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Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 99 questions
Total 332 questions

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which practice ensures container security by preventing post-deployment modifications?

Options:

A.

Implementing dynamic network segmentation policies

B.

Employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) for container access

C.

Regular vulnerability scanning of deployed containers

D.

Use of immutable containers

Question 2

What is one significant way Artificial Intelligence, particularly Large Language Models, is impacting IT and security?

Options:

A.

Eliminating the need for encryption

B.

Replacing all IT personnel

C.

Automating threat detection and response

D.

Standardizing software development languages

Question 3

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 4

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

Options:

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

Question 5

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

Options:

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

Question 6

How does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) facilitate rapid recovery in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

IaC is primarily used for designing network security policies

B.

IaC enables automated and consistent deployment of recovery environments

C.

IaC provides encryption and secure key management during recovery

D.

IaC automates incident detection and alerting mechanisms

Question 7

Why is it important to control traffic flows between networks in a cybersecurity context?

Options:

A.

To increase the speed of data transmission

B.

To reduce the blast radius of attacks

C.

To simplify network architecture

D.

To reduce the amount of data stored

Question 8

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware?

Options:

A.

It requires distinct access controls

B.

It manages resource pools for cloud consumers

C.

It has distinct functions from other networks

D.

It manages the traffic between other networks

E.

It requires unique security

Question 9

What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?

Options:

A.

(Service and Application Logs

B.

Security Logs

C.

Network Logs

D.

Debug Logs

Question 10

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

Options:

A.

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

Question 11

Which of the following best describes the primary function of Cloud Detection and Response (CDR) in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Detect and respond to security threats in the cloud

B.

Manage cloud-based applications

C.

Provide cost management for cloud services

D.

Optimize cloud storage performance

Question 12

What are the most important practices for reducing vulnerabilities in virtual machines (VMs) in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Disabling unnecessary VM services and using containers

B.

Encryption for data at rest and software bill of materials

C.

Using secure base images, patch and configuration management

D.

Network isolation and monitoring

Question 13

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 14

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

Question 15

What is the primary function of Privileged Identity Management (PIM) and Privileged Access Management (PAM)?

Options:

A.

Encrypt data transmitted over the network

B.

Manage the risk of elevated permissions

C.

Monitor network traffic and detect intrusions

D.

Ensure system uptime and reliability

Question 16

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

Options:

A.

Continuous Monitoring

B.

Federation

C.

Segregation of Duties

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

Question 17

In the context of cloud workload security, which feature directly contributes to enhanced performance and resource utilization without incurring excess costs?

Options:

A.

Fixed resource allocations

B.

Unlimited data storage capacity

C.

Increased on-premise hardware

D.

Elasticity of cloud resources

Question 18

Which strategy is critical for securing containers at the image creation stage?

Options:

A.

Implementing network segmentation

B.

Using secure, approved base images

C.

Regularly updating repository software

D.

Enforcing runtime protection measures

Question 19

In the IaaS shared responsibility model, which responsibility typically falls on the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

Encrypting data at rest

B.

Ensuring physical security of data centers

C.

Managing application code

D.

Configuring firewall rules

Question 20

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

Question 21

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

Options:

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

Question 22

When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?

Options:

A.

The CSP server facility

B.

The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud

C.

The network components controlled by the CSP

D.

The CSP office spaces

E.

Their own virtual instances in the cloud

Question 23

What key characteristic differentiates cloud networks from traditional networks?

Options:

A.

Cloud networks are software-defined networks (SDNs)

B.

Cloud networks rely on dedicated hardware appliances

C.

Cloud networks are less scalable than traditional networks

D.

Cloud networks have the same architecture as traditional networks

Question 24

Which approach is commonly used by organizations to manage identities in the cloud due to the complexity of scaling across providers?

Options:

A.

Decentralization

B.

Centralization

C.

Federation

D.

Outsourcing

Question 25

Which two key capabilities are required for technology to be considered cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Abstraction and orchestration

B.

Abstraction and resource pooling

C.

Multi-tenancy and isolation

D.

Virtualization and multi-tenancy

Question 26

What is a primary benefit of using Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles/identities provided by cloud providers instead of static secrets?

Options:

A.

They lower storage costs

B.

They reduce the risk of credential leakage

C.

They facilitate data encryption

D.

They improve system performance

Question 27

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 28

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

Options:

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

Question 29

When deploying Security as a Service in a highly regulated industry or environment, what should both parties agree on in advance and include in the SLA?

Options:

A.

The metrics defining the service level required to achieve regulatory objectives.

B.

The duration of time that a security violation can occur before the client begins assessing regulatory fines.

C.

The cost per incident for security breaches of regulated information.

D.

The regulations that are pertinent to the contract and how to circumvent them.

E.

The type of security software which meets regulations and the number of licenses that will be needed.

Question 30

For third-party audits or attestations, what is critical for providers to publish and customers to evaluate?

Options:

A.

Scope of the assessment and the exact included features and services for the assessment

B.

Provider infrastructure information including maintenance windows and contracts

C.

Network or architecture diagrams including all end point security devices in use

D.

Service-level agreements between all parties

E.

Full API access to all required services

Question 31

Audits should be robustly designed to reflect best practice, appropriate resources, and tested protocols and standards. They should also use what type of auditors?

Options:

A.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud customer

B.

Independent auditors

C.

Certified by CSA

D.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud provider

E.

None of the above

Question 32

In the context of IaaS, what are the primary components included in infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Network configuration tools, storage encryption, and virtualization platforms

B.

Compute, network, and storage resource pools

C.

User authentication systems, application deployment services, and database management

D.

Load balancers, firewalls, and backup solutions

Question 33

Which term describes any situation where the cloud consumer does

not manage any of the underlying hardware or virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Serverless computing

B.

Virtual machineless

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Provider managed

Question 34

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

Options:

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

Question 35

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

Question 36

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

Question 37

What is a primary benefit of consolidating traffic through a central bastion/transit network in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.

It minimizes hybrid cloud sprawl and consolidates security.

B.

It reduces the need for physical network hardware.

C.

It increases network redundancy and fault tolerance.

D.

It decreases the latency of data transfers across the cloud network.

Question 38

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

Options:

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

Question 39

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

Options:

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

Question 40

Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

Options:

A.

Firewalls

B.

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Question 41

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

Options:

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

Question 42

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

Options:

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

Question 43

Which of the following best describes a benefit of using VPNs for cloud connectivity?

Options:

A.

VPNs are more cost-effective than any other connectivity option.

B.

VPNs provide secure, encrypted connections between data centers and cloud deployments.

C.

VPNs eliminate the need for third-party authentication services.

D.

VPNs provide higher bandwidth than direct connections.

Question 44

What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

BusOps

C.

DevOps

D.

SecDevOps

E.

Scrum

Question 45

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

Question 46

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 47

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

Options:

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

Question 48

Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

Options:

A.

Secure multi-party computation

B.

Differential privacy

C.

Encryption

D.

Model hardening

Question 49

Which resilience tool helps distribute network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure reliability and availability?

Options:

A.

Redundancy

B.

Auto-scaling

C.

Load balancing

D.

Failover

Question 50

The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 51

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.

Encrypting the access paths only

D.

Encrypting only sensitive objects

Question 52

If there are gaps in network logging data, what can you do?

Options:

A.

Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud.

B.

Ask the cloud provider to open more ports.

C.

You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging.

D.

Ask the cloud provider to close more ports.

E.

Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

Question 53

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

Question 54

What is resource pooling?

Options:

A.

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

B.

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

C.

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

D.

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

E.

None of the above.

Question 55

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

Options:

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

Question 56

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 57

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

Question 58

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit

B.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload

D.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology

Question 59

Which practice best helps mitigate security risks by minimizing root/core access and restricting deployment creation?

Options:

A.

Enforcing the principle of trust and eventually verily on demand'

B.

Disabling multi-factor authentication for staff and focusing on decision makers' accounts

C.

Deploying applications with full access and applying restrictions based on the need to object

D.

Enforcing the principle of least privilege

Question 60

Cloud services exhibit five essential characteristics that demonstrate their relation to, and differences from, traditional computing approaches. Which one of the five characteristics is described as: a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and network storage as needed.

Options:

A.

Rapid elasticity

B.

Resource pooling

C.

Broad network access

D.

Measured service

E.

On-demand self-service

Question 61

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

Options:

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

Question 62

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) might be limited or require pre-testing permission from the provider.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 63

All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 64

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

Options:

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

Question 65

Which of the following statements best defines the "authorization" as a component of identity, entitlement, and access management?

Options:

A.

The process of specifying and maintaining access policies

B.

Checking data storage to make sure it meets compliance requirements

C.

Giving a third party vendor permission to work on your cloud solution

D.

Establishing/asserting the identity to the application

E.

Enforcing the rules by which access is granted to the resources

Question 66

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

Options:

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

Question 67

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 68

What is critical for securing serverless computing models in the cloud?

Options:

A.

Disabling console access completely or using privileged access management

B.

Validating the underlying container security

C.

Managing secrets and configuration with the least privilege

D.

Placing serverless components behind application load balancers

Question 69

Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?

Options:

A.

The devices used to access data have different storage formats.

B.

The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.

C.

The device may affect data dispersion.

D.

The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.

E.

The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.

Question 70

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

Options:

A.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

Question 71

What type of information is contained in the Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix?

Options:

A.

Network traffic rules for cloud environments

B.

A number of requirements to be implemented, based upon numerous standards and regulatory requirements

C.

Federal legal business requirements for all cloud operators

D.

A list of cloud configurations including traffic logic and efficient routes

E.

The command and control management hierarchy of typical cloud company

Question 72

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

Options:

A.

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

Question 73

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

Options:

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

Question 74

In which deployment model should the governance strategy consider the minimum common set of controls comprised of the Cloud Service Provider contract and the organization's internal governance agreements?

Options:

A.

Public

B.

PaaS

C.

Private

D.

IaaS

E.

Hybrid

Question 75

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

Options:

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

Question 76

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

Question 77

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

Options:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

Question 78

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

Question 79

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 80

Which approach is essential in identifying compromised identities in cloud environments where attackers utilize automated methods?

Options:

A.

Focusing exclusively on signature-based detection for known malware

B.

Deploying behavioral detectors for IAM and management plane activities

C.

Implementing full packet capture and monitoring

D.

Relying on IP address and connection header monitoring

Question 81

Which of the following enhances Platform as a Service (PaaS) security by regulating traffic into PaaS components?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection Systems

B.

Hardware Security Modules

C.

Network Access Control Lists

D.

API Gateways

Question 82

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

Options:

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

Question 83

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

Options:

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

Question 84

In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

Options:

A.

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

B.

Reduces log analysis requirements

C.

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

D.

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

Question 85

How does cloud adoption impact incident response processes in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

It only affects data storage and not incident response

B.

It has no significant impact on incident response processes

C.

It simplifies incident response by consolidating processes

D.

It introduces different processes, technologies, and governance models

Question 86

What is the primary purpose of virtual machine (VM) image sources?

Options:

A.

To back up data within the VM

B.

To provide core components for VM images

C.

To optimize VM performance

D.

To secure the VM against unauthorized access

Question 87

Which of the following functionalities is provided by Data Security Posture Management (DSPM) tools?

Options:

A.

Firewall management and configuration

B.

User activity monitoring and reporting

C.

Encryption of all data at rest and in transit

D.

Visualization and management for cloud data security

Question 88

Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?

Options:

A.

High operational costs

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Limited scalability

D.

Complex deployment pipelines

Question 89

What's the best way for organizations to establish a foundation for safeguarding data, upholding privacy, and meeting regulatory requirements in cloud applications?

Options:

A.

By implementing end-to-end encryption and multi-factor authentication

B.

By conducting regular security audits and updates

C.

By deploying intrusion detection systems and monitoring

D.

By integrating security at the architectural and design level

Question 90

Which cloud storage technology is basically a virtual hard drive for instanced or VMs?

Options:

A.

Volume storage

B.

Platform

C.

Database

D.

Application

E.

Object storage

Question 91

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

Question 92

What of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Broad Network Access

B.

Measured Service

C.

Third Party Service

D.

Rapid Elasticity

E.

Resource Pooling

Question 93

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

Options:

A.

Manual patch management

B.

Ad hoc security policies

C.

Static resource allocation

D.

Automated compliance checks

Question 94

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

Options:

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

Question 95

What is a common characteristic of default encryption provided by cloud providers for data at rest?

Options:

A.

It is not available without an additional premium service

B.

It always requires the customer's own encryption keys

C.

It uses the cloud provider's keys, often at no additional cost

D.

It does not support encryption for data at rest

Question 96

When comparing different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs), what should a cybersecurity professional be mindful of regarding their organizational structures?

Options:

A.

All CSPs use the same organizational structure and terminology

B.

Different CSPs may have similar structures but use varying terminology

C.

CSPs have vastly different organizational structures and identical terminology

D.

Terminology difference in CSPs does not affect cybersecurity practices.

Question 97

What are the key outcomes of implementing robust cloud risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the security and resilience of cloud environments

B.

Negotiating shared responsibilities

C.

Transferring compliance to the cloud service provider via inheritance

D.

Reducing the need for compliance with regulatory requirements

Question 98

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 99

What is true of a workload?

Options:

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

Demo: 99 questions
Total 332 questions