CompTIA CAS-004 CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Exam Practice Test

The SIEM events show that powershell.exe was executed on multiple endpoints with an outbound connection to 40.90.23.154, which is an IP address associated with malicious activity. This could indicate a malware infection or a command-and-control channel. The best response action is to configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154, which would prevent further communication with the malicious IP address. Disabling powershell.exe on all endpoints may not be feasible or effective, as it could affect legitimate operations and not remove the malware. Restarting Microsoft Windows Defender may not detect or stop the malware, as it could have bypassed or disabled it. Disabling local administrator privileges on the endpoints may not prevent the malware from running or communicating, as it could have escalated privileges or used other methods. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-forward-proxy https://partners.comptia.o rg/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

DRM (digital rights management) is a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by restricting the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices. DRM can use encryption, authentication, licensing, watermarking, or other methods to enforce the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent unauthorized copying, sharing, or piracy of digital content, such as software, music, movies, or books. Watermarking is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can embed identifying information or marks in digital content or media, such as images, audio, or video. Watermarking can help prove ownership or origin of digital content, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. NDA (non-disclosure agreement) is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a legal contract that binds parties to keep certain information confidential and not disclose it to unauthorized parties. NDA can help protect sensitive or proprietary information from exposure or misuse, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. Access logging is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can record the activities or events related to accessing data or resources. Access logging can help monitor or audit access to data or resources, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-drm https://partners.compt ia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

We recommend that you encrypt your virtual hard disks (VHDs) to help protect your boot volume and data volumes at rest in storage, along with your encryption keys and secrets. Azure Disk Encryption helps you encrypt your Windows and Linux IaaS virtual machine disks. Azure Disk Encryption uses the industry-standard BitLocker feature of Windows and the DM-Crypt feature of Linux to provide volume encryption for the OS and the data disks. The solution is integrated with Azure Key Vault to help you control and manage the disk-encryption keys and secrets in your key vault subscription. The solution also ensures that all data on the virtual machine disks are encrypted at rest in Azure Storage. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/iaas

Deploying SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) utilities and runbooks is the best technique for automating the process of restoring nominal performance on a legacy satellite link due to degraded modes of operation caused by deprecated hardware and software.

VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure), proxy, CASB (cloud access security broker), and DRM (digital rights management) are technologies that can mitigate the concerns of processing sensitive information using SaaS (software as a service) collaboration tools. VDI is a technology that provides virtualized desktop environments for users that are hosted and managed by a central server, allowing users to access applications or data from any device or location. VDI can prevent data leakage to the media via printing of documents, as it can restrict or monitor the printing capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Proxy is a technology that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers, filtering or modifying web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Proxy can prevent data leakage to a personal email address, as it can block or redirect web requests to unauthorized or untrusted email domains or services. CASB is a technology that provides visibility and control over cloud services or applications, enforcing security policies or compliance requirements based on predefined rules or criteria. CASB can prevent data access and viewing by systems administrators, as it can encrypt or mask sensitive data before it reaches the cloud provider or application, making it unreadable or inaccessible by unauthorized parties. DRM is a technology that restricts the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices, enforcing the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent data upload to a file storage site, as it can limit or disable the copying, sharing, or transferring capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-vdi https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A WAF protects your web apps by filtering, monitoring, and blocking any malicious HTTP/S traffic traveling to the web application, and prevents any unauthorized data from leaving the app. It does this by adhering to a set of policies that help determine what traffic is malicious and what traffic is safe.

According to OWASP, LDAP injection is an attack that exploits web applications that construct LDAP statements based on user input without proper validation or sanitization. LDAP injection can result in unauthorized access, data modification, or denial of service. To prevent LDAP injection, OWASP recommends conducting input sanitization by escaping special characters in user input and deploying a web application firewall (WAF) that can detect and block malicious LDAP queries.45

Steganography is a technique that can hide data within other files or media, such as images, audio, or video. This can provide a low-cost approach to theft detection for the audio recordings produced and sold by the small business, as it can embed identifying information or watermarks in the audio files that can reveal their origin or ownership. Performing deep-packet inspection of all digital audio files may not be feasible or effective for theft detection, as it could consume a lot of bandwidth and resources, and it may not detect hidden data within encrypted packets. Adding identifying filesystem metadata to the digital audio files may not provide enough protection for theft detection, as filesystem metadata can be easily modified or removed by unauthorized parties. Purchasing and installing a DRM (digital rights management) suite may not be a low-cost approach for theft detection, as it could involve licensing fees and hardware requirements. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is- steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Moving the server to a cloud provider is the most cost-effective solution to avoid performance issues caused by too many connections during peak seasons, such as holidays. Moving the server to a cloud provider can provide scalability, elasticity, and availability for the web server, as it can adjust its resources and capacity according to the demand and traffic. Moving the server to a cloud provider can also reduce operational and maintenance costs, as the cloud provider can handle the infrastructure and security aspects. Changing the operating system may not help avoid performance issues, as it could introduce compatibility or functionality problems, and it may not address the resource or capacity limitations. Buying a new server and creating an active-active cluster may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as complex configuration and management tasks. Upgrading the server with a new one may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as migration and testing efforts. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-computing https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

This is because the homegrown identity management system is not consistent with best practices and leaves the institution vulnerable, which means it needs to be replaced with a more secure and reliable solution. A new IAM system/vendor should be able to provide features such as role-based access control, two-factor authentication, auditing, and compliance that can enhance the security and efficiency of the identity management process. A requirements document can help define the scope, objectives, and criteria for selecting a suitable IAM system/vendor that meets the needs of the institution.

IMAPS (Internet Message Access Protocol Secure) is a protocol that allows users to access and manipulate email messages on a remote mail server over a secure connection. IMAPS uses SSL/TLS encryption to protect the communication between the client and the server. IMAPS uses port 993 by default. To ensure IMAPS functions properly on the corporate user network, the security engineer should create an IMAPS firewall rule on the UTM (Unified Threat Management) device that allows traffic from VLAN 10 (Corporate Users) to VLAN 20 (Email Server) over port 993. The existing firewall rules do not allow this traffic, as they only allow HTTP (port 80), HTTPS (port 443), and SMTP (port 25). References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2460/internet-message-access-protocol-secure-imaps https://www.sophos.com/en-us/support/knowledgebase/115145.aspx

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr https://p artners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

 An information-sharing community is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, and mitigation strategies related to cybersecurity. An information-sharing community can help the company proactively manage the threats of potential theft of its newly developed, proprietary information by providing timely and actionable insights, alerts, and recommendations. An information-sharing community can also enable collaboration and coordination among its members to enhance their collective defense and resilience. References: https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-016 https://www.cisecurity.org/blog/what-is-an-info rmation-sharing-community/

A wildcard certificate is a certificate that can be used for multiple subdomains of a domain, such as *.example.com. This would allow the inspection of the data without multiple certificate deployments, as one wildcard certificate can cover all the subdomains that will be separated out with subdomains. Including all available cipher suites may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as cipher suites are used for negotiating encryption and authentication algorithms, not for verifying certificates. Using a third-party CA (certificate authority) may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as a third-party CA is an entity that issues and validates certificates, not a type of certificate. Implementing certificate pinning may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as certificate pinning is a technique that hardcodes the expected certificate or public key in the application code, not a type of certificate. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-wildcard-certificate https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Utilizing HMAC (hash-based message authentication code) for the keys is the best option for securing the REST API connection to the database while preventing the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. HMAC is a technique that uses a secret key and a hash function to generate a code that can verify the authenticity and integrity of a message, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Utilizing HMAC for the keys can prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string, as it can dynamically generate a unique code for each request based on the secret key and the message content, making it difficult to forge or replay. Implementing a VPN (virtual private network) for all APIs is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Signing the key with DSA (Digital Signature Algorithm) is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could be vulnerable to attacks or forgery if the key is compromised or weak, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Deploying MFA (multi-factor authentication) for the service accounts is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could affect the usability or functionality of API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-hmac https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

DLP (data loss prevention) is a solution that can meet the following requirements: identify sensitive data in the provider’s network, maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines, detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts, and enforce data-centric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and access control. DLP can monitor, classify, and protect data in motion, at rest, or in use, and prevent unauthorized disclosure or exfiltration. WAF (web application firewall) is a solution that can protect web applications from common attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting, but it does not address the requirements listed. CASB (cloud access security broker) is a solution that can enforce policies and controls for accessing cloud services and applications, but it does not address the requirements listed. SWG (secure web gateway) is a solution that can monitor and filter web traffic to prevent malicious or unauthorized access, but it does not address the requirements listed. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guid

This solution would address the three issues as follows:

• Serving static content via distributed CDNs would reduce the latency for international users by delivering images from the nearest edge location to the user’s request.
• Creating a read replica of the central database and pulling reports from there would offload the read-intensive workload from the primary database and avoid affecting the inventory data for order placement.
• Auto-scaling API servers based on performance would dynamically adjust the number of servers to match the demand and balance the load across them at peak times.

A VPN (virtual private network) can provide secure connectivity for remote users to access servers hosted by the cloud provider. A CASB (cloud access security broker) can enforce policies and controls for accessing SaaS applications. A secure web gateway can monitor and filter user browser activity to prevent malicious or unauthorized traffic. Verified References: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpn

 This could be the cause of the lack of visibility from the WAF (Web Application Firewall) for the web application, as the WAF may not be able to inspect or block unencrypted HTTP traffic. To solve this issue, the web server should redirect all HTTP requests to HTTPS and use SSL/TLS certificates to encrypt the traffic.

Cgroups (control groups) is a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, such as CPU, memory, disk I/O, or network bandwidth. Cgroups can help prevent resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources, as it can enforce quotas or priorities for each container or group of containers. Union filesystem overlay is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a technique that allows multiple filesystems to be mounted on the same mount point, creating a layered representation of files and directories. Linux namespaces is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a feature that isolates and virtualizes system resources for each process or group of processes, creating independent instances of global resources. Device mapper is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a framework that provides logical volume management, encryption, or snapshotting capabilities for block devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cgroups https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/ca sp-content-guide

The Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) is a method for using specific standards to enable automated vulnerability management, measurement, and policy compliance evaluation. Using SCAP can help to identify vulnerabilities, including those without standard definitions, and ensure they are tracked and managed effectively.

In the event of a fire at the main data center, the immediate action should be to review and engage the disaster recovery plan. This is to ensure the continuity of business operations. The CIO should coordinate with IT leaders from both companies to ensure a unified response. Assessing the damage and planning for recovery are crucial, and leveraging the expertise from both companies can help streamline the process.

Open-source intelligence (OSINT) refers to the collection and analysis of information that is gathered from public, or open, sources. In the context of confirming the legitimacy of an email, OSINT could involve checking online databases, public records, or using search engines to find information related to the email's domain, the sender, links included in the email, or file hashes of attachments. This method can help determine if the email is part of a known phishing campaign or if it has been flagged by others as suspicious.

Restricting HTTP methods can mitigate the risk of network-based attacks against an online store by limiting the types of HTTP requests that the server will accept, thus reducing the attack surface. This is a common method to prevent web-based attacks such as Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) and SQL Injection.

The logs indicate a directory traversal attempt (/../..//.etc/shadow), which is a type of attack that exploits insufficient security validation/sanitization of user-supplied input file names, so that characters representing "traverse to parent directory" are passed through to the file APIs. The /etc/shadow file on Unix systems contains password hashes. If an attacker successfully exploited this vulnerability, they could potentially access the hashed SSH password. This information could then be used to gain unauthorized access to the server if the hash was cracked.

Chain of custody is critical in legal contexts as it documents the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence. If the chain of custody is broken, it means there is a possibility that the evidence could have been tampered with or compromised, which can lead to it being deemed inadmissible in court.

To reduce the risk of unauthorized devices accessing company resources, requiring device certificates is an effective control. Device certificates can be used to authenticate devices before they are allowed to connect to the network and access resources, ensuring that only devices with a valid certificate, which are typically managed and issued by the organization, can connect.

Air gapping, which means physically isolating a secure network from unsecured networks, including the public internet, is one of the most effective ways to prevent side-channel attacks. By creating an air gap, you remove the pathways that an attacker might exploit to gain unauthorized access to sensitive systems and manipulate them, as in the case of the SCADA system mentioned.

The SIEM logs indicate suspicious behavior that could be a sign of a compromise, such as the launching of cmd.exe after Outlook.exe, which is atypical user behavior and could indicate that a machine has been compromised to perform lateral movement within the network. Isolating laptop314 from the network would contain the threat and prevent any potential spread to other systems while further investigation takes place.

To protect confidential financial information on a laptop that is frequently moved between locations, full disk encryption (FDE) is a strong security measure that ensures that all data on the hard drive is encrypted. This means that if the laptop is lost or stolen, the data remains inaccessible without the encryption key. Additionally, backing up the file to an encrypted flash drive provides an extra layer of security and ensures that there is a secure copy of the file in case the laptop is compromised.

The incident response cycle's preparation phase includes establishing policies and procedures for reporting lost or stolen devices promptly. If an employee's device was missing for 96 hours before being reported, this indicates a lack of awareness or clear procedures on the employee's part, pointing to inadequacies in the preparation phase of the incident response.

A virtual next-generation firewall (vNGFW) is a software version of a NGFW that can be deployed on cloud servers to provide advanced network security features. A vNGFW can help secure the cloud environment similarly to the infrastructure on premises by providing functions such as URL filtering, SSL/TLS inspection, deep packet inspection, antivirus, IPS, application control, and sandboxing. A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can help secure the web servers in the cloud environment by protecting them from common attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and cross-site request forgery (CSRF). Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on criteria such as identity, role, or function. Microsegmentation can help secure the cloud environment by isolating different types of servers and applying granular security policies to each segment.

A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the availability and performance of web applications by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. However, a CDN does not provide the same level of security as a vNGFW or a WAF. Software-defined WAN (SD-WAN) is a technology that uses software to manage the connectivity and routing of wide area network (WAN) traffic across multiple links or carriers. SD-WAN can help improve the reliability and efficiency of WAN connections by dynamically selecting the best path for each application based on factors such as bandwidth, latency, cost, and quality of service (QoS). However, SD-WAN does not provide the same level of security as a vNGFW or a WAF. External vulnerability scans are assessments that identify and report on the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of an IT system from an external perspective. External vulnerability scans can help improve the security posture of an IT system by providing visibility into its exposure to potential threats. However, external vulnerability scans do not provide the same level of protection as a vNGFW or a WAF. Containers are units of software that package an application and its dependencies into a standardized format that can run on any platform or environment. Containers can help improve the portability and scalability of applications by allowing them to run independently from the underlying infrastructure. However, containers do not provide the same level of security as microsegmentation. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.3: Implement solutions for the secure use of cloud services

Calculating the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) and conducting a cost-benefit analysis is a critical part of risk management. The ALE will help the company understand the potential losses associated with the server failure per year, which can then be weighed against the cost of mitigating the risk (e.g., replacing the server or implementing redundancies). This analysis will inform the decision on the best course of action to manage the risk associated with the aging server.

The command depicted is indicative of a reverse shell, which is a type of shell where the target system initiates an outgoing connection to a remote host, and then standard input and output of the command line interface on the target system is redirected through this connection to the remote host. This is typically used by an attacker after exploitation to open a remote command line interface to control the compromised machine.

Galois/Counter Mode (GCM) is an AES mode of operation that provides both confidentiality and data integrity. It is well-suited for processing streams of data, making it ideal for streaming video services. GCM is known for its strong cryptographic security and good performance, which aligns with the legacy cipher's characteristics and the streaming service's requirements.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. SIEMs are beneficial in environments where there is a mix of various solutions, as they can collect and aggregate logs from multiple sources, providing the internal security team with a centralized view and visibility into all platforms. This would best meet the objective of ensuring visibility into all platforms, regardless of the differing solutions across the company's locations.

The SAN (Subject Alternative Name) field in a certificate can include multiple types of entries, including DNS names and email addresses. These are explicit options within the SAN extension, allowing a single certificate to be valid for multiple domain names and email addresses. This is often used in multi-domain SSL certificates, where a single certificate needs to be valid for multiple subdomains or different domain names.

Obfuscation is a technique used to make the program code difficult to understand or read. It can help to prevent reverse engineering by making it more challenging to analyze the code and understand its structure and functionality, thereby protecting intellectual property.

Change management is a systematic approach to dealing with the transition or transformation of an organization's goals, processes, or technologies. In the context of implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution and ensuring that authorized modifications are well-planned and executed, change management is critical. It ensures that changes are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner to minimize the impact on service quality and mitigate risks associated with the changes.

The first step in forensic analysis is to collect the most volatile data, which is the information that would be lost when the power is turned off or the system is rebooted. This includes the contents of memory (RAM) and other temporary data that are stored in caches or buffers. A memory dump captures this data and should be done before other less volatile data is collected, like hard drive images or log files, to ensure the most accurate and comprehensive capture of the system's state at the time of the incident.

HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) is a web security policy mechanism that helps to protect websites against man-in-the-middle attacks such as protocol downgrade attacks and cookie hijacking. It allows web servers to declare that web browsers (or other complying user agents) should only interact with it using secure HTTPS connections, and never via the insecure HTTP protocol. Enabling HSTS would prevent attackers from redirecting users from a secure site to an unsecure or malicious one.

Code signing is the process of digitally signing executables and scripts to confirm the software author and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it was signed. This provides users with the assurance that the software is legitimate and safe to install.

Risk acceptance is the decision to accept the potential risk and continue operating without engaging in extraordinary measures to mitigate it. If the cost of anti-malware exceeds the potential loss from a malware threat, it would be more cost-effective to accept the risk rather than spend more on mitigations that don't provide proportional value. This is part of a cost-benefit analysis in risk management.

A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that allows the sender of a file to sign it with their private key and the receiver to verify it with the sender’s public key. This ensures the integrity and authenticity of the file, as well as the non-repudiation of the sender. A message hash or a message digest is a one-way function that produces a fixed-length output from an input, but it does not provide any information about the sender. A message authentication code (MAC) is a symmetric-key technique that allows both the sender and the receiver to generate and verify a code using a shared secret key, but it does not provide non-repudiation. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.1: Apply cryptographic techniques

The observation that the load balancer has only a single server assigned suggests an issue with scalability. Scalability refers to the ability of the system to handle increasing loads by adding resources. In this case, having a single server assigned to a load balancer may not be adequate to handle increased traffic or load, which could lead to performance issues.

One of the known security concerns with the Distributed Network Protocol version 3 (DNP3), which is used in SCADA systems, is the lack of built-in security features, including authentication. This means that by default, it does not verify the identity of the entities communicating, making it susceptible to unauthorized access and commands.

SELinux contexts are typically made up of several components, including the user identity, role, type (also known as domain or type), and MLS (Multi-Level Security) level. The context format is user:role:type:level. In the given output sys:secret:sec_t:s0, 'sys' represents the user identity, 'secret' is the role, 'sec_t' is the type, and 's0' is the MLS level. Understanding SELinux contexts is critical for managing Mandatory Access Control (MAC) in GNU/Linux systems to protect against unauthorized access.

Tokenization is the process of replacing sensitive data, like credit card numbers, with unique identification symbols (tokens) that retain all the essential information without compromising its security. This method is compliant with PCI DSS requirements as it ensures that actual credit card data is not stored or processed, thus minimizing the risk of data breaches. Tokenization also maintains confidentiality even if part of the data handling system is compromised, as the tokens do not hold any exploitable data.

A Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) is a process used to evaluate and manage privacy risks associated with the collection, use, and storage of personally identifiable information (PII). One of the key functions of a PIA is to document residual risks, which are the privacy risks that remain after controls have been applied. By identifying and documenting these risks, organizations can make informed decisions about whether additional measures are needed or whether certain risks are acceptable.

A lack of Mobile Device Management (MDM) controls can lead to successful attacks because MDM solutions provide the ability to enforce security policies, remotely wipe sensitive data, and manage software updates, which can prevent unauthorized access and protect corporate data. Without MDM, personal devices are more vulnerable to security risks.

NetFlow logs provide visibility into network traffic patterns and volume, which can be analyzed to detect anomalies, including potential security incidents. They can be invaluable in correlating the timing and nature of network events with security incidents to better understand if there is an association.

Subject Alternative Name (SAN) is a part of the X.509 specification for SSL certificates that allows multiple domain names to be protected under a single SSL certificate. Using SAN is the most suitable option when a single Certificate Signing Request (CSR) needs to cover multiple hostnames. It enables the security engineer to list all the required hostnames in one certificate, ensuring secure communications for each listed entity without the need for separate certificates.

Passwordless authentication is an authentication method that does not require the user to enter a password. Instead, it relies on alternative forms of verification, such as biometric readers (fingerprint or facial recognition), proximity badge entry systems, and hardware security tokens. These technologies provide a means to authenticate users with higher assurance levels and would benefit the most from the use of the mentioned devices and methods.

The inability to select AES-256 encryption will most likely be a limiting factor when selecting mobile device managers for the company. AES-256 is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses a 256-bit key to encrypt and decrypt data. It is considered one of the strongest encryption methods available and is widely used for securing sensitive data. Mobile device managers are software applications that allow administrators to remotely manage and secure mobile devices used by employees. However, not all mobile device managers may support AES-256 encryption or allow the company to enforce it as a policy on all mobile devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://searchmobilecomputing.techtarget.com/definition/mobile-device-management

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to bolster the network security by restricting the availability of network resources to managed endpoints that don't satisfy the compliance requirements of the Organization.

TPMs provide the ability to store measurements of code and data that can be used to ensure that code and data remain unchanged over time. This is done through Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs), which are structures used to store measurements of code and data. The measurements are taken during the boot process and can be used to compare the state of the system at different times, which can be used to detect any changes to the system and verify that the system has not been tampered with.

OCSP stapling and HSTS are the best options to meet the requirements of reducing the risk of on-path attacks and implementing stronger digital trust. OCSP stapling allows the social media servers to improve TLS performance by sending a signed certificate status along with the certificate, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately. HSTS allows the social media servers to inform the client to only use HTTPS and prevent downgrade attacks. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario. 

E-discovery is the process of searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit. E-discovery involves identifying, preserving, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant for a legal case or investigation. E-discovery can be used to find evidence in email, business communications, social media, online documents, databases, and other digital sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario

Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario

A denial of service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a server by overwhelming it with requests or traffic1. One possible indicator of a DoS attack is a large number of connections from a single source IP address1. In this case, the output of netstat -an shows that there are many connections from 213.37.55.67 with different port numbers and in TIME WAIT state23. This suggests that the attacker is sending many SYN packets to initiate connections but not completing them, thus exhausting the server’s resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing it1.

User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to monitor and detect unusual or malicious activity by privileged users who failed the phishing exercise. UEBA uses machine learning and behavioral analytics to establish a baseline of normal activity and identify anomalies that indicate potential threats. UEBA can help detect compromised credentials, insider threats, and advanced persistent threats that may evade traditional security solutions. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario. 

Filter XYZ is the best option that meets the budget needs of the business. Filter XYZ has an ALE of $1 million per year, which is lower than any other filter option. ALE stands for annualized loss expectancy, which is a measure of how much money a business can expect to lose due to a risk over a year. ALE is calculated by multiplying the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) of an event by the single loss expectancy (SLE) of an event. ARO is how often an event is expected to occur in a year. SLE is how much money an event will cost each time it occurs. Therefore, ALE = ARO x SLE. Filter XYZ has an ARO of 0.1 and an SLE of $10 million, so ALE = 0.1 x $10 million = $1 million. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/annualized-loss-expectancy-ale

SQL injection is a type of vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL commands on a database by inserting them into an input field. The code snippet resolves this vulnerability by using parameterized queries, which prevent the input from being interpreted as part of the SQL command. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection

A hybrid IaaS solution in a single-tenancy cloud is the best option for the company to meet the computing demand while complying with healthcare standards for virtualization and cloud computing. A hybrid IaaS solution allows the company to use both on-premises and cloud-based resources to scale up its capacity and performance. A single-tenancy cloud ensures that the company’s data and applications are isolated from other customers and have dedicated resources and security controls. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/special-topics/cloud-computing/index.html

The BEST course of action for the security analyst to help prevent a similar situation in the near future is to Establish cross-account trusts to connect all VPCs via API for secure configuration scanning (A). Cross-account trusts allow for VPCs to be securely connected for the purpose of secure configuration scanning, which can help to identify and remediate vulnerabilities within the system. 

 The company using the wrong port is the most likely root cause of why secure LDAP is not working. Secure LDAP is a protocol that provides secure communication between clients and servers using LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol), which is a protocol that allows querying and modifying directory services over TCP/IP. Secure LDAP uses SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) or TLS (Transport Layer Security) to encrypt LDAP traffic and prevent unauthorized disclosure or interception. 

A source code escrow is a legal agreement that involves a third party holding the source code of a software application on behalf of the software vendor and the software licensee. The source code escrow ensures that the licensee can access the source code in case the vendor goes out of business, fails to provide maintenance or support, or breaches the contract terms.

A source code escrow would have prevented the risk of having an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business, because it would:

• Allow the licensee to obtain the source code and continue to update, fix, or modify the application according to their needs.
• Protect the vendor’s intellectual property rights and prevent unauthorized disclosure or use of the source code.
• Provide a legal framework and a trusted mediator for resolving any disputes or issues between the vendor and the licensee.

Defining ACLs in a CSP relies on software-defined networking. Software-defined networking (SDN) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing for centralized and programmable network management. SDN can enable dynamic and flexible network configuration and optimization, as well as improved security and performance. In a CSP, SDN can be used to define ACLs that can apply to virtual networks, subnets, or interfaces, regardless of the physical infrastructure. SDN can also allow for granular and consistent ACL enforcement across different cloud services and regions. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsdn/definition/software-defined-networking-SDN
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/guide/networking/network-security
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definition/cloud-networking

 Disabling file exchange can help to minimize data leakage by preventing users from sharing sensitive documents or data through the videoconferencing platform. Enabling watermarking can help to maintain customer trust and ensure non-repudiation by adding a visible or invisible mark to the video stream that identifies the source or owner of the content. Enabling the user authentication requirement can help to secure the videoconferencing sessions by verifying the identity of the participants and preventing unauthorized access. Verified References:

• https://www.rev.com/blog/marketing/follow-these-7-video-conferencing-security-best-practices
• https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/blog/2020/04/network-video-conferencing-security/
• https://www.megameeting.com/news/best-practices-secure-video-conferencing/

The browser is the application that the security analyst should patch first, given that all the applications have equally high CVSS scores. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a method for measuring the severity of vulnerabilities based on various factors, such as access conditions, impact, and exploitability. CVSS scores range from 0 to 10, with higher scores indicating higher severity. However, CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to determine the patching priority, as they do not account for other factors, such as the likelihood of exploitation, the exposure of the system, or the criticality of the data. Therefore, the security analyst should also consider the context and the risk of each application when deciding which one to patch first. In this case, the browser is likely to be the most exposed and frequently used application by the network administrator, and also the most likely entry point for an attacker to compromise the system or access the SSO web portal. Therefore, patching the browser first can reduce the risk of a successful attack and protect the system and the data from further damage. Verified References:

• https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
• https://www.darkreading.com/risk/vulnerability-severity-scores-make-for-poor-patching-priority-researchers-find

A static code analyzer is a tool that analyzes computer software without actually running the software. A static code analyzer can help developers find and fix vulnerabilities, bugs, and security risks in their new applications while the source code is in its ‘static’ state. A static code analyzer can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities by checking the code against a set of coding rules, standards, and best practices. A static code analyzer can also help improve the code quality, performance, and maintainability.

A. An open-source automation server is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. An open-source automation server is a tool that automates various tasks related to software development and delivery, such as building, testing, deploying, and monitoring. An open-source automation server can help speed up the CI/CD pipeline, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

C. Trusted open-source libraries are not tools that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. Trusted open-source libraries are collections of reusable code that developers can use to implement common or complex functionalities in their applications. Trusted open-source libraries can help save time and effort for developers, but they do not guarantee that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities.

D. A single code repository for all developers is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. A single code repository for all developers is a centralized storage location where developers can access and manage their source code files. A single code repository for all developers can help facilitate collaboration and version control, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

https://www.comparitech.co m/net-admin/best-static-code-analysis-tools/

https://www.perforce.com/blog/sca/what-static-analysis

The root cause of this issue is that the iOS keychain imported only the client public and private keys, but not the CA certificate. A PKCS#12 file (.p12 or .pfx) is a file format that contains a certificate and its private key, optionally protected by a password. A PKCS#12 file can also contain intermediate certificates or root certificates that are needed to verify the certificate chain. However, when importing a PKCS#12 file into the iOS keychain, only the certificate and its private key are imported, not the CA certificate. This means that the iOS device cannot verify the authenticity of the certificate, and displays the error message “mbedTLS: ca certificate undefined”. To fix this issue, the CA certificate needs to be imported separately into the iOS keychain, either manually or using a configuration profile. Verified References:

• https://developer.apple.com/documentation/devicemanagement/certificatepkcs12
• https://support.apple.com/guide/deployment/distribute-certificates-depcdc9a6a3f/web
• https://openvpn.net/faq/how-do-i-use-a-client-certificate-and-private-key-from-the-ios-keychain/

The organization is implementing homomorphic encryption. Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. This means that the organization can analyze the customers’ data and deliver analysis results without being able to see the raw data, preserving the privacy and confidentiality of the customers. Homomorphic encryption can enable various applications, such as cloud computing, machine learning, and data analytics, that require processing sensitive data without compromising security. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/homomorphic-encryption
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-at-rest
• https://www.ibm.com/topics/homomorphic-encryption

Resource exhaustion is a condition that occurs when a system or service runs out of resources, such as memory, CPU, disk space, or bandwidth, and becomes unable to function properly or respond to requests. Resource exhaustion can be caused by high demand, poor design, misconfiguration, or malicious attacks, such as denial-of-service (DoS).

Resource exhaustion would be the most significant business risk to a company that signs a contract with a cloud service provider (CSP) that is able to provide the same uptime as other CSPs at a markedly reduced cost, because this could:

• Indicate that the CSP is oversubscribing or underprovisioning its resources, which could result in performance degradation, service disruption, or data loss for the company.
• Affect the company’s availability, reliability, and scalability requirements, which could impact its operations, reputation, and customer satisfaction.
• Expose the company to potential security breaches or compliance violations, if the CSP does not implement adequate security controls or measures to prevent or mitigate resource exhaustion.

The EDR output shows the process tree of the ransomware infection. The root node is NO-AV.exe, which is a malicious executable that disables antivirus software and downloads the DearCry ransomware. The NO-AV.exe process was launched on cpt-ws026 by a user named John. The DearCry.exe process was then launched on cpt-ws026 by NO-AV.exe and propagated to other devices via SMB. Therefore, the ransomware originated from cpt-ws026 and NO-AV.exe. Verified References:

• https://www.microsoft.com/security/blog/2021/03/12/analyzing-dearcry-ransomware-the-first-attack-to-exploit-exchange-server-vulnerabilities/
• https://www.crowdstrike.com/blog/dearcry-ransomware-analysis/

OS credential dumping is the process of obtaining account login and password information, normally in the form of a hash or a clear text password, from the operating system and software. System information discovery is the process of gathering information about the system, such as hostname, IP address, OS version, running processes, etc. Both of these techniques are commonly used by adversaries to gain access to sensitive data and resources on the target system. The command shown in the image is using Mimikatz, a tool that can dump credentials from memory, and also querying the system information using WMIC. Verified References:

• https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1003/
• https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1082/
• https://github.com/gentilkiwi/mimikatz
• https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/wmisdk/wmic

Remote access services deployed using vendor-diverse redundancy with event response driven by playbooks is the best solution to meet the requirements. Vendor-diverse redundancy means using different vendors or technologies to provide the same service or function, which can increase the availability and resilience of the service. For example, if one vendor’s VPN solution fails due to a zero-day vulnerability, another vendor’s VPN solution can take over without affecting the users. Event response driven by playbooks means using predefined workflows or scripts to automate the actions or decisions that need to be taken in response to certain events or triggers. For example, a playbook can define how to switch between different remote access solutions based on certain criteria or conditions, such as performance, availability, security, or manual input. Playbooks can also be integrated with SOAR platforms to leverage their capabilities for orchestration, automation, and response. Verified References:

• https://cyware.com/security-guides/security-orchestration-automation-and-response/what-is-vendor-agnostic-security-orchestration-automation-and-response-soar-40e4
• https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-security-playbook

Delivering an updated threat signature throughout the endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is the best way to take advantage of the security solution that uses a sandbox environment to execute zero-day software and collect indicators of compromise. An EDR system is a solution that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, mobile devices, or servers, and detects and responds to potential threats. An EDR system can use threat signatures, which are patterns or characteristics of known malicious software or attacks, to identify and block malicious activities on endpoints. By delivering an updated threat signature based on the indicators of compromise collected from the sandbox environment, the organization can enhance its EDR system’s ability to detect and prevent zero-day attacks that exploit unknown vulnerabilities. Verified References:

• https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-endpoint-detection-response.html
• https://www.crowdstrike.com/epp-101/what-is-a-sandbox/

Containerization is a technology that allows applications to run in isolated and portable environments called containers. Containers are lightweight and self-contained units that include all the dependencies, libraries, and configuration files needed for an application to run. Containers can be deployed on any platform that supports the container runtime engine, such as Docker or Kubernetes.

Containerization would allow the company to refactor a monolithic application to take advantage of cloud native services and service microsegmentation to secure sensitive application components, because containerization would:

• Enable the application to be split into smaller and independent components (microservices) that can communicate with each other through APIs or message queues.
• Allow the application to leverage cloud native services, such as load balancers, databases, or serverless functions, that can be integrated with containers through configuration files or environment variables.
• Enhance the security of the application by isolating each container from other containers and the host system, and applying fine-grained access control policies and network rules to each container or group of containers.
• Ensure the portability of the application by enabling it to run on any cloud provider or platform that supports containers, without requiring any changes to the application code or configuration.

Rules of engagement are legal documents that should be signed by all parties involved in an assessment to ensure they understand their roles and responsibilities. Rules of engagement define the scope, objectives, methods, deliverables, limitations, and expectations of an assessment project. They also specify the legal and ethical boundaries, communication channels, escalation procedures, and reporting formats for the assessment. Rules of engagement help to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, or liabilities during or after an assessment.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 34]

A tabletop exercise is a type of testing plan that is used to discuss disaster recovery scenarios with representatives from multiple departments within an incident response team but without taking any invasive actions. A tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential disaster or incident that involves a verbal or written discussion of how each department would respond to it. The purpose of a tabletop exercise is to identify gaps, weaknesses, or conflicts in the disaster recovery plan, and to improve communication and coordination among the team members.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 455]

The developer would most likely implement a Root CA in the autonomous vehicle’s software. A Root CA is the top-level authority in a PKI that issues and validates certificates for subordinate CAs or end entities. A Root CA can be self-signed and embedded in the vehicle’s software, which would reduce the need for external communication and verification. A Root CA would also enable the vehicle to use digital signatures and encryption for secure communication with other vehicles or infrastructure. Verified References:

• https://cse.iitkgp.ac.in/~abhij/publications/PKI++.pdf
• https://www.digicert.com/blog/connected-cars-need-security-use-pki
• https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9822667/

Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:

netstat -ano | findstr :40322

This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified References:

• https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat
• https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/

The most likely cause of the error is the failure of TPM authentication. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component that stores encryption keys and other security information. TPM can be used by BitLocker to protect the encryption keys and verify the integrity of the boot process. If TPM fails to authenticate the laptop, BitLocker will enter recovery mode and ask for a recovery PIN, which is a 48-digit numerical password that can be used to unlock the system. The administrator should check the TPM status and configuration and make sure it is working properly. Verified References:

• https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/finding-your-bitlocker-recovery-key-in-windows-6b71ad27-0b89-ea08-f143-056f5ab347d6
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/operating-system-security/data-protection/bitlocker/bitlocker-recovery-guide-plan
• https://docs.sophos.com/esg/sgn/8-1/user/win/en-us/esg/SafeGuard-Enterprise/tasks/BitLockerRecoveryKey.html

SaaS, or software as a service, is the solution that can best fulfill the requirements of having the lowest RTO possible, the least shared responsibility possible, and patching as a responsibility of the CSP. SaaS is a cloud service model that provides users with access to software applications hosted and managed by the CSP over the internet. SaaS has the lowest RTO (recovery time objective), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, because it does not require any installation, configuration, or maintenance by the users. SaaS also has the least shared responsibility possible because most of the security aspects are handled by the CSP, such as patching, updating, backup, encryption, authentication, etc.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 403-404]

OCSP stapling is a solution that allows the web server to provide a time-stamped OCSP response signed by the CA along with the certificate during the TLS handshake, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately to validate the certificate. OCSP stapling can reduce the delay caused by the certificate validation process by saving a round-trip between the client and the CA. It can also improve the security and privacy of the certificate validation by preventing potential attacks or tracking by malicious third parties. Verified References:

• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OCSP_stapling
• https://www.digicert.com/knowledgebase/ssl-certificates/ssl-general-topics/what-is-ocsp-stapling.html
• https://www.entrust.com/knowledgebase/ssl/online-certificate-status-protocol-ocsp-stapling

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, or denial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:

• Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.
• Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.
• Not interfere with customers’ ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.
• Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.

Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate that can secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 301]

Implementing an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing is the best way to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL. Third-party software and libraries are often used by developers to save time and resources, but they may also introduce security risks if they are not properly maintained and updated. By reviewing and testing the third-party software and library regularly, the company can ensure that they are using the latest and most secure version of OpenSSL, and that their proprietary software is compatible and functional with it.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 362]

Executing the files in the sandbox on the web proxy is the best solution to reduce the risk of employees downloading and opening malicious files from the internet. A sandbox is a secure and isolated environment that can run untrusted or potentially harmful code without affecting the rest of the system. By executing the files in the sandbox, the web proxy can analyze their behavior and detect any malicious activity before allowing them to reach the corporate workstations.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 273]

Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.

A. Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.

C. Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.

F. Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.

B. VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

D. PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

E. Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

G. Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

H. IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

Key escrow is the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Key escrow is an arrangement in which the keys needed to decrypt encrypted data are held in escrow by a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, or for complying with legal or regulatory requirements that may demand access to encrypted data.

B. TPM is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a computer. TPM does not involve any third party or escrow service.

C. Trust models are not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Trust models are frameworks that define how entities can establish and maintain trust relationships in a network or system. Trust models do not necessarily involve any third party or escrow service.

D. Code signing is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Code signing is a process of using digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of software code. Code signing does not involve any third party or escrow service.

Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers or instances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 406-407 and 410]

A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified References:

• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack
• https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks
• https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/

Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?

• Initiate a legal hold.
• Refer to the retention policy
• Perform e-discovery.
• Review the subpoena

Answer: A

A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonably anticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization’s good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence. Verified References:

• https://percipient.co/litigation-hold-triggers-and-the-duty-to-preserve-evidence/
• https://www.everlaw.com/blog/ediscovery-best-practices/guide-to-legal-holds/

Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.

Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:

• Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.
• Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.
• Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.