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Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 89 questions
Total 599 questions

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR) Questions and Answers

Question 1

An engineer is configuring 802.1X authentication on Cisco switches in the network and is using CoA as a mechanism. Which port on the firewall must be opened to allow the CoA traffic to traverse the network?

Options:

A.

TCP 6514

B.

UDP 1700

C.

TCP 49

D.

UDP 1812

Question 2

An engineer has been tasked with implementing a solution that can be leveraged for securing the cloud users,

data, and applications. There is a requirement to use the Cisco cloud native CASB and cloud cybersecurity

platform. What should be used to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco Cloud Email Security

C.

Cisco NGFW

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 3

What is a capability of Cisco ASA Netflow?

Options:

A.

It filters NSEL events based on traffic

B.

It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured

C.

It logs all event types only to the same collector

D.

It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active standby failover pair

Question 4

A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for analysis. The network

is congested and is affecting communication. How will the Cisco ESA handle any files which need analysis?

Options:

A.

AMP calculates the SHA-256 fingerprint, caches it, and periodically attempts the upload.

B.

The file is queued for upload when connectivity is restored.

C.

The file upload is abandoned.

D.

The ESA immediately makes another attempt to upload the file.

Question 5

Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto the definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 6

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

Options:

A.

to register new laptops and mobile devices

B.

to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C.

to provision userless and agentless systems

D.

to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end user

Question 7

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Question 8

An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast

packets have been flooding the network. What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to

address this issue?

Options:

A.

Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard

B.

embedded event monitoring

C.

storm control

D.

access control lists

Question 9

What features does Cisco FTDv provide over ASAv?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTDv runs on VMWare while ASAv does not

B.

Cisco FTDv provides 1GB of firewall throughput while Cisco ASAv does not

C.

Cisco FTDv runs on AWS while ASAv does not

D.

Cisco FTDv supports URL filtering while ASAv does not

Question 10

An organization has a Cisco ESA set up with policies and would like to customize the action assigned for

violations. The organization wants a copy of the message to be delivered with a message added to flag it as a

DLP violation. Which actions must be performed in order to provide this capability?

Options:

A.

deliver and send copies to other recipients

B.

quarantine and send a DLP violation notification

C.

quarantine and alter the subject header with a DLP violation

D.

deliver and add disclaimer text

Question 11

An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to accept the server’s authentication key?

Options:

A.

ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1

B.

ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1

C.

ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1

D.

ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

Question 12

A network engineer has been tasked with adding a new medical device to the network. Cisco ISE is being used as the NAC server, and the new device does not have a supplicant available. What must be done in order to securely connect this device to the network?

Options:

A.

Use MAB with profiling

B.

Use MAB with posture assessment.

C.

Use 802.1X with posture assessment.

D.

Use 802.1X with profiling.

Question 13

Which term describes when the Cisco Firepower downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Talos?

Options:

A.

consumption

B.

sharing

C.

analysis

D.

authoring

Question 14

Using Cisco Firepower’s Security Intelligence policies, upon which two criteria is Firepower block based?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

URLs

B.

protocol IDs

C.

IP addresses

D.

MAC addresses

E.

port numbers

Question 15

Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protection against brute-force attacks?

Options:

A.

PFS

B.

HMAC

C.

MD5

D.

SHA

Question 16

In which type of attack does the attacker insert their machine between two hosts that are communicating with each other?

Options:

A.

LDAP injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

cross-site scripting

D.

insecure API

Question 17

Which component of Cisco umbrella architecture increases reliability of the service?

Options:

A.

Anycast IP

B.

AMP Threat grid

C.

Cisco Talos

D.

BGP route reflector

Question 18

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2 instance in Amazon Web Services.

Options:

Question 19

In which two ways does Easy Connect help control network access when used with Cisco TrustSec? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It allows multiple security products to share information and work together to enhance security posture in the network.

B.

It creates a dashboard in Cisco ISE that provides full visibility of all connected endpoints.

C.

It allows for the assignment of Security Group Tags and does not require 802.1x to be configured on the switch or the endpoint.

D.

It integrates with third-party products to provide better visibility throughout the network.

E.

It allows for managed endpoints that authenticate to AD to be mapped to Security Groups (PassiveID).

Question 20

Which suspicious pattern enables the Cisco Tetration platform to learn the normal behavior of users?

Options:

A.

file access from a different user

B.

interesting file access

C.

user login suspicious behavior

D.

privilege escalation

Question 21

What is a benefit of performing device compliance?

Options:

A.

Verification of the latest OS patches

B.

Device classification and authorization

C.

Providing multi-factor authentication

D.

Providing attribute-driven policies

Question 22

An organization received a large amount of SPAM messages over a short time period. In order to take action on the messages, it must be determined how harmful the messages are and this needs to happen dynamically.

What must be configured to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Configure the Cisco WSA to modify policies based on the traffic seen

B.

Configure the Cisco ESA to receive real-time updates from Talos

C.

Configure the Cisco WSA to receive real-time updates from Talos

D.

Configure the Cisco ESA to modify policies based on the traffic seen

Question 23

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

Question 24

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their network and wants to manage it with Cisco FMC.

The Cisco FTD is not behind a NAT device. Which command is needed to enable this on the Cisco FTD?

Options:

A.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE kregistration key>

B.

configure manager add 16

C.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE FTD123

D.

configure manager add

Question 25

An administrator is trying to determine which applications are being used in the network but does not want the

network devices to send metadata to Cisco Firepower. Which feature should be used to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

Packet Tracer

C.

Network Discovery

D.

Access Control

Question 26

Which attack is preventable by Cisco ESA but not by the Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

buffer overflow

B.

DoS

C.

SQL injection

D.

phishing

Question 27

What is the benefit of installing Cisco AMP for Endpoints on a network?

Options:

A.

It provides operating system patches on the endpoints for security.

B.

It provides flow-based visibility for the endpoints network connections.

C.

It enables behavioral analysis to be used for the endpoints.

D.

It protects endpoint systems through application control and real-time scanning

Question 28

A network administrator is configuring a switch to use Cisco ISE for 802.1X. An endpoint is failing

authentication and is unable to access the network. Where should the administrator begin troubleshooting to verify the authentication details?

Options:

A.

Adaptive Network Control Policy List

B.

Context Visibility

C.

Accounting Reports

D.

RADIUS Live Logs

Question 29

For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SDP

B.

LDAP

C.

subordinate CA

D.

SCP

E.

HTTP

Question 30

Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?

Options:

A.

Google Cloud Platform

B.

Red Hat Enterprise Visualization

C.

VMware ESXi

D.

Amazon Web Services

Question 31

How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge group deployment support?

Options:

A.

up to 2

B.

up to 4

C.

up to 8

D.

up to 16

Question 32

A mall provides security services to customers with a shared appliance. The mall wants separation of

management on the shared appliance. Which ASA deployment mode meets these needs?

Options:

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

multiple zone mode

Question 33

Which form of attack is launched using botnets?

Options:

A.

EIDDOS

B.

virus

C.

DDOS

D.

TCP flood

Question 34

Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System?

Options:

A.

Correlation

B.

Intrusion

C.

Access Control

D.

Network Discovery

Question 35

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

Options:

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

Question 36

Elliptic curve cryptography is a stronger more efficient cryptography method meant to replace which current

encryption technology?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

RSA

C.

DES

D.

AES

Question 37

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

Options:

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

Question 38

Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

Options:

A.

File Analysis

B.

SafeSearch

C.

SSL Decryption

D.

Destination Lists

Question 39

Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?

Options:

A.

Public Cloud

B.

Hybrid Cloud

C.

Community Cloud

D.

Private Cloud

Question 40

Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

application settings

B.

content categories

C.

security settings

D.

destination lists

Question 41

The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the

ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

Options:

A.

Certificate Trust List

B.

Endpoint Trust List

C.

Enterprise Proxy Service

D.

Secured Collaboration Proxy

Question 42

Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?

Options:

A.

username and password

B.

encryption method

C.

device serial number

D.

registration key

Question 43

Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the

deployment?

Options:

A.

NGFW

B.

AMP

C.

WSA

D.

ESA

Question 44

Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Outgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.

B.

Malware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.

C.

Traffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.

D.

An exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.

E.

Messenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls

Question 45

What are two rootkit types? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

registry

B.

virtual

C.

bootloader

D.

user mode

E.

buffer mode

Question 46

An engineer is trying to securely connect to a router and wants to prevent insecure algorithms from being used.

However, the connection is failing. Which action should be taken to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Disable telnet using the no ip telnet command.

B.

Enable the SSH server using the ip ssh server command.

C.

Configure the port using the ip ssh port 22 command.

D.

Generate the RSA key using the crypto key generate rsa command.

Question 47

Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Accounting

D.

DNS

E.

Provision

Question 48

Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.

B.

Define security group memberships.

C.

Revoke expired CRL of the websites.

D.

Use antispyware software.

E.

Implement email filtering techniques.

Question 49

Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also

provides an option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?

Options:

A.

url

B.

terminal

C.

profile

D.

selfsigned

Question 50

What is a commonality between DMVPN and FlexVPN technologies?

Options:

A.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use IS-IS routing protocol to communicate with spokes

B.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the new key management protocol

C.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the same hashing algorithms

D.

IOS routers run the same NHRP code for DMVPN and FlexVPN

Question 51

Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

packet decoder

B.

SIP

C.

modbus

D.

inline normalization

E.

SSL

Question 52

What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

Options:

A.

Enable IP Layer enforcement.

B.

Activate the Advanced Malware Protection license

C.

Activate SSL decryption.

D.

Enable Intelligent Proxy.

Question 53

An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing. Which outbreak

control method is used to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

device flow correlation

B.

simple detections

C.

application blocking list

D.

advanced custom detections

Question 54

How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?

Options:

A.

per policy

B.

in the Reporting settings

C.

in the Security Settings section

D.

per network in the Deployments section

Question 55

Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management

Center?

Options:

A.

quality of service

B.

time synchronization

C.

network address translations

D.

intrusion policy

Question 56

The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?

Options:

A.

SDN controller and the cloud

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the management solution

Question 57

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

Options:

A.

virus

B.

NTP amplification

C.

ping of death

D.

HTTP flood

Question 58

Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

Options:

A.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv

asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv des ciscXXXXXXXX

asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauth

asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXX

asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

C.

asa-host(config)#snmpserver group myv3 v3 noauth

asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv 3des ciscXXXXXXXX

asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

D.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv

asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXX

asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

Question 59

Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?

Options:

A.

An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces

B.

Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.

C.

An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.

D.

An interface can be assigned only to one zone.

Question 60

An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch

was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware. Which two solutions mitigate

the risk of this ransom ware infection? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing

access on the network.

B.

Set up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowing

access on the network.

C.

Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met

before allowing access on the network.

D.

Configure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate

throughout the network.

E.

Set up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a timely fashion.

Question 61

A company has 5000 Windows users on its campus. Which two precautions should IT take to prevent WannaCry ransomware from spreading to all clients? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Segment different departments to different IP blocks and enable Dynamic ARp inspection on all VLANs

B.

Ensure that noncompliant endpoints are segmented off to contain any potential damage.

C.

Ensure that a user cannot enter the network of another department.

D.

Perform a posture check to allow only network access to (hose Windows devices that are already patched.

E.

Put all company users in the trusted segment of NGFW and put all servers to the DMZ segment of the Cisco NGFW. ni

Question 62

Which direction do attackers encode data in DNS requests during exfiltration using DNS tunneling?

Options:

A.

inbound

B.

north-south

C.

east-west

D.

outbound

Question 63

What is the process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against preloaded

behavioral indicators for threat analysis?

Options:

A.

deep visibility scan

B.

point-in-time checks

C.

advanced sandboxing

D.

advanced scanning

Question 64

Which benefit does DMVPN provide over GETVPN?

Options:

A.

DMVPN supports QoS, multicast, and routing, and GETVPN supports only QoS.

B.

DMVPN is a tunnel-less VPN, and GETVPN is tunnel-based.

C.

DMVPN supports non-IP protocols, and GETVPN supports only IP protocols.

D.

DMVPN can be used over the public Internet, and GETVPN requires a private network.

Question 65

Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?

Options:

A.

24 State

B.

30 Calling-Station-ID

C.

42 Acct-Session-ID

D.

81 Message-Authenticator

Question 66

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

Options:

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

Question 67

Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the right.

Options:

Question 68

In which two ways does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution protect users? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It prevents use of compromised accounts and social engineering.

B.

It prevents all zero-day attacks coming from the Internet.

C.

It automatically removes malicious emails from users' inbox.

D.

It prevents trojan horse malware using sensors.

E.

It secures all passwords that are shared in video conferences.

Question 69

An engineer needs to detect and quarantine a file named abc424400664 zip based on the MD5 signature of the file using the Outbreak Control list feature within Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints The configured detection method must work on files of unknown disposition Which Outbreak Control list must be configured to provide this?

Options:

A.

Blocked Application

B.

Simple Custom Detection

C.

Advanced Custom Detection

D.

Android Custom Detection

Question 70

What are two ways that Cisco Container Platform provides value to customers who utilize cloud service providers? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Allows developers to create code once and deploy to multiple clouds

B.

helps maintain source code for cloud deployments

C.

manages Docker containers

D.

manages Kubernetes clusters

E.

Creates complex tasks for managing code

Question 71

What is a benefit of using Cisco CWS compared to an on-premises Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

Cisco CWS eliminates the need to backhaul traffic through headquarters for remote workers whereas Cisco WSA does not

B.

Cisco CWS minimizes the load on the internal network and security infrastructure as compared to Cisco WSA.

C.

URL categories are updated more frequently on Cisco CWS than they are on Cisco WSA

D.

Content scanning for SAAS cloud applications is available through Cisco CWS and not available through Cisco WSA

Question 72

What is a feature of container orchestration?

Options:

A.

ability to deploy Amazon ECS clusters by using the Cisco Container Platform data plane

B.

ability to deploy Amazon EKS clusters by using the Cisco Container Platform data plane

C.

ability to deploy Kubernetes clusters in air-gapped sites

D.

automated daily updates

Question 73

Why is it important to have a patching strategy for endpoints?

Options:

A.

to take advantage of new features released with patches

B.

so that functionality is increased on a faster scale when it is used

C.

so that known vulnerabilities are targeted and having a regular patch cycle reduces risks

D.

so that patching strategies can assist with disabling nonsecure protocols in applications

Question 74

A large organization wants to deploy a security appliance in the public cloud to form a site-to-site VPN

and link the public cloud environment to the private cloud in the headquarters data center. Which Cisco

security appliance meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloud Orchestrator

B.

Cisco ASAV

C.

Cisco WSAV

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Question 75

An organization has DHCP servers set up to allocate IP addresses to clients on the LAN. What must be done to ensure the LAN switches prevent malicious DHCP traffic while also distributing IP addresses to the correct endpoints?

Options:

A.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and add entries in the DHCP snooping database.

B.

Configure DHCP snooping and set trusted interfaces for all client connections.

C.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and antispoofing ACLs in the DHCP snooping database.

D.

Configure DHCP snooping and set a trusted interface for the DHCP server.

Question 76

Which type of data does the Cisco Stealthwatch system collect and analyze from routers, switches, and firewalls?

Options:

A.

NTP

B.

syslog

C.

SNMP

D.

NetFlow

Question 77

What is the most commonly used protocol for network telemetry?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TFTP

D.

NctFlow

Question 78

Why should organizations migrate to a multifactor authentication strategy?

Options:

A.

Multifactor authentication methods of authentication are never compromised

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for multifactor authentication due to its ability to be hacked easily

C.

Multifactor authentication does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism

D.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than multifactor authentication

Question 79

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco DNA center? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

B.

Third party reporting

C.

Connect to ITSM platforms

D.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

E.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

Question 80

What is a difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints is a cloud-based service, and Cisco Umbrella is not.

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints prevents connections to malicious destinations, and C malware.

C.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints automatically researches indicators of compromise ..

D.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints prevents, detects, and responds to attacks before and against Internet threats.

Question 81

An administrator is adding a new Cisco ISE node to an existing deployment. What must be done to ensure that the addition of the node will be successful when inputting the FQDN?

Options:

A.

Change the IP address of the new Cisco ISE node to the same network as the others.

B.

Make the new Cisco ISE node a secondary PAN before registering it with the primary.

C.

Open port 8905 on the firewall between the Cisco ISE nodes

D.

Add the DNS entry for the new Cisco ISE node into the DNS server

Question 82

Which baseline form of telemetry is recommended for network infrastructure devices?

Options:

A.

SDNS

B.

NetFlow

C.

passive taps

D.

SNMP

Question 83

Which solution is made from a collection of secure development practices and guidelines that developers must follow to build secure applications?

Options:

A.

AFL

B.

Fuzzing Framework

C.

Radamsa

D.

OWASP

Question 84

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet Extranet and Internet, with a

proxy configuration running in explicit mode. Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured

to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

Options:

A.

Transport mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

Question 85

II

An engineer musí set up 200 new laptops on a network and wants to prevent the users from moving their laptops around to simplify administration Which switch port MAC address security setting must be used?

Options:

A.

sticky

B.

static

C.

aging

D.

maximum

Question 86

An organization wants to implement a cloud-delivered and SaaS-based solution to provide visibility and threat detection across the AWS network. The solution must be deployed without software agents and rely on AWS VPC flow logs instead. Which solution meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

NetFlow collectors

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 87

What is a functional difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client?

Options:

A.

The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and AMP for Endpoints tracks only URL-based threats.

B.

The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and AMP for Endpoints allows only for VPN connectivity

C.

AMP for Endpoints authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity.

D.

AMP for Endpoints stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats.

Question 88

What is a function of the Layer 4 Traffic Monitor on a Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

blocks traffic from URL categories that are known to contain malicious content

B.

decrypts SSL traffic to monitor for malicious content

C.

monitors suspicious traffic across all the TCP/UDP ports

D.

prevents data exfiltration by searching all the network traffic for specified sensitive information

Question 89

An engineer is deploying Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints and wants to create a policy that prevents users from executing file named abc424952615.exe without quarantining that file What type of Outbreak Control list must the SHA.-256 hash value for the file be added to in order to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Advanced Custom Detection

B.

Blocked Application

C.

Isolation

D.

Simple Custom Detection

Demo: 89 questions
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