CompTIA CAS-005 CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

Reviewing data sovereignty laws in countries where the organization has no presence is likely due to concerns about regulatory enforcement. Data sovereignty laws dictate how data can be stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Understanding these laws is crucial for compliance, especially if the organization handles data that may be subject to foreign regulations.

A. The organization is performing due diligence of potential tax issues: This is less likely as tax issues are generally not directly related to data sovereignty laws.

B. The organization has been subject to legal proceedings in countries where it has a presence: While possible, this does not explain the focus on countries where the organization has no presence.

C. The organization is concerned with new regulatory enforcement in other countries: This is the most likely reason. New regulations could impact the organization’s operations, especially if they involve data transfers or processing data from these countries.

D. The organization has suffered brand reputation damage from incorrect media coverage: This is less relevant to the need for reviewing data sovereignty laws.

The question states that security scanning and quality assurance (QA) in the CI/CD pipeline have been completed with no issues, indicating that the code in the test branch is ready for production. According to the CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 study guide (Domain 2: Security Operations, 2.3), in a secure CI/CD pipeline, once code passes automated security scans, QA, and other checks (e.g., unit testing, peer reviews), the next step is to merge the tested branch into the main branch for deployment to production.

Option B:Threat modeling is typically performed earlier, during design or development, not after passing CI/CD checks.

Option C:Unit testing is part of the CI/CD pipeline and should already be completed.

Option D:Peer reviews are conducted before or during the test phase, not after QAand security scans are clear.

Option A:Merging the test branch to the main branch is the logical next step to prepare for production deployment.

To minimize downtime, testing should occur in a virtual lab, not production. The best approach is to test solutions methodically: implement one solution at a time, run an attack simulation, collect metrics, roll back, and repeat. This isolates each solution’s effectiveness, ensuring accurate metrics for decision-making without production impact.

Option A:Testing all solutions simultaneously muddies the results—metrics won’t show which solution worked.

Option B:Collecting metrics before the simulation misses the point of testing against the attack.

Option C:Correct—tests each solution independently with simulation and metrics, minimizing downtime via virtual lab use.

Option D:Like A, combining solutions obscures individual effectiveness.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Automating compliance in cloudenvironments requires a tool that can enforce configurations, manage infrastructure as code, and align with industry standards (e.g., NIST, ISO). Let’s evaluate:

A. Jenkins:A CI/CD tool for automating software builds and deployments. It’s not designed for compliance enforcement or infrastructure management.

B. Python:A programming language that can be scripted for automation but lacks built-in compliance-focused features without significant custom development.

C. Ansible:An automation tool for configuration management, application deployment, and compliance enforcement. It uses playbooks to define desired states, making it ideal for automating compliance checks and remediation in cloud environments (e.g., AWS, Azure). CAS-005 emphasizes automation tools for security and compliance, and Ansible fits perfectly.

After applying mitigations that reduce the likelihood of a risk’s impact, the next step is toassess the residual risk—the risk that remains after controls are implemented. This ensures the organization understands if the mitigation is sufficient or if further action is needed, aligning with risk management best practices.

Option A:Correct—residual risk assessment is the logical next step to evaluate the effectiveness of mitigations.

Option B:Updating the threat model might follow but isn’t immediate; residual risk comes first.

Option C:Moving to the next risk skips evaluating the current mitigation’s success.

Option D:Recalculating impact magnitude is part of residual risk assessment but isn’t the full process.

To mitigate the issue of excessive permissions and privilege creep, the best solutions are:

Implementing a Role-Based Access Policy:

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): This policy ensures that access permissions are granted based on the user's role within the organization, aligning with the principle of least privilege. Users are only granted access necessary for their role, reducing the risk of excessive permissions.

Limiting the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions helps to mitigate risks associated with AI operations. By ensuring that the AI-enabled digital worker is only allowed to perform tasks that do not involve sensitive or critical data, the organization reduces the potential impact of any security breaches or misuse.

Enhancing the training model's effectiveness (Option B) is important but does not directly address security guardrails. Granting the system the ability to self-govern (Option C) could increase risk as it may act beyond the organization's control. Requiring end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies (Option D) is a good practice but does not implement technical guardrails to secure the AI environment.

To ensure always-on VPN access is enabled and restricted to company assets, the network engineer needs to generate device certificates using the specific template settings required for the company's VPN solution. These certificates ensure that only authorized devices can establish a VPN connection.

Why Device Certificates are Necessary:

Authentication: Device certificates authenticate company assets, ensuring that only authorized devices can access the VPN.

Security: Certificates provide a higher level of security compared to username and password combinations, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.

Compliance: Certificates help in meeting security policies and compliance requirements by ensuring that only managed devices can connect to the corporate network.

Other options do not provide the same level of control and security for always-on VPN access:

B. Modify signing certificates for IKE version 2: While important for VPN protocols, it does not address device-specific authentication.

C. Create a wildcard certificate: This is not suitable for device-specific authentication and could introduce security risks.

D. Add the VPN hostname as a SAN entry: This is more related to certificate management and does not ensure device-specific authentication.

The logs reviewed for the user indicate that access is being denied due to time-based access restrictions. These restrictions are commonly implemented to limit access to systems during specific hours to enhance security. If a user attempts to authenticate outside of the allowed time window, access will be denied. This measure helps prevent unauthorized access during non-business hours, reducing the risk of security incidents.

Matching Relevant Findings to the Affected Hosts:

Finding 1:

Affected Host: DNS

Reason: Users are unable to log into the domain from their workstations after relocating to Site B, which implies a failure in domain name services that are critical for user authentication and domain login.

Finding 2:

Affected Host: Pumps

Reason: Thepump room at Site B becoming inoperable directly points to the critical infrastructure components associated with pumping operations.

Finding 3:

Affected Host: VPN Concentrator

Reason: Unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping indicates issues with network routing, which is often managed by VPN concentrators that handle site-to-site connectivity.

Corrective Actions for Finding 3:

Finding 3 Corrective Action:

Action: Modify the BGP configuration

Reason: Route flapping is often related to issues with Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) configurations. Adjusting BGP settings can stabilize routes and improve internet connectivity reliability.

Replication to Site B for Finding 1:

Affected Host: DNS

Domain Name System (DNS) services are essential for translating domain names into IP addresses, allowing users to log into the network. Replicating DNS services ensures that even if Site A is disrupted, users at Site B can still authenticate and access necessary resources.

Replication to Site B for Finding 2:

Affected Host: Pumps

The operation of the pump room is crucial for maintaining various functions within the infrastructure. Replicating the control systems and configurations for the pumps at Site B ensures that operations can continue smoothly even if Site A is affected.

Configuration Changes for Finding 3:

Affected Host: VPN Concentrator

Route flapping is a situation where routes become unstable, causing frequent changes in the best path for data to travel. This instability can be mitigated by modifying BGP configurations to ensure more stable routing. VPN concentrators, which manage connections between sites, are typically configured with BGP for optimal routing.

OWIN23 is running Windows 7, which is a legacy operating system. Many EDR solutions no longer provide full support for outdated operating systems like Windows 7, which has reached its end of life and is no longer receiving security updates from Microsoft. This makes such systems more vulnerable to infections and attacks, including remote access Trojans (RATs).

A. OWIN23 uses a legacy version of Windows that is not supported by the EDR: This is the most probable cause because the lack of support means that the EDR solution may not fully protect or monitor this system, making it an easy target for infections.

B. LN002 was not supported by the EDR solution and propagates the RAT: While LN002 is unmanaged, it is less likely to propagate the RAT to OWIN23 directly without an established vector.

C. The EDR has an unknown vulnerability that was exploited by the attacker: This is possible but less likely than the lack of support for an outdated OS.

D. OWIN29 spreads the malware through other hosts in the network: While this could happen, the status indicates OWIN29 is in a bypass mode, which might limit its interactions but does not directly explain the infection on OWIN23.

The best solution to address reported vulnerabilities in third-party libraries is integrating a Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tool as part of the development pipeline. Here’s why:

Early Detection: SAST tools analyze source code for vulnerabilities before the code is compiled. This allows developers to identify and fix security issues early in the development process.

Continuous Security: By integrating SAST tools into the CI/CD pipeline, the organization ensures continuous security assessment of the codebase, including third-party libraries, with each code commit and build.

Comprehensive Analysis: SAST tools provide a detailed analysis of the code, identifying potential vulnerabilities in both proprietary code and third-party dependencies, ensuring that known issues in libraries are addressed promptly.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST) involves analyzing source code or compiled code for security vulnerabilities without executing the program. This method is well-suited for identifying syntax errors, coding standards violations, and potential security issues early in the development lifecycle.

A. Static application security testing (SAST): SAST tools analyze the source code to detect syntax errors, vulnerabilities, and other issues before the code is run. This is the most relevant task for the DevSecOps team to identify syntax errors and improve code quality.

B. Software composition analysis: This focuses on identifying vulnerabilities in open-source components and libraries used in the application but does not address syntax errors directly.

C. Runtime application self-protection (RASP): RASP involves monitoring and protecting applications during runtime, which does not help in identifying syntax errors during the development phase.

D. Web application vulnerability scanning: This involves scanning the running application for vulnerabilities but does not address syntax errors in the code.

To provide secure access tointernal and external cloud resources, eliminate split-tunnel traffic flows, and enable identity and access management capabilities, the most appropriate solutions are CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) and SASE (Secure Access Service Edge).

Why CASB and SASE?

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker):

Secure Access: CASB solutions provide secure access to cloud resources by enforcing security policies and monitoring user activities.

Identity and Access Management: CASBs integrate with identity and access management (IAM) systems to ensure that only authorized users can access cloud resources.

Visibility and Control: They offer visibility into cloud application usage and control over data sharing and access.

SASE (Secure Access Service Edge):

Eliminate Split-Tunnel Traffic: SASE integrates network security functions with WAN capabilities to ensure secure access without the need for split-tunnel configurations.

Comprehensive Security: SASE provides a holistic security approach, including secure web gateways, firewalls, and zero trust network access (ZTNA).

Identity-Based Access: SASE leverages IAM to enforce access controls based on user identity and context.

Other options, while useful, do not comprehensively address all the requirements:

A. Federation: Useful for identity management but does not eliminate split-tunnel traffic or provide comprehensive security.

B. Microsegmentation: Enhances security within the network but does not directly address secure access to cloud resources or split-tunnel traffic.

D. PAM (Privileged Access Management): Focuses on managing privileged accounts and does not provide comprehensive access control for internal and external resources.

E. SD-WAN: Enhances WAN performance but does not inherently provide the identity and access management capabilities or eliminate split-tunnel traffic.

Collecting a large pool of behavioral observations requires handling vast datasets, which is the domain ofBig Data. Big Data technologies enable the storage, processing, and analysis of large-scale data (e.g., user behavior logs) to inform decisions, a key capability in security analytics.

Option A:Linear regression is a statistical method for modeling relationships, not collecting data.

Option B:Distributed consensus relates to agreement in distributed systems (e.g., blockchain), not data collection.

Option C:Big Data directly supports collecting and analyzing large datasets for insights, fitting the question perfectly.

Option D:Machine learning uses data to train models but relies on data being collected first, often via Big Data.

Risk appetite is the amount of risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives. When operating with a constrained budget, understanding the organization's risk appetite is crucial because:

It helps prioritize security investments based on the level of risk the organization is willing to tolerate.

High-impact, low-likelihood events may be deemed acceptable if they fall within the organization's risk appetite, allowing for budget allocation to other critical areas.

Properly understanding and defining risk appetite ensures that limited resources are used effectively to manage risks that align with the organization's strategic goals.

A proxy-based Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is chosen primarily for its ability to block unapproved applications and services. Here’s why:

Application and Service Control: Proxy-based CASBs can monitor and control the use of applications and services by inspecting traffic as it passes through the proxy. This allows the organization to enforce policies that block unapproved applications and services, ensuring compliance with security policies.

Visibility and Monitoring: By routing traffic through the proxy, the CASB can provide detailed visibility into user activities and data flows, enabling better monitoring and threat detection.

Real-Time Protection: Proxy-based CASBs can provide real-time protection against threats by analyzing and controlling traffic before it reaches the end user, thus preventing the use of risky applications and services.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:

Understanding the Scenario: The question is about ensuring that an organization retains control over its encryption keys. It focuses on different key storage and management methods.

Analyzing the Answer Choices:

A. Encrypting using a key stored in an on-premises hardware security module (HSM): This is thebest option for maintaining complete control over encryption keys. An HSM is a dedicated, tamper-resistant hardware device specifically designed for secure key storage and cryptographic operations. Storing keys on-premises within an HSM ensures the organization has exclusive access.

The immediate action after discovering ransomware is toisolate the affected serversto prevent further spread of the malware to other systems in the network. Paying the ransom is not recommended as it does not guarantee data recovery and encourages criminal behavior. Notifying law enforcement is necessary, but containment must happen first to limit damage. Requesting server restoration should only occur after containment and a thorough investigation to ensure no remnants of ransomware remain.

Addressing misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in third-party hardware requires a comprehensive approach to manage risks throughout the supply chain. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management (SCRM) program is the most effective solution as it encompasses the following:

Holistic Approach: SCRM considers the entire lifecycle ofthe product, from initial design through to delivery and deployment. This ensures that risks are identified and managed at every stage.

Vendor Management: It includes thorough vetting of suppliers and ongoing assessments of their security practices, which can identify and mitigate vulnerabilities early.

Regular Audits and Assessments: A robust SCRM program involves regular audits and assessments, both internally and with suppliers, to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.

Collaboration and Communication: Ensures that there is effective communication and collaboration between the company and its suppliers, leading to faster identification and resolution of issues.

Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same comprehensive risk management:

A. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers: While useful, this is reactive and only addresses issues after they have been delivered.

B. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line: This can identify vulnerabilities but is not as comprehensive as a full SCRM program.

C. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance: This is important but only covers the integration phase, not the entire supply chain.

To create a collection of use cases for detecting known threats and include them in a centralized library for use across multiple companies withdifferent vendors, Sigma rules are the best option. Here’s why:

Vendor-Agnostic Format: Sigma rules are a generic and open standard for writing SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) rules. They can be translated to specific query languages of different SIEM systems, making them highly versatile and applicable across various platforms.

Centralized Rule Management: By using Sigma rules, the cybersecurity architect can create a centralized library of detection rules that can be easily shared and implemented across different detection and monitoring systems used by the acquired companies. This ensures consistency in threat detection capabilities.

Ease of Use and Flexibility: Sigma provides a structured and straightforward format for defining detection logic. It allows for the easy creation, modification, and sharing of rules, facilitating collaboration and standardization across the organization.

Removing unnecessary services from existing endpoints reduces the attack surface by minimizing the number of potential vulnerabilities attackers could exploit. This is a cost-effective method to harden devices without requiring new purchases, aligning perfectly with a purchasing freeze. Deploying new EDR solutions or disposing of devices would likely conflict with the resource freeze, and reimaging systems does not address minimizing services proactively.

Animmutable databasepreventsmodifications or deletions, ensuring resilience against ransomware while maintaining multiple copies of data.

Tokenization replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive equivalents, called tokens, that can be used within the internal tests. The original data is stored securely and can be retrieved if necessary. This approach allows the software development team to work with data that appears realistic and valid without exposing the actual sensitive information.

Configuring data hashing (Option A) is not suitable for test data as ittransforms the data into a fixed-length value that is not usable in the same way as the original data. Replacing data with null records (Option C) is not useful as it does not provide valid data for testing. Data obfuscation (Option D) could be an alternative but might not meet the regulatory requirements as effectively as tokenization.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Enriching data to compare domains requires actionable visibility. Let’s analyze:

A. Cron job:Automates updates but doesn’t analyze in the SIEM.

B. Parser:Processes logs but doesn’t provide comparison insights.

C. Filter query:Excludes matches, opposite of enrichment.

Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the securityanalyst should patch Host 1 first. Here’s why:

Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.

Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.

Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.

To develop a baseline of security configurations that will be automatically utilized when a machine is created, the security architect should deploy Ansible. Here’s why:

Automation: Ansible is an automation tool that allows for the configuration, management, and deployment of applications and systems. It ensures that security configurations are consistently applied across all new machines.

Scalability: Ansible can scale to manage thousands of machines, making it suitable for large enterprises that need to maintain consistent security configurations across their infrastructure.

Compliance: By using Ansible, organizations can enforce compliance with security policies and standards, ensuring that all systems are configured according to best practices.

The reported issues suggest problems related to network connectivity, remote access, and certificate management:

A. Review VPN throughput: Connectivity issues and the inability to download applications while working remotely may be due to VPN bandwidth or performance issues. Reviewing and optimizing VPN throughput can help resolve these problems by ensuring that remote users have adequate bandwidth for accessing corporate resources.

F. Validate MDM asset compliance: Mobile Device Management (MDM) systems ensure that mobile endpoints comply with corporate security policies. Validating MDM compliance can help address issues related to the inability to download applications and certificate errors, as non-compliant devices might be blocked from accessing certain resources.

B. Check IPS rules: While important for security, IPS rules are less likely to directly address the connectivity and certificate issues described.

C. Restore static content on the CDN: This action is related to content delivery but does not address VPN or certificate-related issues.

D. Enable secure authentication using NAC: Network Access Control (NAC) enhances security but does not directly address the specific issues described.

E. Implement advanced WAF rules: Web Application Firewalls protect web applications but do not address VPN throughput or mobile device compliance.

When differentiating between valid and invalid findings from vulnerability scans, the systemsadministrator should verify that the scanning credentials are properly configured. Valid credentials ensure that the scanner can authenticate and access the systems being evaluated, providing accurate and comprehensive results. Without proper credentials, scans may miss vulnerabilities or generate false positives, making it difficult to prioritize and address the findings effectively.

To enable code signing with an existing PKI, the first step is to configure the Certificate Authority (CA) to issue code signing certificates. Adding a new template with attributes specific to code signing (e.g., key usage for signing) allows the CA to support this requirement without disrupting existing operations.

Option A:Correct—templates define certificate types; this isthe foundational step.

Option B:Wildcard certificates are for domains, not code signing.

Option C:Recalculating root CA keys is unnecessary and risky unless compromised.

Option D:SAN (Subject Alternative Name) is for multi-domain certificates, irrelevant here.

In the context of establishing a Security Operations Center (SOC) with a threat-modeling function, it's crucial to understand how data flows within the organization's systems. Network and data flow diagrams provide a visual representation of the system's architecture, illustrating how data moves between components, which is essential for identifying potential security weaknesses and antipatterns. Antipatterns are common responses to recurring problems that are ineffective and risk-inducing. By analyzing these diagrams, the consultant can pinpoint areas where security controls may be lacking or misconfigured, thereby facilitating the development of effective threat models.​

While other options like unpatchable IoT devices (Option B) and inventories of cloud resources (Option E) are important for comprehensive security assessments, they are more pertinent during later stages, such as vulnerability management and asset inventory. The initial phase of threat modeling focuses on understanding the system's structure and data flows to identify potential threats, making network and data flow diagrams the most critical information at this stage.​

Context-based authentication enhances traditional security methods by incorporating additional layers of information about the user's current environment and behavior. This can include factors such as the user's location, the time of access, the device used, and the behavior patterns. It is particularly useful in preventing unauthorized access even if an attacker has obtained a valid password.

Rule-based (A) focuses on predefined rules and is less flexible in adapting to dynamic threats.

Time-based (B) authentication considers the time factor but doesn't provide comprehensive protection against stolen credentials.

Role-based (C) is more about access control based on the user's role within the organization rather than authenticating the user based on current context.

By implementing context-based authentication, the company can ensure that even if a password is compromised, the additional contextual factors required for access (which an attacker is unlikely to possess) provide a robust defense mechanism.

Investing in a threat intelligence platform is the best option for a company looking to operationalize research output. A threat intelligence platform helps in collecting, processing, and analyzing threat data to provide actionable insights. These platforms integrate data from various sources, including dark web monitoring, honeypots, and other security tools, to offer a comprehensive view of the threat landscape.

Why a Threat Intelligence Platform?

Data Integration: It consolidates data from multiple sources, including dark web monitoring and honeypots, making it easier to analyze and derive actionableinsights.

Actionable Insights: Provides real-time alerts and reports on potential threats, helping the organization take proactive measures.

Operational Efficiency: Streamlines the process of threat detection and response, allowing the security team to focus on critical issues.

Research and Development: Facilitates the operationalization of research output by providing a platform for continuous monitoring and analysis of emerging threats.

Other options, while valuable, do not offer the same level of integration and operationalization capabilities:

A. Dark web monitoring: Useful for specific threat intelligence but lacks comprehensive operationalization.

C. Honeypots: Effective for detecting and analyzing specific attack vectors but not for broader threat intelligence.

D. Continuous adversary emulation: Important for testing defenses but not for integrating and operationalizing threat intelligence.

To meet the requirements of only allowing internally signed applications, preventing unauthorized software installations, and logging attempts to run unauthorized software, configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root certificates is the best solution. This approach ensures that only applications signed by trusted certificates are allowed to execute, while all other attempts are blocked and logged. It effectively prevents unauthorized software installations by restrictingexecution to pre-approved applications.

Based on the provided logs, the user has accessed various applications from different geographic locations within a very short timeframe. This pattern is indicative of the "impossible travel" security rule, a common feature in Single Sign-On (SSO) systems designed to detect and prevent fraudulent access attempts.

Analysis of Logs:

At 8:47 p.m., the user accessed a VPN from Toronto.

At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed email from Los Angeles.

At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed the human resources system from Los Angeles.

At 8:49 p.m., the user accessed email again from Los Angeles.

At 8:52 p.m., the user attempted to access the human resources system from Toronto, which was denied.

These rapid changes in location are physically impossible and typically trigger security measures to prevent unauthorized access. The SSO system detected these inconsistencies and likely flagged the activity as suspicious, resulting in access denial.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The hijacked administrator account was used across multiple ASNs (indicating different network locations) in a short time, despite MFA and SSO. This suggests a stolen session or token misuse. Let’s analyze:

A. Token theft detection with lockouts:Useful for detecting stolen SSO tokens, but it’s reactive and may not prevent initial misuse across networks.

B. Context-based authentication:This adds real-time checks (e.g., geolocation, IP changes) to verify login attempts. Given the rapid ASN changes, this proactively mitigates the issue by challenging suspicious logins, aligning with CAS-005’s focus on adaptive security.

C. Decentralize accounts:This removes SSO, increasing complexity and weakening MFA enforcement, which isn’t practical or secure.

The error message reveals sensitive details (hostnames, database names, table names), constitutinginformation disclosure. This aids attackers in reconnaissance. Mitigation involves modifying the application to display generic error messages (e.g., “An error occurred”) instead of specifics.

Option A:Unsecure references suggest coding flaws, but this is a configuration/output issue, not input sanitization.

Option B:Unsecure protocols and HttpOnly cookies relate to session security, not error handling.

Option C:Correct—information disclosure is the issue; generic errors mitigate it.

Option D:No evidence of SQL injection (e.g., manipulated input); upgrading the database doesn’t address disclosure.

To meet the requirements of centrally managing configurations, pushing policies, remotely wiping devices, and maintaining an asset inventory, the best solution is to implement a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution.

MDM Capabilities:

Central Management: MDM allows administrators to manage the configurations of all devices from a central console.

Policy Enforcement: MDM solutions enable the push of security policies and updates to ensure compliance across all managed devices.

Remote Wipe: In case a device is lost or stolen, MDM provides the capability to remotely wipe the device to protect sensitive data.

Asset Inventory: MDM maintains an up-to-date inventory of all managed devices, including their configurations and installed applications.

Other options do not provide the same comprehensive capabilities required for managing specialized endpoints.

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets therequirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore,it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B: Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B’s data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is thedefault and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

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In the context of improving incident response and reducing dwell time, the security analyst needs to focus on proactive measures that can quickly detect and alert on potential security breaches. Here’s a detailed analysis of the options provided:

A. Adjusting the SIEM to alert on attempts to visit phishing sites: While this is a useful measure to prevent phishing attacks, it primarily addresses external threats and doesn’t directly impact dwell time reduction, which focuses on the time a threat remains undetected within a network.

B. Allowing TRACE method traffic to enable better log correlation: The TRACE method in HTTP is used for debugging purposes, but enabling it can introduce security vulnerabilities. It’s not typically recommended for enhancing security monitoring or incident response.

C. Enabling alerting on all suspicious administrator behavior: This option directly targets the potential misuse of administrator accounts, which are often high-value targets for attackers. By monitoring and alerting on suspicious activities from admin accounts, the organization can quickly identify and respond to potential breaches, thereby reducing dwell time significantly. Suspicious behavior could include unusual login times, access to sensitive data not usually accessed by the admin, or any deviation from normal behavior patterns. This proactive monitoring is crucial for quick detection and response, aligning well with best practices in incident response.

D. Utilizing allow lists on the WAF for all users using GET methods: This measure is aimed at restricting access based on allowed lists, which can be effective in preventing unauthorized access but doesn’t specifically address the need for quick detection and response to internal threats.

To prevent emails from being marked as spam, several DNS records related to email authentication need to be properly configured and updated when there are changes to the email server'scertificates:

A. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance): DMARC records help email servers determine how to handle messages that fail SPF or DKIM checks, improving email deliverability and reducing the likelihood of emails being marked as spam.

B. SPF (Sender Policy Framework): SPF records specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of your domain. Updating the SPF record ensures that the new email server is recognized as an authorized sender.

C. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail): DKIM adds a digital signature to email headers, allowing the receiving server to verify that the email has not been tampered with and is from an authorized sender. Updating DKIM records ensures that emails are properly signed and authenticated.

D. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions): DNSSEC adds security to DNS by enabling DNS responses to be verified. While important for DNS security, it does not directly address the issue of emails being marked as spam.

E. SASC: This is not a relevant standard for this scenario.

F. SAN (Subject Alternative Name): SAN is used in SSL/TLS certificates for securing multiple domain names, not for email delivery issues.

G. SOA (Start of Authority): SOA records are used for DNS zone administration and do not directly impact email deliverability.

H. MX (Mail Exchange): MX records specify the mail servers responsible for receiving email on behalf of a domain. While important, the primary issue here is the authentication of outgoing emails, which is handled by SPF, DKIM, and DMARC.

VPN Concentrator:

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AAA Server:

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The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:

Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.

TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include

com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.

DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.

Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs is the best architectural change to ensure that all client proxy traffic is captured for analysis. Here’s why:

Comprehensive Traffic Capture: A span port (or mirror port) on the perimeter firewall can capture all inbound and outbound traffic, including traffic that might bypass the proxy. This ensures that all network traffic is available for analysis.

Centralized Logging: By capturing logs at the perimeter firewall, the organization can centralize logging and analysis, making it easier to detect and investigate anomalies.

Minimal Disruption: Implementing a span port is a non-intrusive method that does not require significant changes to the network architecture, thus minimizing disruption to existing services.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Understanding the Ransomware Issue:

The key issue here is thatbackups were not recoverable within the required RPO timeframe.

This means the organizationdid not properly testitsbackup and disaster recovery (DR) processes.

To prevent this from happening again, regular disaster recovery testing is essential.

Why Option C is Correct:

Disaster recovery testing ensures that backups are functionaland can meetbusiness continuity needs.

Frequent DR testingallows organizations to identify and fixgaps in recovery strategies.

Regular testing ensuresthat recoverymeets the RPO & RTO (Recovery Time Objective) requirements.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A (Encrypt & label backup tapes):While encryption is important, it does not address thefailure to meet RPO requirements.

B (Reverting to manual business processes):While amanual continuity planis good for resilience, it doesnot resolve the backup and recovery failure.

D (Tabletop exercise & RACI matrix):Atabletop exerciseis a planning activity, butit does not involve actual recovery testing.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This scenario describes anenterprise VPN setup that requires machine authenticationbefore a user logs in. The best explanation for this requirement is that theVPN client selects the appropriate certificate automaticallybased on the key extension in the machine certificate.

Understanding the Key Extension Requirement:

PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)issues machine certificates that include specific key usages such asClient AuthenticationorIPSec IKE Intermediate.

Key usage extensionsdefine how a certificate can be used, ensuring that onlyvalid certificates are selected by the VPN client.

Why Option B is Correct:

The VPNautomaticallyselects the correct machine certificate with the appropriate key extension.

The process occurswithout user intervention, ensuring seamless VPN authentication before login.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A (MFA requirement):Certificates used in this scenario are for machine authentication, not user MFA. MFA typically involves user credentials plus a second factor (like OTPs or biometrics), which isnot applicable here.

C (Wi-Fi connectivity before login):This refers topre-logon networking, which is a separate concept where devices authenticate to a Wi-Fi network before login, usually via 802.1X EAP-TLS. However, this question specifically mentions VPN authentication, not Wi-Fi authentication.

D (SSL VPN with certificates):While SSL VPNs do use certificates,this scenario involves machine certificates issued by an internal PKI, which are commonly used inIPSec VPNs, not SSL VPNs.

Vendor lock-in occurs when a client is overly dependent on a vendor, limiting flexibility. Risks include:

Option B:Vendors changing offerings (e.g., features, pricing) can disrupt the client, a key lock-in risk.

Option D:Decreased quality of service may result from reliance on a single vendor without alternatives.

Option A:Seamless data movement is a benefit, not a risk.

Option C:Sufficient service is neutral or positive, not a risk.

Option E:Multicloud is hindered by lock-in, not a risk of it.

Option F:Increased interoperability contradicts lock-in’s limitations.

On-path decryption attacks, such as BEAST (Browser Exploit Against SSL/TLS) and other related vulnerabilities, often exploit weaknesses in the implementation of CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) mode. To mitigate these attacks, the following actions are recommended:

B. Removing support for CBC-based key exchange and signing algorithms: CBC mode is vulnerable to certain attacks like BEAST. By removing support for CBC-based ciphers, you can eliminate one of the primary vectors for these attacks. Instead, use modern cipher modes like GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) which offer better security properties.

C. Adding TLS_ECDHE_ECDSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA256: This cipher suite uses Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) for key exchange, which provides perfect forward secrecy. It also uses AES in GCM mode, which is not susceptible to the same attacks as CBC. SHA-256 is a strong hash function that ensures data integrity.

A. Implementing allow lists: Allow lists (whitelisting) restrict network communication to only authorized devices and applications, significantly reducing the attack surface by ensuring that only pre-approved traffic is permitted.

F. Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN: A site-to-site VPN provides a secure, encrypted tunnel for data transmission between the OT systems and the vendor, protecting the data from interception and tampering during transit.

Other options:

B. Monitoring network behavior: While useful for detecting anomalies, it does not proactively reduce the risk of compromise or sabotage.

C. Encrypting data at rest: Important for protecting data stored on devices, but does not address network communication risks.

D. Performing boot integrity checks: Ensures the integrity of the system at startup but does not protect ongoing network communications.

E. Executing daily health checks: Useful for maintaining system health but does not directly reduce the risk of network-based compromise or sabotage.

The most likely explanation for the issues encountered with the captive portal is that the TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal are deprecated. Here’s why:

TLS Cipher Suites: Modern browsers are continuously updated to support the latest security standards and often drop support for deprecated and insecure cipher suites. If the captive portal uses outdated TLS ciphers, newer browsers may refuse to connect, causing security errors.

HSTS and Browser Security: Browsers with HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) enabled will not allow connections to sites with weak security configurations. Deprecated TLS ciphers would cause these browsers to block the connection.

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is a security policy enforcement point placed between cloud service consumers and cloud service providers to combine and interject enterprise security policies as cloud-based resources are accessed. Implementing a CASB provides several benefits:

A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms: This can help but is not as effective or comprehensive as a CASB.

B. Implement a cloud-access security broker: A CASB can provide visibility into cloud application usage, enforce data security policies, and protect against data leaks by monitoring and controlling access to cloud services. It also provides advanced features like data encryption, data loss prevention (DLP), and compliance monitoring.

C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms: This helps in monitoring but does not prevent data leaks.

D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains: This can block access to specific sites but lacks the granular control and visibility provided by a CASB.

Implementing a CASB is the most comprehensive solution to decrease the risk of data leaks by providing visibility, control, and enforcement of security policies for cloud services.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is crucial for identifying and addressing security vulnerabilities during the software development life cycle (SDLC). Ensuring that DAST scans are routinely scheduled helps in maintaining a secure development process.

Why Routine DAST Scans?

Continuous Security Assessment: Regular DAST scans help in identifying vulnerabilities in real-time, ensuring they are addressed promptly.

Compliance: Routine scans ensure that the development process complies with security standards and regulations.

Proactive Threat Mitigation: Regular scans help in early detection and mitigation of potential security threats, reducing the risk of breaches.

Integration into SDLC: Ensures security is embedded within the development process, promoting a security-first approach.

Other options, while relevant, do not directly address the continuous assessment and proactive identification of threats:

A. If developers are unable to promote to production: This is more of an operational issue than a security assessment.

B. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository: This concerns code management rather than security testing frequency.

D. If role-based training is deployed: While important, training alone does not ensure continuous security assessment.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Runtime Application Self-Protection (RASP) (A)monitors and protects applications in real time by detecting and blocking attacks as they occur. Unlike traditional security solutions, RASP is integrated into the application itself, meaning it works regardless of the programming language used. It effectively mitigates common vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, XSS, and buffer overflows.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) (C) is a passive scanning approach that may not prevent attacks in real-time, while Network Intrusion PreventionSystems (NIPS) (D) focuses on network traffic, not application-layer security.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Understanding the Security Event:

HOST002 is the only device authorized for internet traffic. However, theSIEM logs show that VM002 is making network connections to web.corp.local.

This indicatesunauthorized access, which could bea sign of lateral movement or network infection.

This is ared flagfor potential malware, unauthorized software, or a compromised host.

Why Option D is Correct:

Unusual network traffic patternsare often an indicator of acompromised system.

VM002 should not be communicating externally, but it is.

This suggests a possiblebreach or malware infectionattempting to communicate with a command-and-control (C2) server.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A (Misconfiguration):While a misconfiguration could explain the unauthorized connections, the pattern of activity suggests something more malicious.

B (Security incident on HOST002):The issue is not with HOST002. The suspicious activity isfrom VM002.

C (False positives):The repeated pattern of unauthorized connections makes false positivesunlikely.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Managing telemetry and differentiating it by office requires a way to categorize data. Let’s evaluate:

A. Sensor placement:Useful for data collection but doesn’t inherently differentiate by office.

B. Data labeling:Assigns metadata (e.g., office location) to telemetry, enabling differentiation. This aligns with CAS-005’s focus on data management for security operations.

C. Continuous monitoring:Ensures ongoing data collection but doesn’t address differentiation.

Homomorphic encryption allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it, preserving confidentiality. However, its adoption faces significant challenges due to performance overhead. According to the CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 study materials (Domain 3: Cybersecurity Technology, 3.3), homomorphic encryption requires substantial computational resources, which standard processors struggle to provide efficiently. Specialized hardware, such as coprocessors (e.g., GPUs or TPUs), is oftenneeded to handle the complex mathematical operations involved. The lack of widespread, optimized coprocessor support in existing infrastructure is a primary barrier to adoption.

Option A (Incomplete mathematical primitives):While early homomorphic encryption schemes had limitations, modern schemes (e.g., CKKS, BFV) have mature mathematical foundations, making this less of a challenge today.

Option B (No use cases):Use cases exist, such as secure cloud computing and privacy-preserving data analytics, so this is not accurate.

Option C (Quantum computers):Homomorphic encryption is not dependent on quantum computing, and quantum computers are unrelated to its current challenges.

Option D (Insufficient coprocessor support):This is the most accurate, as performance bottlenecks require specialized hardware that is not yet widely available or integrated.

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) v3.1 uses three metric groups to calculate overall scores:Base,Temporal, andEnvironmental.

Base (E):Mandatory metrics assessing exploitability (e.g., attack vector) and impact (confidentiality, integrity, availability).

Temporal (A):Optional metrics reflecting the current state of the vulnerability (e.g., exploit availability, remediation level).

Environmental (F):Optional metrics tailoring the score to the organization’s context (e.g., security requirements).

B, C, D (Availability, Integrity, Confidentiality):These are subcomponents of the Base Impact metrics, not standalone groups.

G (Impact):A categorywithin Base, not a group.

H (Attack vector):A single Base metric, not a group.

Proper parsing of data is crucial for the SIEM to accurately interpret and analyze the logs being forwarded by the log collector. If the data is not parsed correctly, the SIEM may misinterpret the logs, leading to false positives and inaccurate alerts. Ensuring that the log data is correctly parsed allows the SIEM to correlate and analyze the logs effectively, which is essential for accurate alerting and monitoring.

Malware that does not execute in a sandbox environment often contains anti-analysis techniques, such as anti-virtualization code. This code detects when the malware is running in a virtualized environment and alters its behavior to avoid detection. Checking for anti-virtualization code is a logical next step because:

It helps determine if the malware is designed to evade analysis tools.

Identifying such code can provide insights into themalware's behavior and intent.

This step can also inform further analysis methods, such as running the malware on physical hardware.

The most likely cause of the anti-malware alerts on customer workstations is unsecure bundled libraries. When developing and deploying new applications, it is common for developers to use third-party libraries. If these libraries are not properly vetted for security, they can introduce vulnerabilities or malicious code.

Why Unsecure Bundled Libraries?

Third-Party Risks: Using libraries that are not secure can lead to malware infections if the libraries contain malicious code or vulnerabilities.

Code Dependencies: Libraries may have dependencies that are not secure, leading to potential security risks.

Common Issue: This is a frequent issue in software development where libraries are used for convenience but not properly vetted for security.

Other options, while relevant, are less likely to cause widespread anti-malware alerts:

A. Misconfigured code commit: Could lead to issues but less likely to trigger anti-malware alerts.

C. Invalid code signing certificate: Would lead to trust issues but not typically anti-malware alerts.

D. Data leakage: Relevant for privacy concerns but not directly related to anti-malware alerts.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:

Understanding the Scenario: Theorganization is using customer-managed encryption keys in the cloud, which is more expensive than using the cloud provider's free managed keys. The CISO needs to find a way to reduce costs without significantly weakening the security posture.

Analyzing the Answer Choices:

A. Utilize an on-premises HSM to locally manage keys: While on-premises HSMs offer strong security, they introduce additional costs and complexity (procurement, maintenance, etc.). This option is unlikely to reduce costs compared to cloud-based key management.

B. Adjust the configuration for cloud provider keys on data that is classified as public: This is the most practical and cost-effective approach. Data classified as public doesn't require the same level of protection as sensitive data. Using the cloud provider's free managed keys for public data can significantly reduce costs without compromising security, as the data is intended to be publicly accessible anyway.

Remote journaling continuously sends log updates to a remote system, ensuring near-real-time backup and an RPO (Recovery Point Objective) under one hour.

Key concepts:

RPO under one hour means minimal data loss.

Remote journaling provides rapid recovery by keeping near-live backups.

Other options:

A(Full disk encryption) protects against unauthorized access but does not aid recovery.

C (Immutable storage) prevents modification but does not ensure real-time backups.

D (RAID 10) improves redundancy but does not help against ransomware.

The issue is tracing the original source of requests in a tiered architecture with a load balancer. The web server logs show internal IPs (192.168.1.10), not the external client IPs, because the load balancer forwards requests without preserving the source. Enabling theX-Forwarded-Forheader on the load balancer adds the client’s original IP to the HTTP request headers, allowing downstream servers to log it. This ensures traceability without altering the architecture significantly.

Option A:Correct—X-Forwarded-For is the standard solution for preserving client IPs through load balancers.

Option B:A Host-based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) detects anomalies but doesn’t address IP traceability.

Option C:A trusted CA certificate fixes the self-signed warning but is unrelated to source tracking.

Option D:Stored procedures improve database security but don’t help with IP logging.

Option E:Storing $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'] captures the loadbalancer’s IP, not the client’s, unless X-Forwarded-For is enabled.

To address the specific OS benchmark configurations, the following solutions are most appropriate:

C. SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol): SCAP helps in automating vulnerability management and policy compliance, including configurations like full disk encryption, host-based firewalls, and password policies.

D. SASE (Secure Access Service Edge): SASE provides a framework for Zero Trust network access and application allow listing, ensuring secure and compliant access to applications and data.

These solutions together cover the comprehensive security requirements specified in the OS benchmark, ensuring a robust security posture for endpoints.