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Cisco 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 107 questions
Total 716 questions

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Questions and Answers

Question 1

When is the Design workflow used In Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

in a greenfield deployment, with no existing infrastructure

B.

in a greenfield or brownfield deployment, to wipe out existing data

C.

in a brownfield deployment, to modify configuration of existing devices in the network

D.

in a brownfield deployment, to provision and onboard new network devices

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router?

Options:

A.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

B.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

C.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

D.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

Question 3

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting an application running on Apple phones. The application Is receiving incorrect QoS markings. The systems administrator confirmed that ail configuration profiles are correct on the Apple devices. Which change on the WLC optimizes QoS for these devices?

Options:

A.

Enable Fastlane

B.

Set WMM to required

C.

Change the QoS level to Platinum

D.

Configure AVC Profiles

Question 5

Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43?

Options:

A.

The WLC is running a different software version.

B.

The API is joining a primed WLC

C.

The AP multicast traffic unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3.

D.

The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2.

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)# neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#network 10.3.3.3 update-source Loopback0

B.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source Loopback0

C.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

D.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result when a technician adds the monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 223 command1?

Options:

A.

The RSPAN VLAN is replaced by VLAN 223.

B.

RSPAN traffic is sent to VLANs 222 and 223

C.

An error is flagged for configuring two destinations.

D.

RSPAN traffic is split between VLANs 222 and 223.

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer reconfigures the pot-channel between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this error in SW1's log.

Which command set resolves this error?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router handle traffic after the CoPP policy is configured on the router?

Options:

A.

Traffic coming to R1 that does not match access list SNMP is dropped.

B.

Traffic coming to R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

C.

Traffic passing through R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

D.

Traffic generated by R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Python code snippet prints the descriptions of disabled interfaces only?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 11

How is a data modeling language used?

Options:

A.

To enable data lo be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated

B.

To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed

C.

To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure

D.

To provide human readability to scripting languages

Question 12

Which technology is used as the basis for the cisco sd-access data plane?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

LISP

C.

VXLAN

D.

802.1Q

Question 13

What is provided by the Stealthwatch component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution?

Options:

A.

real-time threat management to stop DDoS attacks to the core and access networks

B.

real-time awareness of users, devices and traffic on the network

C.

malware control

D.

dynamic threat control for web traffic

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer attempts to bundle interface Gi0/0 into the port channel, but it does not function as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on interface Gi0/0.

B.

Configure no shutdown on interface Gi0/0

C.

Enable fast LACP PDUs on interface Gi0/0.

D.

Set LACP max-bundle to 2 on interface Port-channeM

Question 15

Which threat defence mechanism, when deployed at the network perimeter, protects against zero-day attacks?

Options:

A.

intrusion prevention

B.

stateful inspection

C.

sandbox

D.

SSL decryption

Question 16

An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 17

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is attempting to configure an IS-IS adjacency between two routers, but the adjacency cannot be established. To troubleshoot the problem, the operator collects this debugging output. Which interfaces are misconfigured on these routers?

Options:

A.

The peer router interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the R2 interface is configured as Level 2 only

B.

The R2 interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the Peer router interface is configured as Level 2 only

C.

The R2 interface is configured as point-to-point, and the peer router interface is configured as multipoint.

D.

The peer router interface is configured as point-as-point, and the R2 interface is configured as multipoint.

Question 18

Which OSPF networks types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?

Options:

A.

broadcast to nonbroadcast

B.

point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast

C.

broadcast to point-to-point

D.

point-to-multipoint to broadcast

Question 19

An engineer must create an EEM applet that sends a syslog message in the event a change happens in the network due to trouble with an OSPF process. Which action should the engineer use?

Options:

A.

action 1 syslog msg "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

B.

action 1 syslog send "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

C.

action 1 syslog pattern "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

D.

action 1syslog write "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

Question 20

Drag and drop characteristics of PIM dense mode from the left to the right.

Options:

Question 21

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 22

When firewall capabilities are considered, which feature is found only in Cisco next-generation firewalls?

Options:

A.

malware protection

B.

stateful inspection

C.

traffic filtering

D.

active/standby high availability

Question 23

An engineer creates the configuration below. Drag and drop the authentication methods from the left into the order of priority on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 24

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be added to the configuration to analyze 50 packets out of every 100?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 25

Which two items are found in YANG data models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

HTTP return codes

B.

rpc statements

C.

JSON schema

D.

container statements

E.

XML schema

Question 26

Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring HSRP an engineer enters the show standby command. Which two facts are derived from the output? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The router with IP 10.10 1.3 is active because it has a higher IP address

B.

If Fa0/0 is shut down, the HSRP priority on R2 becomes 80

C.

R2 Fa1/0 regains the primary role when the link comes back up

D.

R2 becomes the active router after the hold time expires.

E.

R2 is using the default HSRP hello and hold timers.

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. Which protocol ensures that traffic is not disrupted in the event of a hardware failure?

Options:

A.

HSRPv1

B.

GLBP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRPv2

Question 28

Refer to the exhibit .

Which command must be configured for RESTCONF to operate on port 8888?

Options:

A.

ip http port 8888

B.

restconf port 8888

C.

ip http restconf port 8888

D.

restconf http port 8888

Question 29

Which benefit is realized by implementing SSO?

Options:

A.

IP first-hop redundancy

B.

communication between different nodes for cluster setup

C.

physical link redundancy

D.

minimal network downtime following an RP switchover

Question 30

What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

Options:

A.

Container

B.

Mainframe

C.

Host

D.

virtual machine

Question 31

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Options:

Question 32

What is the JSON syntax that is formed the data?

Options:

A.

{'Name'';''Bob johnon';''Age': Sevenfive,''Alive'': true,''FavoriteFoods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

B.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age': 75 ''Alive'': true,''Favorite Foods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

C.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age: 75,''Alive: true, FavoriteFoods;[Cereal, Mustard';''Onions}}

D.

{'Name'': 'Bob johnon','Age': 75,'Alive': true,''FavoriteFoods': 'Cereal';'Mustard','Onions'}}

Question 33

Which two characteristics apply to the endpoint security aspect of the Cisco Threat Defense architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

detect and black ransomware in email attachments

B.

outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls

C.

user context analysis

D.

blocking of fileless malware in real time

E.

cloud-based analysis of threats

Question 34

A company requires a wireless solution to support its mam office and multiple branch locations. All sites have local Internet connections and a link to the main office lor corporate connectivity. The branch offices are managed centrally. Which solution should the company choose?

Options:

A.

Cisco United Wireless Network

B.

Cisco DNA Spaces

C.

Cisco Catalyst switch with embedded controller

D.

Cisco Mobility Express

Question 35

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer checks connectivity between two routers. The engineer can ping the remote endpoint but cannot see an ARP entry. Why is there no ARP entry?

Options:

A.

The ping command must be executed in the global routing table.

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/0 Is configured in VRF CUST-A, so the ARP entry is also in that VRF.

C.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol must be enabled In each VRF.

D.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol is disabled in the global routing table.

Question 36

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

Options:

A.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 gets 'logging directly to console'

B.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg 'log directly to console'

C.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 puts 'logging directly to console'

D.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 string 'logging directly to console'

Question 37

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment types on the right.

Options:

Question 38

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be applied on R1 to establish a BGP neighborship with R2 and to allow communication from R1 to reach the networks?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit.

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP-enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02 Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 40

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effect of this configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet.

B.

It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation.

C.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range.

D.

The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range.

E.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses.

Question 41

An administrator is configuring NETCONF using the following XML string. What must the administrator end the request with?

Options:

A.

]]>]]>

B.

C.

D.

Question 42

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

Options:

A.

IKF

B.

TLS

C.

IPsec

D.

ESP

Question 43

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit. Which python code parses the response and prints “18:32:21.474 UTC sun Mar 10 2019?

Options:

A.

print(response['resut'][0||'simple_time']}

B.

print(response[result']['body']['simple_time']}

C.

print(response['body']['simple_time']}

D.

print(response[jresult']['body']['simple_time']}

Question 45

Drag and drop the LISP components on the left to their descriptions on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 46

What is used to validate the authenticity of the client and is sent in HTTP requests as a JSON object?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

JWT

D.

TLS

Question 47

Reter to the exhibit.

An administrator troubleshoots intermittent connectivity from internal hosts to an external public server. Some internal hosts can connect to the server while others receive an ICMP Host Unreachable message and these hosts change over time. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The translator does not use aOdress overloading

B.

The NAT ACL does not match alt internal hosts

C.

The NAT ACL and NAT pool share the same name

D.

The NAT pool netmask rs excessively wide

Question 48

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

applications

B.

disk

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Question 49

What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?

Options:

A.

send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

B.

ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver

C.

receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers

D.

secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver

Question 50

What is a characteristics of traffic policing?

Options:

A.

lacks support for marking or remarking

B.

must be applied only to outgoing traffic

C.

can be applied in both traffic directions

D.

queues out-of-profile packets until the buffer is full

Question 51

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure an ERSPAN session with the remote end of the session 10.10.0.1. Which commands must be added to complete the configuration?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 52

What are the main components of Cisco TrustSec?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE and Enterprise Directory Services

B.

Cisco ISE. network switches, firewalls, and routers

C.

Cisco ISE and TACACS+

D.

Cisco ASA and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense

Question 53

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the script be completed so that each device configuration is saved into a JSON-formatted file under the device name?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 54

What is one main REST security design principle?

Options:

A.

separation of privilege

B.

password hashing

C.

confidential algorithms

D.

OAuth

Question 55

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the snippet of code achieve?

Options:

A.

It creates a temporary connection to a Cisco Nexus device and retrieves a token to be used for API calls.

B.

It opens a tunnel and encapsulates the login information, if the host key is correct.

C.

It opens an ncclient connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context.

D.

It creates an SSH connection using the SSH key that is stored, and the password is ignored.

Question 56

Refer to the exhibit.

The IP SLA is configured in a router. An engineer must configure an EEM applet to shut down the interface and bring it back up when there is a problem with the IP SLA. Which configuration should the engineer use?

Options:

A.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state down

B.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state unreachable

C.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state unreachable

D.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state down

Question 57

Refer to the exhibit.

Which troubleshooting a routing issue, an engineer issues a ping from S1 to S2. When two actions from the initial value of the TTL? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The packet reaches R3, and the TTL expires

B.

R2 replies with a TTL exceeded message

C.

R3 replies with a TTL exceeded message.

D.

The packet reaches R2 and the TTL expires

E.

R1 replies with a TTL exceeded message

F.

The packet reaches R1 and the TTL expires.

Question 58

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

Options:

A.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

B.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

C.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

D.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

Question 59

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

Options:

A.

EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

B.

EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

C.

EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

D.

EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

Question 60

How is 802.11 traffic handled in a fabric-enabled SSID?

Options:

A.

centrally switched back to WLC where the user traffic is mapped to a VXLAN on the WLC

B.

converted by the AP into 802.3 and encapsulated into VXLAN

C.

centrally switched back to WLC where the user traffic is mapped to a VLAN on the WLC

D.

converted by the AP into 802.3 and encapsulated into a VLAN

Question 61

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

monitor

C.

bridge

D.

local

Question 62

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 63

What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?

Options:

A.

It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.

B.

It requires a client certificate.

C.

It is an IETF standard.

D.

It operates in transparent mode.

Question 64

What are two benefits of virtual switching when compared to hardware switching? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

increased MTU size

B.

hardware independence

C.

VM-level isolation

D.

increased flexibility

E.

extended 802.1Q VLAN range

Question 65

Refer to the exhibit Drag and drop the snippets into the RESTCONF request to form the request that returns this response Not all options are used

Options:

Question 66

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?

Options:

A.

R4(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

B.

R3(config-router)neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200

C.

R3(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

D.

R4(config-router)nighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200

Question 67

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows Customer2 hosts to access the FTP server of Customer1 that has the IP address of 192.168.1.200?

Options:

A.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global

ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 VlanlO

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

B.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer2

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customerl

C.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customerl

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer2

D.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 172.16.1.1 global

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 global

ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 VlanlO

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

Question 68

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between Switch1 and Switch2 and notices the console message on switch2. Based on the output, which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure less member ports on Switch2.

B.

Configure the same port channel interface number on both switches

C.

Configure the same EtherChannel protocol on both switches

D.

Configure more member ports on Switch1.

Question 69

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to create a configuration to allow the Blue VRF to leak into the global routing table, but the configuration does not function as expected. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Change the access-list destination mask to a wildcard.

B.

Change the source network that Is specified in access-list 101.

C.

Change the route-map configuration to VRF_BLUE.

D.

Change the access-list number in the route map

Question 70

What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.

B.

The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the Information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.

C.

FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.

D.

The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.

E.

The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.

Question 71

What is the centralized control policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

list of ordered statements that define user access policies

B.

set of statements that defines how routing is performed

C.

set of rules that governs nodes authentication within the cloud

D.

list of enabled services for all nodes within the cloud

Question 72

Which LISP component is required for a LISP site to communicate with a non-LISP site?

Options:

A.

ETR

B.

ITR

C.

Proxy ETR

D.

Proxy ITR

Question 73

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity issue and executes a traceoute. What does the result confirm?

Options:

A.

The destination server reported it is too busy

B.

The protocol is unreachable

C.

The destination port is unreachable

D.

The probe timed out

Question 74

What is used to perform OoS packet classification?

Options:

A.

the Options field in the Layer 3 header

B.

the Type field in the Layer 2 frame

C.

the Flags field in the Layer 3 header

D.

the TOS field in the Layer 3 header

Question 75

Which algorithms are used to secure REST API from brute attacks and minimize the impact?

Options:

A.

SHA-512 and SHA-384

B.

MD5 algorithm-128 and SHA-384

C.

SHA-1, SHA-256, and SHA-512

D.

PBKDF2, BCrypt, and SCrypt

Question 76

A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands

Sampler Netflow1

Mode random one-out-of 100

Interface fastethernet 1/0

Flow-sampler netflow1

Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced.

B.

Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported

C.

The data export flow is more secure.

D.

The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced

E.

The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved

Question 77

Which controller is capable of acting as a STUN server during the onboarding process of Edge devices?

Options:

A.

vBond

B.

vSmart

C.

vManage

D.

PNP server

Question 78

Where is radio resource management performed in a cisco SD-access wireless solution?

Options:

A.

DNA Center

B.

control plane node

C.

wireless controller

D.

Cisco CMX

Question 79

Refer to the exhibit. POSTMAN is showing an attempt to retrieve network device information from Cisco DNA Center API. What is the issue?

Options:

A.

The URI string is incorrect

B.

The token has expired.

C.

Authentication has failed

D.

The JSON payload contains the incorrect UUID

Question 80

When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network connectivity outage is experience for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem?

Options:

A.

Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

B.

Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.

C.

All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.

D.

All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

Question 81

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 82

How is traffic classified when using Cisco TrustSec technology?

Options:

A.

with the VLAN

B.

with the MAC address

C.

with the IP address

D.

with the security group tag

Question 83

What is the rose of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WN environment?

Options:

A.

it performs authentication and authorization

B.

it manages the control plane.

C.

it is the centralized network management system

D.

it manages the data plane

Question 84

When a DNS host record is configured for a new Cisco AireOS WLC, which hostname must be added to allow APs to successfully discover the WLC?

Options:

A.

CONTROLLER-CAPWAP-CISCO

B.

CISCO-CONTROLLER-CAPWAP

C.

CAPWAP-CISCO-CONTROLLER

D.

CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER

Question 85

Reler to the exhibit The EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 is not operational. Which a coon will resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on GVO and G1 1 of SW2.

B.

Configure twitchport trunk encapsulation dot1q on SW1 and SW2.

C.

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on Gl'O and GM of SW1 .

D.

Configure switchport mode dynamic desirable on SW1 and SW2

Question 86

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 41 use?

Options:

A.

0c:5e:ac:07:0c:29

B.

00:05:0c:07:ac:41

C.

004:41:73:18:84:29

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:29

Question 87

A customer wants to connect a device to an autonomous Cisco AP configured as a WGB. The WGB is configured properly: however, it fails to associate to a CAPWAP- enabled AP. Which change must be applied in the advanced WLAN settings to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Enable Aironet IE.

B.

Enable passive client.

C.

Disable AAA override.

D.

Disable FlexConnect local switching.

Question 88

Which technology enables a redundant supervisor engine to take over when the primary supervisor engine fails?

Options:

A.

NSF

B.

graceful restart

C.

SSO

D.

FHRP

Question 89

An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic

B.

Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible

C.

Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate

D.

Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it

E.

Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible

Question 90

: 194

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna is shown on the radiation patterns?

Options:

A.

Yagi

B.

dipole

C.

patch

D.

omnidirectional

Question 91

Refer to the exhibit.

Both controllers are in the same mobility group. Which result occurs when client 1 roams between APs that are registered to different controllers in the same WLAN?

Options:

A.

Client 1 contact controller B by using an EoIP tunnel.

B.

CAPWAP tunnel is created between controller A and controller B.

C.

Client 1 users an EoIP tunnel to contact controller A.

D.

The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B.

Question 92

Simulation 07

Options:

Question 93

Which free application has the ability to make REST calls against Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

API Explorer

B.

REST Explorer

C.

Postman

D.

Mozilla

Question 94

Which two methods are used to interconnect two Cisco SD-Access Fabric sites? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SD-Access transit

B.

fabric interconnect

C.

wireless transit

D.

IP-based transit

E.

SAN transit

Question 95

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must configure router B to allow traffic only from network 10.1002.0 to networks outside of router 0. Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 96

If AP power level is increased from 25 mW to 100 mW. what is the power difference in dBm?

Options:

A.

6 dBm

B.

14 dBm

C.

17 dBm

D.

20 dBm

Question 97

Which configuration filters out DOT1X messages in the format shown below from being sent toward Syslog server 10.15.20.33?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 98

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

Options:

A.

TCP connect

B.

ICMP echo

C.

ICMP jitter

D.

UDP jitter

Question 99

What does the statement print(format(0.8, '.0%')) display?

Options:

A.

80%

B.

8%

C.

.08%

D.

8.8%

Question 100

Based on the router's API output in JSON format below, which Python code will display the value of the “hostname" key?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an ERSPAN tunnel that mirrors traffic from linux1 on Switch1 to Linux2 on Switch2. Which command must be added to the destination configuration to enable the ERSPAN tunnel?

Options:

A.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# origin ip address 172.16.10.10

B.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# erspan-id 172.16.10.10

C.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# no shut

D.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# erspan-id 110

Question 102

A switch is attached to router R1 on its gig 0/0 interface. Fort security reasons, you want to prevent R1 from sending OSPF hellos to the switch. Which command should be enabled to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

R1(config-router)#ip ospf hello disable

B.

R1(config-router)#ip ospf hello-interval 0

C.

R1(config)#passive-interface Gig 0/0

D.

R1(config-router)#passive-interface Gig 0/0

Question 103

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance.

B.

All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center.

C.

Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect

D.

Users lose connectivity.

E.

User connectivity is unaffected.

Question 104

Which access control feature does MAB provide?

Options:

A.

user access based on IP address

B.

allows devices to bypass authenticate*

C.

network access based on the physical address of a device

D.

simultaneous user and device authentication

Question 105

An engineer applies this configuration to router R1. How does R1 respond when the user ‘cisco’ logs in?

Options:

A.

It displays the startup conftg and then permits the user to execute commands

B.

It places the user into EXEC mode and permits the user to execute any command

C.

It displays the startup conflg and then terminates the session.

D.

It places the user into EXEC mode but permits the user to execute only the show startup-config command

Question 106

Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue?

Options:

A.

SW1(config)#intgi1/1

SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

B.

SW2(config)#intgi1/2

SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

C.

SW2(config)#int gi1/2

SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

D.

SWl(config)#intgi1/1

SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

Question 107

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is required to summarize the Area 2 networks that are advertised to Area 0?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Demo: 107 questions
Total 716 questions