CompTIA 220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1Exam (2025) Exam Practice Test

Outdated drivers: Device functionality issues after an OS upgrade are often caused by incompatible or outdated drivers.

Disabled settings: Some features may be disabled during the upgrade process, requiring re-enablement.

Why Not A (Incorrect configuration): This is unlikely given the issues arose only after the upgrade.

Why Not B (OS and device incompatibility): Upgrades check for compatibility before installation.

Why Not D (Full storage): Storage issues typically prevent installation, not device functionality.

Why Not F (Corrupted registry entries): While possible, this is less common than the selected answers.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.5, troubleshooting OS upgrades​.

A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration, allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.

Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.

Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring features.

Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a local subnet.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, network monitoring tools​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Modifying duplex settings to double-sided:

Printing on both sides of the paper (duplex printing) reduces paper usage, making it one of the most effective environmentally friendly printing initiatives.

It directly minimizes waste and supports sustainability goals in the workplace.

Incorrect Options:

A. Requiring user authentication for printing: While this can reduce unnecessary or unauthorized printing, it does not directly address environmental objectives like saving resources.

B. Locking down printing to only certain individuals: Limiting access may reduce printing overall, but it does not actively contribute to environmentally friendly practices like duplex printing.

D. Changing the print quality settings to best: Using the "best" print quality increases toner or ink usage, which is counterproductive to environmentally friendly objectives.

Key Takeaway:

Modifying duplex settings to enable double-sided printing is the best initiative to achieve environmentally friendly goals by reducing paper consumption.

An MX (Mail Exchange) record specifies the mail server responsible for receiving email for a domain.

Why Not A (CNAME): CNAME is used for domain aliasing, not for email delivery.

Why Not B (SRV): SRV records are used to locate specific services, not mail servers.

Why Not D (SOA): SOA records provide domain information but do not handle email.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DNS record types​.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Amaintenance kitfor a laser printer often includesrollers, fuser, and other partsthat wear out over time. If the printer issmudging and misfeeding, it's a sign thatmultiple components are failing, which a maintenance kit is designed to resolve.

Option A (Fuser):May cause smudging if it's not heating correctly, but it won’t resolve paper misfeeds alone.

Option C (Corona wire):Can cause poor image quality if dirty but doesn’t affect paper feeding.

Option D (Toner cartridge):Can cause streaks if defective, but not paper feed issues.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Paper jams and smudging in high-volume printers are often caused bydirty or worn rollers. Rollers are responsible for feeding the paper through the printer. Over time, they accumulate dust, toner residue, or wear out, resulting in misfeeds or jams. Cleaning or replacing them typically resolves this issue.

Option A (Factory reset):A full reset does not directly address mechanical issues like dirty rollers or smudging. It’s a last resort and more relevant to configuration or software-related issues.

Option C (Change toner cartridges):While toner quality can affect print quality, it won’t usually cause jams or widespread smudging unless the cartridge is leaking — which is less likely across multiple users.

Option D (Replace the fuser):A damaged fuser could cause smudging, but this is typically after extensive use and is not the first thing to check. Fuser issues also usually present more persistent, uniform smudges.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

C. Initiate the system restore:

If the technician is confident that rolling back the system to a previous restore point will resolve the issue, the next logical step is to initiate the System Restore process.

System Restore allows the system to revert to a state before the OS update, which can eliminate the performance issues caused by the update.

Incorrect Options:

A. Document the findings: Documentation is important but should occur after resolving the issue.

B. Investigate any recent infrastructure changes: This is unnecessary if the issue is already attributed to the OS update.

D. Verify full system functionality: This step should be performed after the System Restore is completed.

Key Takeaway: When confident that rolling back will resolve the issue, the technician should proceed with initiating a System Restore to revert the OS.

Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic design or photo editing, ensuring the screen's colors match the printed output is critical. Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.

Option B (Pixel density): Incorrect. Pixel density affects image sharpness, not color accuracy.

Option C (Refresh rate): Incorrect. Refresh rate impacts motion smoothness but is unrelated to color matching.

Option D (Resolution): Incorrect. Resolution determines clarity and detail but does not influence color accuracy.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Dot matrix printersuse aninked ribbonthat physically contacts the paper through tiny pins. Over time, the ribbon wears out or dries up, resulting infaded or light print output. Replacing the ribbon restores print quality.

Option A:Cleaning helps with image clarity, not ink density.

Option C:Maintenance kits apply to laser printers, not dot matrix.

Option D:Calibration affects print position, not darkness.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

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The 12VHPWR connector can supply up to 600 watts of power, designed for high-end graphics cards.

Why Not A (400W): This is less than the connector’s maximum capability.

Why Not B (MOW): This is an invalid option.

Why Not D (700W): The maximum supported power is 600W.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply and connectors​.

TPM 2.0 (Trusted Platform Module) is often disabled by default in the UEFI BIOS. Enabling it is necessary to meet the requirements for certain Windows installations, including Windows 11.

Why Not B (Install an HSM): A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a separate device used for cryptographic functions and is not related to TPM on the motherboard.

Why Not C (Perform a clean install): A clean installation will not bypass the TPM 2.0 requirement.

Why Not D (Implement BitLocker): BitLocker requires TPM but does not resolve its absence or lack of activation.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, BIOS/UEFI configuration​.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Adegraded RAID 1array usually meansone of the drives has failed or is failing. The correctnext step is torun diagnostics on each driveto identify the faulty one. RAID 1 uses mirroring, so one good drive should still contain all the data.

Option B:chkdsk checks file system integrity, not hardware drive health.

Option C:Rebuilding should only occurafteridentifying and replacing a faulty drive.

Option D:RAID 0 offers no redundancy and would destroy data in this context.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to storage devices.

D. POST Code Beeps:

During the Power-On Self-Test (POST), the BIOS performs checks on system hardware, including RAM. If the RAM is faulty, POST may produce a series of beep codes indicating memory issues.

These beep codes are often the first sign of RAM-related problems, especially if the BSOD occurs randomly.

Incorrect Options:

A. Wrong BIOS configurations: Incorrect BIOS settings may cause boot errors, but they are less likely to cause random BSODs.

B. Continuous reboots: Continuous reboots could result from multiple hardware or software issues but do not specifically point to RAM.

C. Distended capacitors: Faulty capacitors typically affect the motherboard, not the RAM.

Key Takeaway: POST beep codes are a common diagnostic tool for identifying RAM-related issues.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

APrivate Cloudis operated solely for a single organization. It ishosted on-premises or in a dedicated off-site data center, giving the company full control over data, security, and compliance — often hosted in theorganization’s own local data center.

Option B (Public):Hosted by third-party providers and shared by multiple clients.

Option C (Hybrid):Combines private and public cloud resources.

Option D (Community):Shared by several organizations with similar goals.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Asandboxis an isolated virtual environment used totest or run applications securelywithout risk to the host or network. It prevents the VM from communicating with external systems, making it ideal for testing malware or suspicious software.

Option A (VDI):Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows network communication; it does not restrict it.

Option B (Private cloud):Refers to a cloud deployment model, not a communication barrier.

Option D (Type 1 hypervisor):Runs VMs directly on hardware and doesnotinherently block communication.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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Reasoning: Many docking stations provide power and functionality only when the laptop is properly powered on. If the laptop was powered off (e.g., during the vacation), docking it will not automatically turn it on. The technician should first ensure the laptop is powered on by pressing the power button.

This is a common troubleshooting step when laptops in docking stations appear non-functional.

Relevance to CompTIA A+ Core 1: This falls under Objective 5.2, which covers diagnosing and resolving common laptop and mobile device issues.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Ensure the docking station is plugged in:

While ensuring power to the docking station is important, the scenario specifies that the issue occurred after a vacation. The likelihood of the docking station losing power coincidentally during the vacation is low. Verifying the laptop's power state should be the first step.

C. Plug the laptop in and let it charge overnight:

There is no indication the laptop’s battery is drained. While charging could resolve a dead battery, the user is more likely experiencing an issue where the laptop is powered off but docked, so charging overnight is not the best first step.

D. Connect the laptop directly to the network:

A network connection will not resolve the primary issue of the keyboard and display not working. Addressing the laptop’s power state is a higher priority.

Practical Example:

If a user returns from a vacation and places a powered-off laptop into a docking station, it may not automatically power on. Pressing the power button ensures the laptop is operational and communicating with the docking station.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 5.2: Troubleshooting common laptop issues, including power, display, and peripheral connectivity.

Looking at the network configurations and outputs from both PCs and servers, here are the possible issues and solutions:

1. PC 1

Issue: The IP address for PC1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with Server 1 (which also uses 192.168.1.1).

Solution: Change the IP address on PC1 to a unique one within the range, like 192.168.1.3.

2. PC 2

Issue: PC 2 is configured with 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with Server 2 that has the same IP address.

Solution: Update the IP address on PC 2 to something unique, like 192.168.1.4.

3. Server 1

Issue: The IP address for Server 1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with PC1.

Solution: Since Server 1 and PC1 are using the same IP address, change one of them. For Server 1, you could change the IP address to 192.168.1.5.

4. Server 2

Issue: Server 2 is using the IP address 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with PC2.

Solution: Update Server 2 to use a different IP address, such as 192.168.1.6.

General Remediation:

The primary problem here is overlapping IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Each device on the network must have a unique IP address. After making these changes, ensure that all devices can communicate properly by testing the connection between devices and verifying they can access shared resources.

correct answer is "Overclocking" and "Reduce CPU Clock speed" CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer sothe user probably took it too far. http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting-tips-overclocking-pc/

Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.

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Part 2

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The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.

Recommended Replacement Drive:

To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:

SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).

Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.

In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.

A user reports poor performance on the

application server.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review

the information presented in each chart to

determine which drives need to be replaced.

Select the appropriate replacement drive

that should be used, for the least

performance degradation to the server.

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