEST describes what the analyst Just found?
A script is a program that can automate tasks or perform actions on a computer system. A script can be used to attempt multiple login attempts with different credentials, either randomly or from a list of known or guessed usernames and passwords. This can be done to gain unauthorized access to a system or to test its security12.
Users 4 and 5 are not using their credentials to transfer files or run tasks, because the report shows that they have failed login attempts on multiple servers. If they were authorized users, they would not have failed login attempts. Also, transferring files or running tasks does not require multiple login attempts on different servers.
A bot is a software application that runs automated tasks over the Internet. A bot can also be used to perform brute-force attacks, which are repeated attempts to guess a password or other authentication information. However, a bot would not use login credentials in a script, but rather generate random or common passwords to try3.
A security analyst reviews SIEM logs and discovers the following error event:
Which of the following environments does the analyst need to examine to continue troubleshooting the event?
A Windows domain controller is a server that manages authentication and authorization for users and computers in a Windows domain. A Windows domain controller uses Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) to store information about users, groups, computers, policies, and other objects in a domain. A Windows domain controller can generate event logs that record various activities and events related to security, system, application, etc. The event log shown in the question indicates that it was generated by a Windows domain controller with an IP address of 10.0.0.1 and a hostname of DC01.
A software developer is correcting the error-handling capabilities of an application following the initial coding of the fix. Which of the following would the software developer MOST likely performed to validate the code poor to pushing it to production?
Static analysis is a method of analyzing software code without executing it, by using tools or techniques that check for syntax errors, logic errors, vulnerabilities, coding standards, and other quality issues. Static analysis can help software developers to correct the error-handling capabilities of an application before pushing it to production, as it can detect potential errors and bugs at an early stage of development. A web-application vulnerability scan (A) is a method of testing web applications for security flaws by simulating attacks and analyzing responses. It can be useful for finding vulnerabilities in web applications, but not for validating the error-handling capabilities of an application. A packet inspection © is a method of monitoring network traffic by examining the data packets that are sent and received over a network. It can be useful for detecting malicious or unauthorized activity on a network, but not for validating the error-handling capabilities of an application. A penetration test (D) is a method of evaluating the security of a system or network by simulating real-world attacks and exploiting vulnerabilities. It can be useful for assessing the overall security posture of a system or network, but not for validating the error-handling capabilities of an application.
References: : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/14436/static-analysis : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4160/web-application-security-scanner-was : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4010/packet-inspection : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/13493/penetration-testing
A security analyst is reviewing WAF alerts and sees the following request:
Which of the following BEST describes the attack?
The attack is a SQL injection attack. SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a security vulnerability in an application’s software that allows user input to be executed as SQL commands by the underlying database3. SQL injection can enable an attacker to perform various malicious actions on the database, such as reading, modifying, deleting or creating data; executing commands; or bypassing authentication. The request shows that the attacker has entered a malicious SQL statement in the username parameter that attempts to drop (delete) all tables in the database.
A security analyst is performing a Diamond Model analysis of an incident the company had last quarter. A potential benefit of this activity is that it can identify:
A Diamond Model analysis of an incident is a framework that identifies the four essential features of an attack: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim1 By analyzing these features and their relationships, a security analyst can gain insights into the attack’s objectives, methods, sources, and targets. A potential benefit of this activity is that it can identify detection and prevention capabilities to improve, such as gaps in security controls, indicators of compromise, or mitigation strategies2
References: 1 What is the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis? 2 How to use the MITRE ATT&CK® framework and diamond model of intrusion analysis together
Which of the following would best protect sensitive data If a device is stolen?
A self-encrypting drive is a type of hard drive that automatically encrypts and decrypts data using a hardware-based mechanism. A self-encrypting drive can best protect sensitive data if a device is stolen, because it prevents unauthorized access to the data without the proper encryption key or password.
Which of the following describes the difference between intentional and unintentional insider threats'?
The difference between intentional and unintentional insider threats is their behavior. Intentional insider threats are malicious actors who deliberately misuse their access to harm the organization or its assets. Unintentional insider threats are careless or negligent users who accidentally compromise the security of the organization or its assets. Their access levels, risk factors, and rates of occurrence may vary depending on various factors, but their behavior is the main distinction. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 12; https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/Insider_Threat_Mitigation_Guide_508.pdf
A security is reviewing a vulnerability scan report and notes the following finding:
As part of the detection and analysis procedures, which of the following should the analyst do NEXT?
The vulnerability scan report shows that the workstation has a high-risk vulnerability (CVE-2019-0708) that affects Remote Desktop Services on Windows systems. This vulnerability allows remote code execution without authentication or user interaction, and can be exploited by sending specially crafted requests to the target system1 As part of the detection and analysis procedures, the analyst should confirm the workstation’s signatures against the most current signatures. This can help verify if the workstation has been patched or updated to address the vulnerability, or if it is still vulnerable and needs remediation. The analyst can use tools such as Windows Update or Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer to check the workstation’s patch level and compare it with the latest available signatures.
A security administrator needs to provide access from partners to an Isolated laboratory network inside an organization that meets the following requirements:
• The partners' PCs must not connect directly to the laboratory network.
• The tools the partners need to access while on the laboratory network must be available to all partners
• The partners must be able to run analyses on the laboratory network, which may take hours to complete
Which of the following capabilities will MOST likely meet the security objectives of the request?
A jump box is a system that is connected to two networks and acts as a gateway or intermediary between them1. A jump box can help to isolate and secure a network by limiting the direct access to it from other networks. A jump box can also help to monitor and audit the traffic and activity on the network. A VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) is a technology that allows users to access virtual desktops that are hosted on a server2. A VDI can help to provide users with the necessary tools and applications for analysis without installing them on their own PCs. A VDI can also help to reduce the maintenance and management costs of the desktops. A VDI can operate in two modes: persistent and non-persistent. In persistent mode, each user has a dedicated virtual desktop that retains its settings and data across sessions. In non-persistent mode, each user has a temporary virtual desktop that is deleted or reset after each session3. In this scenario, deploying a jump box to allow access to the laboratory network and using VDI in non-persistent mode can meet the security objectives of the request. The jump box can prevent the partners’ PCs from connecting directly to the laboratory network and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or compromise. The VDI in non-persistent mode can provide the necessary tools for analysis without storing any data on the partners’ PCs or the virtual desktops. The VDI in non-persistent mode can also allow the partners to run long analyses without losing their progress or results. Deploying a firewall (B) may not be sufficient or effective, as a firewall only filters or blocks traffic based on rules and does not provide access or tools for analysis. Using VDI in persistent mode (A) © may not be secure or efficient, as persistent mode stores data on the virtual desktops that may be sensitive or confidential.
References: 1: https://www.techrepublic.com/article/jump-boxes-vs-firewalls/ 2: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/26139/virtual-desktop-infrastructure-vdi 3: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/31686/resource-exhaustion
An application must pass a vulnerability assessment to move to the next gate. Consequently, any security issues that are found must be remediated prior to the next gate. Which of the following best describes the method for end-to-end vulnerability assessment?
Dynamic analysis is a method for end-to-end vulnerability assessment that involves testing an application while it is running, by simulating user inputs, network traffic, or environmental conditions. Dynamic analysis can help identify security issues that may arise from the interaction between different components of the application, such as logic flaws, input validation errors, or session management weaknesses.
A manufacturing company uses a third-party service provider for Tier 1 security support. One of the requirements is that the provider must only source talent from its own country due to geopolitical and national security interests. Which of the following can the manufacturing company implement to ensure the third-party service provider meets this requirement?
A secure supply chain program is a set of processes and practices that aim to protect the supply chain from various risks, such as cyberattacks, data breaches, fraud, theft, sabotage, or natural disasters1. A secure supply chain program can help to ensure the integrity, availability, and confidentiality of the products, services, data, and systems involved in the supply chain. A secure supply chain program with governance means that there are clear roles, responsibilities, policies, procedures, and controls for managing the security of the supply chain. This can help to monitor and enforce the compliance of the third-party service provider with the requirement to source talent from its own country. A secure supply chain program with governance can also help to identify and mitigate any potential threats or vulnerabilities in the supply chain. Implementing blacklisting for IP addresses from outside the country (B) may not be sufficient or effective, as IP addresses can be spoofed or bypassed by attackers. Implementing strong authentication controls for all contractors © may not be relevant or adequate, as authentication controls do not prevent the sourcing of talent from other countries. Implementing user behavior analytics for key staff members (D) may not be applicable or useful, as user behavior analytics do not verify the origin or location of the talent.
A security manager has asked an analyst to provide feedback on the results of a penetration test. After reviewing the results, the manager requests
information regarding the possible exploitation of vulnerabilities. Which of the following information data points would be MOST useful for the analyst
to provide to the security manager, who would then communicate the risk factors to the senior management team? (Select TWO).
According to the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) best practices, the most useful information data points to provide to the security manager for communicating the risk factors to senior management are the impact and adversary capability. The impact refers to the potential consequences of a successful attack or exploitation of a vulnerability, such as data loss or system compromise. The adversary capability refers to the ability of an attacker to exploit a vulnerability, including their technical expertise and resources. Together, these data points help to provide a complete picture of the risk associated with a vulnerability, and allow senior management to make informed decisions regarding risk mitigation and remediation. The other data points, such as probability, attack vector, classification, and indicators of compromise, can also be valuable, but the impact and adversary capability are considered the most critical for prioritizing risk mitigation efforts.
An analyst is reviewing email headers to determine if an email has been sent from a legitimate sender. The organization uses SPF to validate email origination. Which of the following most likely indicates an invalid originator?
Received-SPF: softfail. SPF stands for Sender Policy Framework, and it is a method of validating email origin by checking the sender’s IP address against a list of authorized IP addresses published by the domain owner in a DNS record. SPF can help to prevent email spoofing and phishing by verifying the authenticity of the sender1.
Received-SPF is a header field that indicates the result of the SPF check performed by the recipient’s mail server. There are several possible values for this field, but the most common ones are:
Therefore, out of the four options, Received-SPF: softfail most likely indicates an invalid originator, as it suggests that the sender is not authorized by the domain owner and may be trying to impersonate or spoof the domain.
1: What Is SPF? 2: SPF Record Check
An organization has the following risk mitigation policy:
Risks with a probability of 95% or greater will be addressed before all others regardless of the impact.
All other prioritization will be based on risk value.
The organization has identified the following risks:
Which of the following is the order of priority for risk mitigation from highest to lowest?
According to the risk mitigation policy, risks with a probability of 95% or greater will be addressed first, regardless of the impact. Therefore, risk D is the highest priority, as it has a probability of 95% and an impact of $100,000. The next priority is risk A, which has a probability of 90% and an impact of $200,000. The remaining risks will be prioritized based on their risk value, which is calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact. Risk C has a risk value of $40,000 (80% x $50,000), while risk B has a risk value of $30,000 (60% x $50,000). Therefore, risk C is higher priority than risk B.
An organization has the following policy statements:
• AlI emails entering or leaving the organization will be subject to inspection for malware, policy violations, and unauthorized coolant.
•AM network activity will be logged and monitored.
• Confidential data will be tagged and tracked
• Confidential data must never be transmitted in an unencrypted form.
• Confidential data must never be stored on an unencrypted mobile device.
Which of the following is the organization enforcing?
A security team has begun updating the risk management plan, incident response plan, and system security plan to ensure compliance with security review guidelines. Which of the following can be executed by internal managers to simulate and validate the proposed changes?
According to the CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam (CS0-002) study guide, a tabletop exercise can be executed by internal managers to simulate and validate changes to the risk management plan, incident response plan, and system security plan. In a tabletop exercise, participants discuss and work through a simulated scenario, usually in a classroom or conference room setting, to evaluate their readiness and understanding of the proposed changes. This type of exercise can help to identify any potential issues or gaps in the proposed changes and can provide valuable insights for refining and improving the plans.
A security analyst discovers the accounting department is hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service. Anyone with the link can access it. Which of the following threats applies to this situation?
Potential data loss to external users is a threat that applies to this situation, where the accounting department is hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service. Anyone with the link can access it. Data loss is an event that results in the destruction, corruption, or unauthorized disclosure of sensitive or confidential data. Data loss can occur due to various reasons, such as human error, hardware failure, malware infection, or cyberattack. In this case, hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service exposes the data to potential data loss to external users who may access it without authorization or maliciously modify or delete it .
During an audit several customer order forms were found to contain inconsistencies between the actual price of an item and the amount charged to the customer Further investigation narrowed the cause of the issue to manipulation of the public-facing web form used by customers to order products Which of the following would be the BEST way to locate this issue?
In this scenario, the issue is related to manipulation of the public-facing web form, indicating that attackers might be altering the prices before submitting the form. One of the best ways to prevent such attacks is to implement input validation, which can help ensure that the data submitted to the web form is correct, complete, and in the expected format. Input validation can also help prevent SQL injection and other types of web-based attacks.
While conducting a cloud assessment, a security analyst performs a Prowler scan, which generates the following within the report:
Based on the Prowler report, which of the following is the BEST recommendation?
Prowler is a tool that can scan AWS environments for security issues and compliance violations. The Prowler report shows that there are two access keys for CloudDev user: access key 1 and access key 2. Access key 1 has not been used in more than 90 days, which violates the AWS CIS benchmark 1.4 (Ensure access keys are rotated every 90 days or less). Therefore, the best recommendation is to delete access key 1 and use access key 2 instead. Deleting CloudDev access key 1, deleting BusinessUsr access key 1, or deleting access key 2 are not appropriate recommendations based on the Prowler report. Reference: https://github.com/toniblyx/prowler
Members of the sales team are using email to send sensitive client lists with contact information to their personal accounts The company's AUP and code of conduct prohibits this practice. Which of the following configuration changes would improve security and help prevent this from occurring?
Data loss prevention (DLP) is a set of policies and tools that aim to prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data. DLP transport rules are rules that apply to email messages that are sent or received by an organization’s mail server. These rules can provide deep content analysis, which means they can scan the content of email messages and attachments for sensitive data patterns, such as client lists or contact information. If a rule detects a violation of the DLP policy, it can take actions such as blocking, quarantining, or notifying the sender or recipient. This would improve security and help prevent sales team members from sending sensitive client lists to their personal accounts. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 14; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/mail-flow-rules/data-loss-prevention
A security analyst sees the following OWASP ZAP output from a scan that was performed against a modern version of Windows while testing for client-side vulnerabilities:
Which of the following is the MOST likely solution to the listed vulnerability?
Enabling the browser’s XSS filter would be the most likely solution to the listed vulnerability. The vulnerability is a reflected cross-site scripting (XSS) attack, which occurs when a malicious script is injected into a web page that reflects user input back to the browser without proper validation or encoding. The malicious script can then execute in the browser and perform various actions, such as stealing cookies, redirecting to malicious sites, or displaying fake content2. Enabling the browser’s XSS filter can help prevent reflected XSS attacks by detecting and blocking malicious scripts before they execute in the browser3.
An organization's internal department frequently uses a cloud provider to store large amounts of sensitive data. A threat actor has deployed a virtual machine to at the use of the cloud hosted hypervisor, the threat actor has escalated the access rights. Which of the following actions would be BEST to remediate the vulnerability?
MFA can be used to reduce the likelihood that the attacker gains access to the VM, however, the scenario specifically states that the attacker was able to escalate rights and the question asks what can be done to remediate the vulnerability. the vulnerability in this case would be the ability to escalate rights.
The best way to remediate the vulnerability is to update to the secure hypervisor version. A hypervisor is a software that creates and manages virtual machines on a physical server. A hypervisor can be vulnerable to various attacks, such as privilege escalation, code injection, or denial-of-service. Updating to the secure hypervisor version can help fix any known bugs or flaws in the hypervisor software and prevent attackers from exploiting them. Updating to the secure hypervisor version can also provide additional security features or enhancements that can improve the protection of the virtual machines and their data.
Which of the following incident response components can identify who is the llaison between multiple lines of business and the pubic?
A communications plan is a document that outlines how information will be communicated during an incident response process. It defines who will communicate what information, when, how, and to whom4 A communications plan can identify who is the liaison between multiple lines of business and the public, as well as other stakeholders such as senior management, legal counsel, law enforcement, or media. A liaison is a person who acts as a link or intermediary between different parties or groups to facilitate communication and coordination.
An organization has a policy that requires servers to be dedicated to one function and unneeded services to be disabled. Given the following output from an Nmap scan of a web server:
Which of the following ports should be closed?
Port 22 is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that allows remote access and administration of a server. If the server is dedicated to one function (web server) and unneeded services are disabled, then port 22 should be closed, because SSH is not necessary for a web server and could pose a security risk if exploited. Port 80, port 443, and port 1433 are ports that are needed for a web server, because they are used for HTTP, HTTPS, and SQL Server respectively. Reference: https://www.ssh.com/ssh/port