CompTIA 220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam Exam Practice Test

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A corruptedMaster Boot Record (MBR)is a common issue after disk manipulation. Booting from installation media and using tools like bootrec to repair the MBR can resolve the problem.

Travis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guideexplains:

“A damaged MBR may result in the OS not loading. Booting from recovery or installation media and selecting startup repair or running bootrec commands can restore functionality.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Zero-day vulnerability refers to a security flaw in software or hardware that is unknown to the vendor or has not yet been patched. If this vulnerability is exploited before the vendor has issued a fix or patch, it becomes a Zero-day exploit. These attacks are highly dangerous because they take advantage of the absence of defenses due to the lack of awareness or mitigation options.

A. Spoofing is a form of impersonation, not necessarily tied to unpatched vulnerabilities.

B. Brute-force attacks rely on repeatedly guessing credentials and are not related to software flaws.

C. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks are meant to overwhelm systems and don't necessarily exploit unknown vulnerabilities.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet), now commonly referred to as SDS (Safety Data Sheet), is a document that provides detailed information on the properties of a particular substance. It includes safety guidelines and emergency procedures related to handling, exposure, fire hazards, and first aid—not installation or configuration instructions.

For a battery backup (UPS device), the MSDS would include emergency procedures such as what to do in case of a chemical spill, exposure to battery acid, or fire hazard due to overheating or chemical leakage. This ensures the safety of personnel and complies with hazardous materials handling regulations.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware. The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.

A. Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.

C. Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.

D. Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or passwords.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an iOS device approaches full storage capacity, performance can be significantly impacted. iOS requires a buffer of free space to perform background processes efficiently.

From theAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“iOS devices need several gigabytes of free space to maintain optimal performance. Near-full storage can cause sluggish operation and failures in updates or background tasks.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When a technician exhausts all troubleshooting steps within their knowledge and the issue remains unresolved, the best practice is to escalate the issue to a higher-level technician or team. Additionally, the technician should clearly communicate the next steps to the customer to maintain transparency and reduce frustration. This ensures continuity of support and upholds customer satisfaction.

B. Dismissing the customer is unprofessional and violates proper customer service protocols.

C. Interrupting the customer and providing excuses escalates the tension and is inappropriate.

D. Continuing to ask questions without new troubleshooting steps wastes time and increases frustration.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

These symptoms strongly suggest malware activity—likely from the newly installed app. The first action should be torun a malware scanto detect and isolate malicious software.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Signs of malware infection include rapid battery drain and overheating. The first step should be a malware scan using trusted mobile antivirus apps.”

This is part of theuser educationstep after a security incident to prevent future occurrences.

FromQuentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“User education and awareness is a crucial part of preventing phishing attacks. After an incident, it is vital to train users on recognizing suspicious messages.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

3G networks generally do not provide the bandwidth required for seamless HD video streaming. With only two signal bars and a 3G connection, the mobile device likely cannot maintain the necessary data throughput, resulting in timeouts or buffering failures. This is a classic symptom of insufficient network speed or signal strength.

A. Lack of Wi-Fi may contribute, but the root cause is the low mobile bandwidth, not the Wi-Fi state.

B. A website subscription lapse would return an account error, not a timeout.

D. Full device storage can affect downloads but not streaming from the internet.

Aclean installensures all malware is eliminated by completely wiping and reinstalling the OS. System restore or repair may leave traces.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“If malware cannot be completely removed, perform a clean installation of the operating system. This ensures no remnants remain on the machine.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A low-level format (also referred to as a zero-fill or full format) writes over every sector on a storage device, effectively destroying the existing data and making recovery nearly impossible. Unlike degaussing, which renders the drive unusable, a low-level format maintains the integrity of the device, allowing it to be repurposed or reused.

A. Deleting partitions does not fully erase data; it only removes references in the partition table.

B. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts files but does not securely wipe them.

D. Degaussing destroys the magnetic structure of a drive, making it inoperable and not reusable.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Authenticator apps, such as Google Authenticator or Microsoft Authenticator, can be configured to sendpush notificationsto users for approval when logging in. This is a form of multi-factor authentication.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Push-based two-factor authentication uses an authenticator app to send a notification to a mobile device. The user must approve the login attempt in real time, ensuring the request is valid.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Older tablets may not support newer app versions due toincompatible or unsupported operating systems. App developers often drop support for outdated OS versions.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“When an app won't install on an older device, check the OS version. Most apps require a minimum OS level for compatibility and security.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

MDR (Managed Detection and Response)provides outsourced threat monitoring and response using multiple tools. The use of athird-party providerfor protection and incident handling confirms MDR.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“MDR provides 24/7 threat detection and response through outsourced experts using advanced tools across client environments.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The first step in the IT change management process is to identify and propose the change. In this case, the technician notices a need (end-of-life network switches), so the appropriate action is to formally propose a change. This proposal would be documented and submitted for approval before any planning or implementation occurs.

According to the CompTIA A+ 220-1102 objectives under Operational Procedures (Domain 4.0), the change management process follows these typical steps:

Submit a change request (Propose the change)

Review and approval (Approve the change)

Planning and scheduling (Schedule the change)

Implementation

Documentation and review

Therefore, proposing the change is the correct first step in accordance with standard ITIL-based change management practices.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Before any change is implemented, it must bedocumentedas part of change management procedures. This ensures transparency, review, and tracking.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Documenting a change is the first step in change management. This includes defining the scope, purpose, impact, and implementation plan before approval or scheduling.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To ensure the authenticity of a downloaded application, the most reliable method is to verify the file’s hash (e.g., SHA256, MD5) against the value provided by the legitimate vendor. If the hash values match, the file has not been altered or tampered with. This verification confirms the integrity and authenticity of the executable.

B. Process IDs are dynamic and not unique to specific software.

C. Running in safe mode doesn’t validate legitimacy—it only runs the app in a minimal environment.

D. File names can be spoofed; matching the name does not prove authenticity.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The scenario involves an application that should retrieve data from a local database server but is failing to do so. This likely indicates a problem in communication between the application and the database server (such as a network issue, port misconfiguration, or service unavailability). The correct troubleshooting approach involves testing the network/service connectivity between the client and the database.

Let’s examine the options:

A. ipconfig:This command displays IP configuration details for Windows systems, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. While useful for diagnosing general network issues, it does not test service connectivity or the availability of a specific application port/service.

B. nslookup:Used to query DNS servers to resolve domain names to IP addresses. However, since the question references a local server (likely accessed via IP or static hostname), DNS is probably not involved. Also, it does not test application/service availability.

C. netstat:Displays active TCP connections, listening ports, and routing tables. It helps determine whether the local system is listening for or maintaining any network connections, but it does not initiate a connection to test availability. It’s diagnostic but not interactive for service testing.

D. curl:This is the most appropriate tool for this scenario. curl is used to test connectivity to services over protocols like HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and more. If the application retrieves data via a web interface or API (common in database-driven applications), curl can be used to test if the application can successfully reach and retrieve data from the server. It provides immediate, testable feedback on whether the server and service are available and responsive.

Example usage:

curlhttp://localhost:8080/api/data

This command would test whether a local server's application programming interface (API) is available and responding on port 8080.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and support Windows OS issues.

Objective 3.3: Use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and resolve issues.

The CompTIA A+ Core 2 study guide references curl as a useful command-line utility for testing connectivity and troubleshooting application access to services.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In a domain environment, printers are typically deployed via a print server. Users can browse available printers on the server and install them directly.

All-in-One Exam Guidementions:

“In a corporate domain, printers are managed via a centralized print server. Users can select the desired printer from the server’s shared list.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Linux is an open-source operating system that is freely available and does not require traditional licensing fees. It is highly versatile and scalable, making it suitable for both workstations and servers. Many enterprise environments use Linux to reduce software costs and benefit from robust server features.

B. Windows requires per-device or per-user licensing for both workstation and server editions.

C. macOS is proprietary and limited to Apple hardware with licensing restrictions.

D. Chrome OS is designed for lightweight devices and lacks server functionality.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When a spreadsheet becomes very large, opening and processing it requires more memory (RAM). If the system doesn't have sufficient memory, it may fail to load the file properly. Upgrading or increasing the available RAM can resolve performance and loading issues with very large files.

A. Restore points roll back system settings, not individual file content.

C. Defragmentation optimizes disk performance but won’t help with memory issues.

D. Network speed has no effect if the file is stored and opened locally.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This is likely arogue antivirusor scareware tactic. The user shouldnot click "OK"and instead check Windows Security (or third-party antivirus) status and ensure real-time protection is enabled.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“Users should verify security center settings if receiving suspicious pop-ups. Clicking unknown software updates can install malware. It’s safer to validate protection through legitimate system tools.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is used to control, monitor, and enforce policies on mobile devices. It allows IT teams to restrict app installations, push approved apps, and monitor device compliance. Deploying MDM would prevent unauthorized applications, such as password crackers, from being installed on company-managed devices.

A. Group Policy is for managing Windows environments and not applicable to smartphones.

B. PAM (Privileged Access Management) controls administrative access, not app installation.

C. Anti-malware can help detect malicious apps but doesn’t prevent their installation proactively.

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile OS updates can sometimes cause compatibility issues with specific apps, including corporate email clients. The most likely resolution is to check for and apply an update to the affected application, especially if it hasn’t been updated to support the latest OS version.

B. Registering with MDM might be required for access but wouldn’t address app crashes due to incompatibility.

C. A third-party client might help, but it’s not the best first step if the default app is expected to work.

D. Clearing the cache can help resolve some minor issues, but updating the app directly addresses compatibility concerns.

An MSDS providessafety and emergency procedures, such as what to do if a battery leaks or catches fire. It is not a technical or setup guide.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“An MSDS contains safety information, including handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to potentially hazardous components like UPS batteries.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The ext4 (Fourth Extended Filesystem) is the most widely used default filesystem in modern Linux distributions. It is designed for high performance, scalability, and reliability, and is supported by all mainstream Linux kernels.

A. exFAT is used for cross-platform external drives, not native Linux systems.

B. APFS is Apple's proprietary filesystem for macOS and iOS.

D. NTFS is the default filesystem for Windows, not Linux.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A synthetic full backup combines the last full backup with subsequent incremental backups to create a new full backup without re-reading data from the source system. This method significantly reduces the backup window and network impact. It is especially useful when traditional full backups are too time-consuming.

A. Changing the backup window only shifts timing, not duration.

B. Incremental weekly backups would lack a proper full recovery point and aren't ideal alone.

C. Storage space isn't the bottleneck in backup speed—it’s read/write operations and network load.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an OS is no longer receiving updates, it is generally because it has reachedend of life (EOL), meaning the vendor has ceased support.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“End-of-life refers to the point when an OS vendor no longer issues updates or support. Systems at EOL pose security risks and must be upgraded or isolated.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The net use command in Windows is used to map (assign) a shared drive from the command line. The syntax typically looks like: net use X: \server\share where X is the drive letter and \server\share is the network path.

A. pathping tests network latency and packet loss.

B. nslookup is used for DNS troubleshooting.

D. tracert shows the route packets take to reach a destination — not for drive mapping.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This scenario describes a rogue access point — a malicious or unauthorized wireless access point that uses the same SSID as the legitimate network. Users may connect to it unknowingly, which can result in limited network access, data interception, or redirection of traffic. The inability to reach internal file servers supports this being an unauthorized AP with no connection to internal resources.

A. A DNS issue would impact name resolution, not connectivity to file servers directly.

B. VLAN issues generally affect segmentation, not mimic SSID problems.

C. An incorrect IP address could cause connectivity issues, but not in the presence of a malicious AP broadcasting the same SSID.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Running atnear full storage capacitysignificantly slows down smartphones. iOS in particular requires space for caching and temporary files. Performance improves when storage is cleared.

FromMike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“Lack of free space causes mobile operating systems to struggle with temp files and updates. Performance improves significantly with adequate storage.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Cryptominersexploit system resources to mine cryptocurrency, often without user consent, leading to high CPU and GPU usage.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Cryptomining malware can cause significant performance degradation by monopolizing system resources like CPU and GPU to mine digital currency.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Memory usage is critically high, suggesting many applications or background processes. Closing unnecessary programs will immediately free up RAM.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“High memory usage with moderate CPU load usually means too many applications are open. Close unnecessary apps or use Task Manager to end processes.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Anincident reportsummarizes what happened during an outage, the timeline, the actions taken, and the resolution, which is exactly what management typically requests post-incident.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Incident reports document the events of an IT issue or outage, including detection, response, and resolution. They are crucial for post-incident review and management accountability.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Device encryptionensures that even if someone bypasses biometrics or has physical access to the phone, they cannot read the stored data without the encryption key.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Encryption is the most effective way to protect data at rest. Even if the device is lost or stolen, encryption ensures the data remains inaccessible without the correct key or passcode.”

In AI terminology,hallucinationrefers to generated output that appears plausible but is factually incorrect.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“AI hallucination describes output that is fluent and coherent but includes information that is entirely fabricated or inaccurate.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

After containment and remediation, one of the final steps in incident response is user education. Since the root cause was a phishing attack, it is essential to educate users about identifying phishing attempts, safe browsing practices, and how to handle suspicious communications. This improves overall security posture and helps prevent future incidents.

A. Installing additional tools may be helpful but is a long-term step.

C. Flashing router firmware is not warranted unless the network hardware is known to be compromised.

D. Suggesting more advanced tools might be excessive given that the EDR successfully contained the incident.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The amount of installed RAM is the key factor in determining whether a 64-bit OS is needed. A 32-bit operating system cannot effectively address more than 4GB of RAM. Since this system has 16GB of RAM, a 64-bit OS is required to utilize the full memory.

B. An Intel i7 CPU supports both 32-bit and 64-bit OS installations, so it alone doesn’t determine the need.

C. HDD size does not influence OS architecture selection.

D. Ethernet speed is a network consideration and not related to OS architecture.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Public Wi-Fi networks often usecaptive portals, which require accepting terms or authenticating via the pop-up page before full access is granted. Closing it prematurely stops full connection.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Captive portals intercept the first HTTP request and present a login or acknowledgment screen. Without completing it, access is denied.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The user’s issue likely stems from amobile data restriction or cap, especially since uploads work on Wi-Fi but not cellular. Checkingdata usage limitswill help determine if mobile uploads are blocked.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When data-intensive functions fail on mobile networks but not on Wi-Fi, it’s often due to data caps or metered connection limits.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) define the mandatory steps and expectations technicians must follow during support calls. This includes documentation standards such as logging user info, asset details, and issue descriptions in the ticketing system. Implementing SOPs ensures consistency and accountability.

A. SLAs define response/resolution times but not documentation practices.

B. Call categories organize types of issues but don't guide technician actions.

D. Knowledge base articles provide solutions to known problems but don't ensure proper ticket documentation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) for users who connect and use a network service.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“RADIUS is a widely used protocol for implementing AAA in network environments, allowing centralized control over user access and accounting.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If a system becomes unresponsive while opening a specific spreadsheet, the issue is likely tied to the file’s size or the complexity of its content (e.g., embedded formulas, macros, or graphics). High memory utilization caused by the file can lead to temporary freezing or application "Not Responding" messages. Checking the spreadsheet's file size and monitoring system memory in Task Manager will help isolate performance bottlenecks.

A. Anti-malware logs are important for security troubleshooting but less likely relevant to spreadsheet-related performance issues.

B. Workstation repair is for system-wide problems and not necessary for a single-file issue.

C. Bandwidth relates to network usage and wouldn’t impact opening a local file.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Once the system is cleaned, the next priority is toeducate the useron safe practices to prevent recurrence.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Post-malware remediation should include user education to prevent reinfection and identify how the malware was introduced.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The Linux machine likely formatted the drive in a file system like ext4, which Windows cannot natively read. Reformatting the drive toexFATallows cross-platform compatibility.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When migrating data between OSes, using a file system like exFAT ensures compatibility. Windows cannot read Linux-native file systems such as ext4 without third-party tools.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Shreddingphysically destroys the platters, making data recovery virtually impossible. It's more effective and accessible than degaussing or low-level formatting.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Physical destruction methods like shredding are the most secure options for ensuring data on failed drives cannot be recovered.”