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Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK v5.0) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 86 questions
Total 288 questions

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK v5.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

Question 2

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cloud-native security breaches?

Options:

A.

Inability to monitor cloud infrastructure for threats

B.

IAM failures

C.

Lack of encryption for data at rest

D.

Vulnerabilities in cloud provider's physical infrastructure

Question 3

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

Question 4

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

Options:

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

Question 5

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

Question 6

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

Options:

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

Question 7

How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

Options:

A.

It consolidates logs into a single location.

B.

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

C.

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

D.

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

Question 8

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

Options:

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

Question 9

Which practice ensures container security by preventing post-deployment modifications?

Options:

A.

Implementing dynamic network segmentation policies

B.

Employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) for container access

C.

Regular vulnerability scanning of deployed containers

D.

Use of immutable containers

Question 10

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

Options:

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

Question 11

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

Options:

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

Question 12

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

Options:

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

Question 13

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

Question 14

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

Question 15

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

Question 16

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

Question 17

Which aspect is most important for effective cloud governance?

Options:

A.

Formalizing cloud security policies

B.

Implementing best-practice cloud security control objectives

C.

Negotiating SLAs with cloud providers

D.

Establishing a governance hierarchy

Question 18

Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?

Options:

A.

High operational costs

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Limited scalability

D.

Complex deployment pipelines

Question 19

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

Question 20

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

Options:

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

Question 21

What is the primary purpose of secrets management in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Optimizing cloud infrastructure performance

B.

Managing user authentication for human access

C.

Securely handling stored authentication credentials

D.

Monitoring network traffic for security threats

Question 22

In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

Options:

A.

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

B.

Reduces log analysis requirements

C.

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

D.

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

Question 23

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

Options:

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

Question 24

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

Question 25

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

Question 26

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

Options:

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

Question 27

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.

Encrypting the access paths only

D.

Encrypting only sensitive objects

Question 28

What goal is most directly achieved by implementing controls and policies that aim to provide a complete view of data use and exposure in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Enhancing data governance and compliance

B.

Simplifying cloud service integrations

C.

Increasing cloud data processing speed

D.

Reducing the cost of cloud storage

Question 29

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

Question 30

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

Options:

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

Question 31

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

Options:

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

Question 32

Which of the following best describes an aspect of PaaS services in relation to network security controls within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

They override the VNet/VPC's network security controls by default

B.

They do not interact with the VNet/VPC’s network security controls

C.

They require manual configuration of network security controls, separate from the VNet/VPC

D.

They often inherit the network security controls of the underlying VNet/VPC

Question 33

In cloud environments, why are Management Plane Logs indispensable for security monitoring?

Options:

A.

They provide real-time threat detection and response

B.

They detail the network traffic between cloud services

C.

They track cloud administrative activities

D.

They report on user activities within applications

Question 34

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

Question 35

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

Options:

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

Question 36

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

Options:

A.

Anomaly detection

B.

Assisting analysts

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Automated responses

Question 37

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

Options:

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

Question 38

What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?

Options:

A.

To create isolated virtual networks

B.

To monitor network performance and activity

C.

To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations

D.

To encrypt data for secure transmission

Question 39

Why is consulting with stakeholders important for ensuring cloud security strategy alignment?

Options:

A.

IT simplifies the cloud platform selection process

B.

It reduces the overall cost of cloud services.

C.

It ensures that the strategy meets diverse business requirements.

D.

It ensures compliance with technical standards only.

Question 40

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

Options:

A.

Management Console

B.

Management plane

C.

Orchestrators

D.

Abstraction layer

Question 41

In a cloud context, what does entitlement refer to in relation to a user's permissions?

Options:

A.

The authentication methods a user is required to use when accessing the cloud environment.

B.

The level of technical support a user is entitled to from the cloud service provider.

C.

The resources or services a user is granted permission to access in the cloud environment.

D.

The ability for a user to grant access permissions to other users in the cloud environment.

Question 42

What is the main purpose of multi-region resiliency in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To increase the number of users in each region

B.

To ensure compliance with regional and international data laws

C.

To reduce the cost of deployments and increase efficiency

D.

To improve fault tolerance through deployments across multiple regions

Question 43

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

Options:

A.

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

Question 44

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

Question 45

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

Options:

A.

Continuous Monitoring

B.

Federation

C.

Segregation of Duties

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

Question 46

Which of the following best describes an authoritative source in the context of identity management?

Options:

A.

A list of permissions assigned to different users

B.

A network resource that handles authorization requests

C.

A database containing all entitlements

D.

A trusted system holding accurate identity information

Question 47

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

Options:

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

Question 48

Which of the following enhances Platform as a Service (PaaS) security by regulating traffic into PaaS components?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection Systems

B.

Hardware Security Modules

C.

Network Access Control Lists

D.

API Gateways

Question 49

Which of the following best describes a benefit of using VPNs for cloud connectivity?

Options:

A.

VPNs are more cost-effective than any other connectivity option.

B.

VPNs provide secure, encrypted connections between data centers and cloud deployments.

C.

VPNs eliminate the need for third-party authentication services.

D.

VPNs provide higher bandwidth than direct connections.

Question 50

In the context of cloud security, which approach prioritizes incoming data logs for threat detection by applying multiple sequential filters?

Options:

A.

Cascade-and-filter approach

B.

Parallel processing approach

C.

Streamlined single-filter method

D.

Unfiltered bulk analysis

Question 51

When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to effectively analyze incidents?

Options:

A.

Access limited to log events for incident analysis

B.

Unlimited write access for all responders at all times

C.

Full-read access without any approval process

D.

Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations

Question 52

Which plane in a network architecture is responsible for controlling all administrative actions?

Options:

A.

Forwarding plane

B.

Management plane

C.

Data plane

D.

Application plane

Question 53

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

Question 54

What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?

Options:

A.

(Service and Application Logs

B.

Security Logs

C.

Network Logs

D.

Debug Logs

Question 55

What is a common characteristic of default encryption provided by cloud providers for data at rest?

Options:

A.

It is not available without an additional premium service

B.

It always requires the customer's own encryption keys

C.

It uses the cloud provider's keys, often at no additional cost

D.

It does not support encryption for data at rest

Question 56

What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.

B.

To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

C.

Simplifying scalability and automating resource management

D.

Enhancing user experience and reducing latency

Question 57

Which of the following functionalities is provided by Data Security Posture Management (DSPM) tools?

Options:

A.

Firewall management and configuration

B.

User activity monitoring and reporting

C.

Encryption of all data at rest and in transit

D.

Visualization and management for cloud data security

Question 58

What is the primary purpose of Cloud Infrastructure Entitlement Management (CIEM) in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Deploying cloud services

C.

Governing access to cloud resources

D.

Managing software licensing

Question 59

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 60

Vulnerability assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 61

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

Question 62

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

Options:

A.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

Question 63

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

Question 64

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

Options:

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

Question 65

When deploying Security as a Service in a highly regulated industry or environment, what should both parties agree on in advance and include in the SLA?

Options:

A.

The metrics defining the service level required to achieve regulatory objectives.

B.

The duration of time that a security violation can occur before the client begins assessing regulatory fines.

C.

The cost per incident for security breaches of regulated information.

D.

The regulations that are pertinent to the contract and how to circumvent them.

E.

The type of security software which meets regulations and the number of licenses that will be needed.

Question 66

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

Options:

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

Question 67

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

Options:

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

Question 68

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

Options:

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

Question 69

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

Question 70

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 71

What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

BusOps

C.

DevOps

D.

SecDevOps

E.

Scrum

Question 72

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

Options:

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

Question 73

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 74

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

Options:

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

Question 75

Which of the following statements best describes an identity

federation?

Options:

A.

A library of data definitions

B.

A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a single

cloud

C.

Identities which share similar attributes

D.

Several countries which have agreed to define their identities with

similar attributes

E.

The connection of one identity repository to another

Question 76

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 77

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

Options:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

Question 78

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

Options:

A.

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

Question 79

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

Options:

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

Question 80

If there are gaps in network logging data, what can you do?

Options:

A.

Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud.

B.

Ask the cloud provider to open more ports.

C.

You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging.

D.

Ask the cloud provider to close more ports.

E.

Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

Question 81

Which term is used to describe the use of tools to selectively degrade portions of the cloud to continuously test business continuity?

Options:

A.

Planned Outages

B.

Resiliency Planning

C.

Expected Engineering

D.

Chaos Engineering

E.

Organized Downtime

Question 82

CCM: The Cloud Service Delivery Model Applicability column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Mappings to well-known standards and frameworks

B.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

C.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

D.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Question 83

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 84

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 85

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

Question 86

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

Options:

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

Demo: 86 questions
Total 288 questions