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Cisco 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 252 questions
Total 843 questions

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

monitor

C.

bridge

D.

local

Question 2

A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

Which protocol does the design include?

Options:

A.

HSRP version 2

B.

VRRP version 2

C.

GLBP

D.

VRRP version 3

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming the WLC's interfaces are not in the same subnet as the RADIUS server, which interface would the WLC use as the source for all RADIUS-related traffic?

Options:

A.

the interface specified on the WLAN configuration

B.

any interface configured on the WLC

C.

the controller management interface

D.

the controller virtual interface

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch Which command meets this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 6

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

Options:

A.

container

B.

Type 1 hypervisor

C.

hardware pass-thru

D.

Type 2 hypervisor

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the Json syntax that is formed from the data?

Options:

A.

{Name: Bob Johnson, Age: 75, Alive: true, Favorite Foods: [Cereal, Mustard, Onions]}

B.

{"Name": "Bob Johnson", "Age": 75, "Alive": true, "Favorite Foods": ["Cereal", "Mustard", "Onions"]}

C.

{"˜Name': "˜Bob Johnson', "˜Age': 75, "˜Alive': True, "˜Favorite Foods': "˜Cereal', "˜Mustard', "˜Onions'}

D.

{"Name": "Bob Johnson", "Age": Seventyfive, "Alive": true, "Favorite Foods": ["Cereal", "Mustard", "Onions"]}

Question 8

When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?

Options:

A.

NTP server

B.

PKI server

C.

RADIUS server

D.

TACACS server

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit. External users require HTTP connectivity to an internal company web server that is listening on TCP port 8080. Which command set accomplishes this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 10

After a redundant route processor failure occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables?

Options:

A.

BFD

B.

RPVST+

C.

RP failover

D.

NSF

Question 11

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

Options:

A.

EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

B.

EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

C.

EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

D.

EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

Question 12

Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial?

Options:

A.

under interface saturation condition

B.

under network convergence condition

C.

under all network condition

D.

under traffic classification and marking conditions.

Question 13

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as an entry point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a script that appends the output of the show process cpu sorted command to a file.

Options:

A.

action 4.0 syslog command “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

B.

action 4.0 publish-event “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

C.

action 4.0 ens-event “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

D.

action 4.0 cli command “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

Question 15

Which three elements determine Air Time efficiency? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

evert-driven RRM

B.

data rate (modulation density) or QAM

C.

channel bandwidth

D.

number of spatial streams and spatial reuse

E.

RF group leader

F.

dynamic channel assignment

Question 16

Refer to exhibit.

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?

Options:

A.

SW1 (config)#vtp pruning

B.

SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent

C.

SW2(config)=vtp pruning

D.

SW1 (config >»vtp mode transparent

Question 17

Which line must be added in the Python function to return the JSON object {"cat_9k": “FXS193202SE")?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between Switch1 and Switch2 and notices the console message on switch2. Based on the output, which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure less member ports on Switch2.

B.

Configure the same port channel interface number on both switches

C.

Configure the same EtherChannel protocol on both switches

D.

Configure more member ports on Switch1.

Question 19

What is the centralized control policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

list of ordered statements that define user access policies

B.

set of statements that defines how routing is performed

C.

set of rules that governs nodes authentication within the cloud

D.

list of enabled services for all nodes within the cloud

Question 20

A network engineer configures BGP between R1 and R2. Both routers use BGP peer group CORP and are set up to use MD5 authentication. This message is logged to the console of router R1:

Which two configuration allow peering session to from between R1 and R2? Choose two.)

Options:

A.

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

B.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

C.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor PEER password Cisco

D.

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

E.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

Question 21

Refer to the exhibit Drag and drop the snippets into the RESTCONF request to form the request that returns this response Not all options are used

Options:

Question 22

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

Options:

A.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

B.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

C.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

D.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

Question 23

An engineer configures HSRP group 37. The configuration does not modify the default virtual MAC address. Which virtual MAC address does the group use?

Options:

A.

C0:00:00:25:00:00

B.

00:00:0c:07:ac:37

C.

C0:39:83:25:258:5

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:25

Question 24

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 25

Which three methods does Cisco DNA Centre use to discover devices? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

LLDP

D.

ping

E.

NETCONF

F.

a specified range of IP addresses

Question 26

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.

Options:

Question 27

What is the function of the LISP map resolver?

Options:

A.

to send traffic to non-LISP sites when connected to a service provider that does not accept nonroutable ElDs as packet sources

B.

to connect a site to the LISP-capable part of a core network publish the EID-to-RLOC mappings for the site, and respond to map-request messages

C.

to decapsulate map-request messages from ITRs and forward the messages to the MS.

D.

to advertise routable non-LISP traffic from one address family to LISP sites in a different address family

Question 28

A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the output verify?

Options:

A.

The tunnel will be established and work as expected

B.

The tunnel destination will be known via the tunnel interface

C.

The tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on both sites

D.

The default MTU of the tunnel interface is 1500 byte.

Question 29

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the EtherChannel issue between SW2 and SW3?

Options:

A.

Configure switchport mode trunk on SW2.

B.

Configure switchport nonegotiate on SW3

C.

Configure channel-group 1 mode desirable on both interfaces.

D.

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on both interfaces.

Question 30

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the router However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet. Which explanation of this behavior is true?

Options:

A.

Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is sourced from the router.

B.

Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address.

C.

After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for the access control list to take effect.

D.

The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router.

Question 31

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure a password expiry mechanism on the gateway router for all local passwords to expire after 60 days. What is required to complete this task?

Options:

A.

The password expiry mechanism is on the AAA server and must be configured there.

B.

Add the aaa authentication enable default Administrators command.

C.

Add the username admin privilege 15 common-criteria*policy Administrators password 0 Cisco13579! command.

D.

No further action Is required. The configuration is complete.

Question 32

Refer to the exhibit. The connecting between SW1 and SW2 is not operational. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

configure switchport mode access on SW2

B.

configure switchport nonegotiate on SW2

C.

configure switchport mode trunk on SW2

D.

configure switchport nonegotiate on SW1

E.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable on SW2

Question 33

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the loopback interface of router R2 during the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times. Which command accomplish this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 34

Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

Options:

A.

switch fabric

B.

VTEP

C.

VNID

D.

host switch

Question 35

Refer to the exhibit. What does the error message relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device?

Options:

A.

A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist.

B.

The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error.

C.

A NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed.

D.

The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.

Question 36

Which two threats does AMP4E have the ability to block? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

ransomware

C.

Microsoft Word macro attack

D.

SQL injection

E.

email phishing

Question 37

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna is show on the radiation patterns?

Options:

A.

Dipole

B.

Yagi

C.

Patch

D.

Omnidirectional

Question 38

Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting a network engineer finds that after the user a disconnect, the connection re-establishes automatically without any input required. The engineer also notices these message logs .

Which action reduces the user impact?

Options:

A.

increase the AP heartbeat timeout

B.

increase BandSelect

C.

enable coverage hole detection

D.

increase the dynamic channel assignment interval

Question 39

Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?

Options:

A.

SSL

B.

MD5

C.

AES128

D.

AES256

Question 40

Drag and drop the Qos mechanisms from the left to the correct descriptions on the right

Options:

Question 41

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures NAT on R1 and enters the show command to verity the configuration What does the output confirm?

Options:

A.

The first pocket triggered NAT to add on entry to NAT table

B.

R1 is configured with NAT overload parameters

C.

A Telnet from 160.1.1 1 to 10.1.1.10 has been initiated.

D.

R1 to configured with PAT overload parameters

Question 42

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to create a configuration to allow the Blue VRF to leak into the global routing table, but the configuration does not function as expected. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Change the access-list destination mask to a wildcard.

B.

Change the source network that Is specified in access-list 101.

C.

Change the route-map configuration to VRF_BLUE.

D.

Change the access-list number in the route map

Question 43

Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?

Options:

A.

MTU

B.

Window size

C.

MRU

D.

MSS

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is investigating why guest users are able to access other guest user devices when the users are connected to the customer guest WLAN. What action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

implement MFP client protection

B.

implement split tunneling

C.

implement P2P blocking

D.

implement Wi-Fi direct policy

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

B.

R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

C.

R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

D.

R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0

E.

R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

Question 46

Which method should an engineer use to deal with a long-standing contention issue between any two VMs on the same host?

Options:

A.

Adjust the resource reservation limits

B.

Live migrate the VM to another host

C.

Reset the VM

D.

Reset the host

Question 47

Which method of account authentication does OAuth 2.0 within REST APIs?

Options:

A.

username/role combination

B.

access tokens

C.

cookie authentication

D.

basic signature workflow

Question 48

Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 49

How are the different versions of IGMP compatible?

Options:

A.

IGMPv2 is compatible only with IGMPv1.

B.

IGMPv2 is compatible only with IGMPv2.

C.

IGMPv3 is compatible only with IGMPv3.

D.

IGMPv3 is compatible only with IGMPv1

Question 50

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

Options:

A.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

B.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

C.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514

D.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

Question 51

Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

HEAD

B.

REMOVE

C.

PULL

D.

PATCH

E.

ADD

F.

PUSH

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures a GRE tunnel and enters the show Interface tunnel command. What does the output confirm about the configuration?

Options:

A.

The keepalive value is modified from the default value.

B.

Interface tracking is configured.

C.

The tunnel mode is set to the default.

D.

The physical interface MTU is 1476 bytes.

Question 53

What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?

Options:

A.

To collect traffic flow information toward external networks

B.

To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks

C.

To attach and register clients to the fabric

D.

To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.

Question 54

Drag and drop the wireless elements on the left to their definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 55

Which two operational models enable an AP to scan one or more wireless channels for rouge access points and at the same time provide wireless services to clients? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Rouge detector

B.

Sniffer

C.

FlexConnect

D.

Local

E.

Monitor

Question 56

What is one fact about Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployments?

Options:

A.

The access point is part of the fabric underlay

B.

The WLC is part of the fabric underlay

C.

The access point is part the fabric overlay

D.

The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay

Question 57

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer implemented several configuration changes and receives the logging message on switch1. Which action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Change the VTP domain to match on both switches

B.

Change Switch2 to switch port mode dynamic auto

C.

Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic auto

D.

Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic desirable

Question 58

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts, drag and drop the commands into the configuration to achieve these results. Some commands may be used more than once. Not all commands are used.

Options:

Question 59

What is one difference between saltstack and ansible?

Options:

A.

SaltStack uses an API proxy agent to program Cisco boxes on agent mode, whereas Ansible uses a Telnet connection

B.

SaltStack uses the Ansible agent on the box, whereas Ansible uses a Telnet server on the box

C.

SaltStack is constructed with minion, whereas Ansible is constructed with YAML

D.

SaltStack uses SSH to interact with Cisco devices, whereas Ansible uses an event bus

Question 60

What is the difference between CEF and process switching?

Options:

A.

CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.

B.

CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.

C.

CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.

D.

Process switching is faster than CEF.

Question 61

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Options:

Question 62

What does the cisco DNA REST response indicate?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center has the Incorrect credentials for cat3850-1

B.

Cisco DNA Center is unable to communicate with cat9000-1

C.

Cisco DNA Center has the incorrect credentials for cat9000-1

D.

Cisco DNA Center has the Incorrect credentials for RouterASR-1

Question 63

How does the RIB differ from the FIB?

Options:

A.

The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

B.

The FIB includes many routes a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.

C.

The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route

D.

The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a Iist of routes to particular network destinations.

Question 64

What is a characteristics of Cisco SD-WAN?

Options:

A.

operates over DTLS/TLS authenticated and secured tunnels

B.

requires manual secure tunnel configuration

C.

uses unique per-device feature templates

D.

uses control connections between routers

Question 65

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 41 use?

Options:

A.

0c:5e:ac:07:0c:29

B.

00:05:0c:07:ac:41

C.

004:41:73:18:84:29

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:29

Question 66

Refer to the exhibit.

Which antenna emits this radiation pattern?

Options:

A.

omnidirectional

B.

Yagi

C.

RP-TNC

D.

dish

Question 67

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tool classifications on the right.

Options:

Question 68

Which router is elected the IGMP Querier when more than one router is in the same LAN segment?

Options:

A.

The router with the shortest uptime

B.

The router with the lowest IP address

C.

The router with the highest IP address

D.

The router with the longest uptime

Question 69

Refer to the exhibit.

Both controllers are in the same mobility group. Which result occurs when client 1 roams between APs that are registered to different controllers in the same WLAN?

Options:

A.

Client 1 contact controller B by using an EoIP tunnel.

B.

CAPWAP tunnel is created between controller A and controller B.

C.

Client 1 users an EoIP tunnel to contact controller A.

D.

The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B.

Question 70

In a Cisco SD-Access environment, which function is performed by the border node?

Options:

A.

Connect uteri and devices to the fabric domain.

B.

Group endpoints into IP pools.

C.

Provide reachability information to fabric endpoints.

D.

Provide connectivity to traditional layer 3 networks.

Question 71

Which Cisco DNA Center application is responsible for group-based access control permissions?

Options:

A.

Provision

B.

Design

C.

Policy

D.

Assurance

Question 72

A technician is assisting a user who cannot connect to a website. The technician attempts to ping the default gateway and DNS server of the workstation. According to troubleshooting methodology, this is an example of:

Options:

A.

a divide-and-conquer approach.

B.

a bottom-up approach.

C.

a top-to-bottom approach.

D.

implementing a solution.

Question 73

An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

WPA2 Personal

B.

WPA3 Enterprise

C.

WPA3 Personal

D.

WPA2 Enterprise

Question 74

Which JSON script is properly formatted?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 75

An engineer is configuring RADIUS-Based Authentication with EAP. MS-CHAPv2 is configured on a client device. Which outer method protocol must be configured on the ISE to support this authentication type?

Options:

A.

EAP-TLS

B.

EAP-FAST

C.

LDAP

D.

PEAP

Question 76

Refer to the exhibit.

The server in DC2 is expecting traffic from the database in DC1 to use the source network of 10.50.250.0/24. The server sends the initial request. The inside global IP is configured for 10.50.250.1. What is the result of this configuration?

Options:

A.

Only the server can initiate communication.

B.

The server and the database cannot communicate.

C.

The server and the database can initiate communication.

D.

Only the database can initiate communication

Question 77

What is the function of vBond in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

initiating connections with SD-WAN routers automatically

B.

pushing of configuration toward SD-WAN routers

C.

onboarding of SD-WAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay

D.

gathering telemetry data from SD-WAN routers

Question 78

Refer to the exhibit.

What happens to access interfaces where VLAN 222 is assigned?

Options:

A.

STP BPDU guard is enabled

B.

A description "RSPAN" is added.

C.

They are placed into an inactive state.

D.

They cannot provide PoE.

Question 79

Which collection contains the resources to obtain a list of fabric nodes through the vManage API?

Options:

A.

device management

B.

administration

C.

device inventory

D.

monitoring

Question 80

Simulation 04

Options:

Question 81

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEtherenet1 interface. Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Router(config-vrf)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

B.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv4

C.

Router(config-if)#address-family ipv4

D.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv6

E.

Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

Question 82

Drag and drop the LISP components on the left to the correct description on the right.

Options:

Question 83

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable R1 and R2 to advertise routes into OSPF? (Choose two)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E) Option E

Question 84

Which element is unique to a Type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

memory

B.

VM OS

C.

host OS

D.

host hardware

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer Is troubleshooting an Issue with the file server based on reports of slow file transmissions. Which two commands or command sets are required. In switch SW1 to analyze the traffic from the file server with a packet analyzer? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Which GRE tunnel configuration command is missing on R2?

Options:

A.

tunnel source 192.181.2

B.

tunnel source 172.16.1.0

C.

tunnel source 200.1.1.1

D.

tunnel destination 200.1.1.1

Question 87

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has a BGP neighborship with a directly connected router on interface Gi0/0.

Which command set is applied between the iterations of show ip bgp 2.2.2.2?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#router bgp 65001

R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.50.2 shutdown

B.

R1(config)#router bgp 65002

R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.50.2 shutdown

C.

R1(config)#no ip route 192.168.50.2 255.255.255.255 Gi0/0

D.

R1(config)#ip route 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.255 192.168.50.2

Question 88

What is one being of implementing a data modetag language?

Options:

A.

accuracy of the operations performed

B.

uses XML style of data formatting

C.

machine-oriented logic and language-facilitated processing.

D.

conceptual representation to simplify interpretation.

Question 89

Simulation 09

Options:

Question 90

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

Options:

A.

PETR

B.

PITR

C.

map resolver

D.

map server

Question 91

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions is changed from 1 to 2?

Options:

A.

Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.

B.

No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.

C.

Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.

D.

No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.

Question 92

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action results from executing the Python script?

Options:

A.

display the output of a command that is entered on that device in a single line

B.

SSH to the IP address that is manually entered on that device

C.

display the output of a command that is entered on that device

D.

display the unformatted output of a command that is entered on that device

Question 93

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to ensure that the preferred path for traffic from AS 65010 toward AS 65020 uses the R2 to R4 path?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 94

What is the function of the fabric control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric

B.

It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric

C.

It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric

D.

It provides integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments

Question 95

Which Python library is used to work with YANG data models via NETCONF?

Options:

A.

Postman

B.

requests

C.

nccllent

D.

cURL

Question 96

Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?

Options:

A.

provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration

B.

performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks

C.

used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches

D.

in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node

Question 97

Simulation 06

Options:

Question 98

What is one role of the VTEP in a VXLAN environment?

Options:

A.

to forward packets to non-LISP sites

B.

to encapsulate the tunnel

C.

to maintain VLAN configuration consistency

D.

to provide EID-to-RLOC mapping

Question 99

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer applies this configuration to R1:

ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.17 192.168.27.42

Which command set should be added to complete the configuration?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 100

What does the destination MAC on the outer MAC header identify in a VXLAN packet?

Options:

A.

thee emote spine

B.

the next hop

C.

the leaf switch

D.

the remote switch

Question 101

: 194

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna is shown on the radiation patterns?

Options:

A.

Yagi

B.

dipole

C.

patch

D.

omnidirectional

Question 102

An engineer must create a script to append and modify device entries in a JSON-formatted file. The script must work as follows:

  • Until interrupted from the keyboard, the script reads in the hostname of a device, its management IP address, operating system type, and CLI remote access protocol.
  • After being interrupted, the script displays the entered entries and adds them to the JSON-formatted file, replacing existing entries whose hostname matches.

The contents of the JSON-formatted file are as follows:

Drag and drop the statements onto the blanks within the code to complete the script. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 103

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-ACCESS fabric? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center

B.

Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect

C.

User connectivity is unaffected

D.

Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance

E.

Users lose connectivity

Question 104

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance.

B.

All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center.

C.

Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect

D.

Users lose connectivity.

E.

User connectivity is unaffected.

Question 105

What mechanism does PIM use to forward multicast traffic?

Options:

A.

PIM sparse mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic.

B.

PIM dense mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic.

C.

PIM sparse mode uses receivers to register with the RP.

D.

PIM sparse mode uses a flood and prune model to deliver multicast traffic.

Question 106

When is GLBP preferred over HSRP?

Options:

A.

When encrypted helm are required between gateways h a single group.

B.

When the traffic load needs to be shared between multiple gateways using a single virtual IP.

C.

When the gateway routers are a mix of Cisco and non-Cisco routers

D.

When clients need the gateway MAC address lo Be the same between multiple gateways

Question 107

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration set implements Control plane Policing for SSH and Telnet?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 108

Which of the following attacks becomes more effective because of global leakages of users' passwords?

Options:

A.

Dictionary

B.

Brute-force

C.

Phishing

D.

Deauthentication

Question 109

Which security measure mitigates a man-in-the-middle attack of a REST API?

Options:

A.

SSL certificates

B.

biometric authentication

C.

password hash

D.

non repudiotion feature

Question 110

Refer to the exhibit.

Extended access-list 100 is configured on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 in an inbound direction, but it does not have the expected behavior of allowing only packets to or from 192.168.0.0/16. Which command set properly configures the access list?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#no access-list 100 seq 10

R1(config)#access-list 100 seq 40 deny ip any any

B.

R1(config)#ip access-list extended 100

R1(config-ext-nacl)#no 10

C.

R1(config)#no access-list 100 deny ip any any

D.

R1(config)#ip access-list extended 100

R1(config-ext-nacl)#5 permit to any any

Question 111

What is the purpose of the weight attribute in an EID-lo-RLOC mapping?

Options:

A.

it indicates the preference for using LISP over native IP connectivity.

B.

it determines the administrative distance of LISP generated routes in the RIB

C.

It identifies the preferred RLOC address family.

D.

it indicates the load-balancing ratio between CTRs of 9m earns priority.

Question 112

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the corresponding infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Options:

Question 113

Drag the drop the description from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 114

Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?

Options:

A.

vBond

B.

cSmart

C.

vManage

D.

WAN Edge

Question 115

Refer to the exhibit.

The traceroute fails from R1 to R3. What is the cause of the failure?

Options:

A.

The loopback on R3 Is in a shutdown stale.

B.

An ACL applied Inbound on loopback0 of R2 Is dropping the traffic.

C.

An ACL applied Inbound on fa0/1 of R3 is dropping the traffic.

D.

Redistribution of connected routes into OSPF is not configured.

Question 116

What is a benefit of YANG modules?

Options:

A.

tightly coupled models with encoding to improve performance

B.

easier multivendor interoperability provided by common or industry models

C.

avoidance of ecosystem fragmentation by having fixed that cannot be changed

D.

single protocol and model couple to simplify maintenance and supported

Question 117

A network engineer must configure a switch to allow remote access for all feasible protocols. Only a password must be requested for device authentication and all idle sessions must be terminated in 30 minutes. Which configuration must be applied?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 118

A customer has a pair of Cisco 5520 WLCs set up in an SSO cluster to manage all APs. Guest traffic is anchored to a Cisco 3504 WLC located in a DMZ. Which action is needed to ensure that the EolP tunnel remains in an UP state in the event of failover on the SSO cluster?

Options:

A.

Configure back-to-back connectivity on the RP ports.

B.

Enable default gateway reachability check.

C.

Use the same mobility domain on all WLCs.

D.

Use the mobility MAC when the mobility peer is configured.

Question 119

Which NTP mode must be activated when using a Cisco router as an NTP authoritative server?

Options:

A.

primary

B.

server

C.

broadcast client

D.

peer

Question 120

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the corresponding tools on the right.

Options:

Question 121

Refer to the exhibit.

Which HTTP request produced the REST API response that was returned by Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

fetch /network-device?macAddress=ac:4a:56:6c:7c:00

B.

POST/network-device?macAddress=ac:4a:56:6c:7c:00

C.

GET/network-device?macAddress=ac:4a:56:6c:7c:00

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

Clients are reporting an issue with the voice traffic from the branch site to the central site. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The voice traffic is using the link with less available bandwidth.

B.

There is a routing loop on the network.

C.

Traffic is load-balancing over both links, causing packets to arrive out of order.

D.

There is a high delay on the WAN links.

Question 123

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set completes the ERSPAN session configuration?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 124

What is one characteristic of Cisco DNA Center and vManage northbound APIs?

Options:

A.

They push configuration changes down to devices.

B.

They implement the RESTCONF protocol.

C.

They exchange XML-formatted content.

D.

They implement the NETCONF protocol.

Question 125

What is one characteristic of VXLAN?

Options:

A.

It supports a maximum of 4096 VLANs.

B.

It supports multitenant segments.

C.

It uses STP to prevent loops in the underlay network.

D.

It uses the Layer 2 header to transfer packets through the network underlay.

Question 126

Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

golden image selection

B.

automation backup

C.

proxy configuration

D.

application updates

E.

system update

Question 127

The Gig0/0 interface of two routers is directly connected with a 1G Ethernet link. Which configuration must be applied to the interface of both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency without maintaining a DR/BDR relationship?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 128

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

Options:

A.

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

B.

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

C.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

D.

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

Question 129

What is the JSON syntax that is formed the data?

Options:

A.

{'Name'';''Bob johnon';''Age': Sevenfive,''Alive'': true,''FavoriteFoods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

B.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age': 75 ''Alive'': true,''Favorite Foods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

C.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age: 75,''Alive: true, FavoriteFoods;[Cereal, Mustard';''Onions}}

D.

{'Name'': 'Bob johnon','Age': 75,'Alive': true,''FavoriteFoods': 'Cereal';'Mustard','Onions'}}

Question 130

How do EIGRP metrics compare to OSPF metrics?

Options:

A.

EIGRP metrics are based on a combination of bandwidth and packet loss, and OSPF metrics are based on interface bandwidth.

B.

EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm, and OSPF uses The DUAL algorithm

C.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is undefined

D.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is 110

Question 131

What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?

Options:

A.

The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server.

B.

The number of hops it takes to reach the authoritative time source.

C.

The amount of offset between the device clock and true time.

D.

The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.

Question 132

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must load balance traffic that comes from the NAT Router and is destined to 10.10.110.10, to several FTP servers. Which two commands sets should be applied? (Choose two).

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 133

Refer to the exhibit .

Which command must be configured for RESTCONF to operate on port 8888?

Options:

A.

ip http port 8888

B.

restconf port 8888

C.

ip http restconf port 8888

D.

restconf http port 8888

Question 134

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the appropriate tools on the right.

Options:

Question 135

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the technology types on the right.

Options:

Question 136

What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

Options:

A.

Container

B.

Mainframe

C.

Host

D.

virtual machine

Question 137

Which benefit is realized by implementing SSO?

Options:

A.

IP first-hop redundancy

B.

communication between different nodes for cluster setup

C.

physical link redundancy

D.

minimal network downtime following an RP switchover

Question 138

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the script be completed so that each device configuration is saved into a JSON-formatted file under the device name?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 139

Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

VXLAN

B.

IS-IS

C.

OSPF

D.

LISP

Question 140

Which component transports data plane traffic across a Cisco SD-WAN network?

Options:

A.

vSmart

B.

vManage

C.

cEdge

D.

vBond

Question 141

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer tries to log in to router R1. Which configuration enables a successful login?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 142

Refer to the exhibit. Which EEM script generates a critical-level syslog message and saves a copy of the running configuration to the bootflash when an administrator saves the running configuration to the startup configuration?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 143

What is one characteristic of the Cisco SD-Access control plane?

Options:

A.

It is based on VXLAN technology.

B.

Each router processes every possible destination and route

C.

It allows host mobility only in the wireless network.

D.

It stores remote routes in a centralized database server

Question 144

What is one main REST security design principle?

Options:

A.

separation of privilege

B.

password hashing

C.

confidential algorithms

D.

OAuth

Question 145

Refer io me exhibit.

An engineer configures the trunk and proceeds to configure an ESPAN session to monitor VLANs10. 20. and 30. Which command must be added to complete this configuration?

Options:

A.

Device(config.mon.erspan.stc)# no filter vlan 30

B.

Devic(config.mon.erspan.src-dst)# no vrf 1

C.

Devic(config.mon.erspan.src-dst)# erspan id 6

D.

Device(config.mon-erspan.Src-dst)# mtu 1460

Question 146

A large campus network has deployed two wireless LAN controllers to manage the wireless network. WLC1 and WLC2 have been configured as mobility peers. A client device roams from AP1 on WLC1 to AP2 on WLC2, but the controller's client interfaces are on different VLANs. How do the wireless LAN controllers handle the inter-subnet roaming?

Options:

A.

WLC1 marks me diem with an anchor entry In Its own database. The database entry is copied to the new controller and marked with a foreign entry on VVLC2.

B.

WLC2 marks the client with an anchor entry In Its own database. The database entry Is copied to the new controller and marked with a foreign entry on WLC1

C.

WLCl marks the client with a foreign entry in its own database. The database entry is copied to the new controller and marked with an anchor entry on WLC2.

D.

WLC2 marks the client with a foreign entry In its own database. The database entry Is copied to the new controller and marked with an anchor entry on WLC1.

Question 147

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer entered the command no spanning-tree bpduguard enable on interface Fa 1/0/7. What is the effect of this command on Fa 1/0/7?

Options:

A.

It remains in err-disabled state until the shutdown/no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

B.

It remains in err-disabled state until the errdisable recovery cause failed-port-state command is entered in the global configuration mode.

C.

It remains in err-disabled state until the no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

D.

It remains in err-disabled state until the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard disable command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

Question 148

What is a characteristics of a vSwitch?

Options:

A.

supports advanced Layer 3 routing protocols that are not offered by a hardware switch

B.

enables VMs to communicate with each other within a virtualized server

C.

has higher performance than a hardware switch

D.

operates as a hub and broadcasts the traffic toward all the vPorts

Question 149

Which option must be used to support a WLC with an IPv6 management address and 100 Cisco Aironet 2800 Series access points that will use DHCP to register?

Options:

A.

43

B.

52

C.

60

D.

82

Question 150

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

applications

B.

disk

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Question 151

What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?

Options:

A.

The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.

B.

The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

C.

Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.

D.

TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

Question 152

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow all users in the 10.2.2.0/24 subnet to access the Internet. To conserve address space the public Interface address of 209 165 201.1 must be used for all external communication. Which command set accomplishes these requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 153

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure the router to use the ISE-Servers group for authentication. If both ISE servers are unavailable, the local username database must be used. If no usernames are defined in the configuration, then the enable password must be the last resort to log in. Which configuration must be applied to achieve this result?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication login default group ISE-Servers local enable

B.

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

C.

aaa authorization exec default group ISE-Servers local enable

D.

aaa authentication login error-enable

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

Question 154

Refer to the exhibit.

Which commands are required to allow SSH connection to the router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 155

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 32 use?

Options:

A.

00:5e:0c:07:ac:20

B.

04:18:20:83:2e:32

C.

05:5e:5c:ac:0c:32

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:20

Question 156

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured an IP SLA for UDP echo’s. Which command is needed to start the IP SLA to test every 30 seconds and continue until stopped?

Options:

A.

ip sla schedule 100 start-time now life forever

B.

ip sla schedule 30 start-time now life forever

C.

ip sla schedule 100 start-time now life 30

D.

ip sla schedule 100 life forever

Question 157

Which VXLAN component is used to encapsulate and decapsulate Ethernet frames?

Options:

A.

VNI

B.

GRE

C.

VTEP

D.

EVPN

Question 158

What are the main components of Cisco TrustSec?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE and Enterprise Directory Services

B.

Cisco ISE. network switches, firewalls, and routers

C.

Cisco ISE and TACACS+

D.

Cisco ASA and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense

Question 159

Drag and drop the Cisco SD-Access solution areas from the left onto the protocols they use on the right.

Options:

Question 160

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effect of this configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet.

B.

It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation.

C.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range.

D.

The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range.

E.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses.

Question 161

What is used to validate the authenticity of the client and is sent in HTTP requests as a JSON object?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

JWT

D.

TLS

Question 162

A system must validate access rights to all its resources and must not rely on a cached permission matrix. If the access level to a given resource is revoked but is not reflected in the permission matrix, the security is violated. Which term refers to this REST security design principle?

Options:

A.

economy of mechanism

B.

complete mediation

C.

separation of privilege

D.

least common mechanism

Question 163

What is the recommended minimum SNR for data applications on wireless networks?

Options:

A.

15

B.

20

C.

25

D.

10

Question 164

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer checks connectivity between two routers. The engineer can ping the remote endpoint but cannot see an ARP entry. Why is there no ARP entry?

Options:

A.

The ping command must be executed in the global routing table.

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/0 Is configured in VRF CUST-A, so the ARP entry is also in that VRF.

C.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol must be enabled In each VRF.

D.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol is disabled in the global routing table.

Question 165

An engineer must configure a new loopback Interface on a router and advertise the interface as a fa4 in OSPF. Which command set accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 166

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left to the table types on the right.

Options:

Question 167

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow R1 to advertise the 192 168.1 0/24 network to R2 R1 must perform this action without sending OSPF packets to SW1 Which command set should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 168

Refer to the exhibit. What is generated by the script?

Options:

A.

the cdp neighbors

B.

the routing table

C.

the router processes

D.

the running configuration

Question 169

An administrator is configuring NETCONF using the following XML string. What must the administrator end the request with?

Options:

A.

]]>]]>

B.

C.

D.

Question 170

Which two Cisco SD-WAN components exchange OMP information?

Options:

A.

vAnaiytlcs

B.

vSmart

C.

WAN Edge

D.

vBond

E.

vManage

Question 171

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 172

In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

Options:

A.

NSF/NSR

B.

SSO

C.

HSRP

D.

VRRP

Question 173

Which Python snippet should be used to store the devices data structure in a JSON file?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 174

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 175

What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

Options:

A.

a predetermined string that is passed from client to server

B.

a one-time encrypted token

C.

a username that is stored in the local router database

D.

a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

Question 176

Which Cisco FlexConnect state allows wireless users that are connected to the network to continue working after the connection to the WLC has been lost?

Options:

A.

Authentication Down/Switching Down

B.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Local

C.

Authentication- Down/Switch-Local

D.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Central

Question 177

What is a characteristics of traffic policing?

Options:

A.

lacks support for marking or remarking

B.

must be applied only to outgoing traffic

C.

can be applied in both traffic directions

D.

queues out-of-profile packets until the buffer is full

Question 178

What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?

Options:

A.

send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

B.

ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver

C.

receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers

D.

secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver

Question 179

Drag and drop the LIPS components on the left to the correct description on the right.

Options:

Question 180

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 181

Which function does a fabric wireless LAN controller perform In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

manages fabric-enabled APs and forwards client registration and roaming information to the Control Plane Node

B.

coordinates configuration of autonomous nonfabric access points within the fabric

C.

performs the assurance engine role for both wired and wireless clients

D.

is dedicated to onboard clients in fabric-enabled and nonfabric-enabled APs within the fabric

Question 182

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set must be added to permit and log all traffic that comes from 172.20.10.1 in interface GigabitEthernet0/1 without impacting the functionality of the access list?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 183

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured RSPAN to troubleshoot an issue between switch1 and switch2. The switches are connected using interface GigabitEthernet 1/1. An external packet capture device is connected is switch2 interface GigabitEthernet 1/2. Which two commands must be added to complete this configuration? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 184

what is a benefit of using a Type 2 hypervisor instead of a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

better application performance

B.

Improved security because the underlying OS is eliminated

C.

Improved density and scalability

D.

ability to operate on hardware that is running other OSs

Question 185

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

Options:

A.

IKF

B.

TLS

C.

IPsec

D.

ESP

Question 186

By default, which virtual MAC address Goes HSRP group 25 use?

Options:

A.

05:5c:5e:ac:0c:25

B.

04:16:6S:96:1C:19

C.

00:00:0c:07:ac:19

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:25

Question 187

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be applied on R1 to establish a BGP neighborship with R2 and to allow communication from R1 to reach the networks?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 188

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

ideal for data center

B.

complicated deployment

C.

ideal for client/end-user system

D.

referred to as bare-metal

Question 189

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must log in to the router via the console, but the RADIUS servers are not reachable Which credentials allow console access1?

Options:

A.

the username "cisco" and the password "Cisco"

B.

no username and only the password "test123"

C.

no username and only the password "cisco123"

D.

the username "cisco" and the password “cisco123"

Question 190

An engineer is implementing a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to improve the streaming experience for the clients of a video-on-demand server. Which action must the engineer perform to configure extended discovery to support the MPLS LDP session between the headend and tailend routers?

Options:

A.

Configure the interface bandwidth to handle TCP and UDP traffic between the LDP peers

B.

Configure a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel on both ends of the session

C.

Configure an access list on the interface to permit TCP and UDP traffic

D.

Configure a targeted neighbor session.

Question 191

A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging output on the terminal is interrupting the command typing process. Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the logging synchronous global configuration command

B.

Configure the logging delimiter feature

C.

Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty

D.

Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line

E.

increase the number of lines on the screen using the terminal length command

Question 192

An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 193

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that adds a prefix list to a route map and sets the local preference. Not all options are used

Options:

Question 194

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures the BGP adjacency between R1 and R2, however, it fails to establish Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Change the network statement on R1 to 172.16 10.0

B.

Change the remote-as number for 192 168.100.11.

C.

Enable synchronization on R1 and R2

D.

Change the remote-as number on R1 to 6500.

Question 195

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?

Options:

A.

DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+

B.

Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode

C.

Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network

D.

Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode.

Question 196

A network engineer is enabling HTTPS access to the core switch, which requires a certificate to be installed on the switch signed by the corporate certificate authority Which configuration commands are required to issue a certificate signing request from the core switch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 197

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must add the SNMP interface table to the NetFlow protocol flow records. Where should the SNMP table option be added?

Options:

A.

under the interface

B.

under the flow record

C.

under the flow monitor

D.

under the flow exporter

Question 198

Which antenna type should be used for a site-to-site wireless connection?

Options:

A.

Omnidirectional

B.

dipole

C.

patch

D.

Yagi

Question 199

How does the EIGRP metric differ from the OSPF metric?

Options:

A.

The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth only. The OSPF metric is calculated on delay only.

B.

The EIGRP metric is calculated based on delay only. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay.

C.

The EIGRP metric Is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth only.

D.

The EIGRP metric Is calculated based on hop count and bandwidth. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay.

Question 200

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco DNA Center has obtained the username of the client and the multiple devices that the client is using on the network. How is Cisco DNA Center getting these context details?

Options:

A.

The administrator had to assign the username to the IP address manually in the user database tool on Cisco DNA Center.

B.

Those details are provided to Cisco DNA Center by the Identity Services Engine

C.

Cisco DNA Center pulled those details directly from the edge node where the user connected.

D.

User entered those details in the Assurance app available on iOS and Android devices

Question 201

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 202

When are multicast RPs required?

Options:

A.

RPs are required only when using protocol independent multicast dense mode.

B.

By default, the RP is needed penodically to maintain sessions with sources and receivers.

C.

RPs are required for protocol Independent multicast sparse mode and dense mode.

D.

By default, the RP Is needed only start new sessions with sources and receivers.

Question 203

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be added to the configuration to analyze 50 packets out of every 100?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 204

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

Options:

A.

VLAN

B.

VTEP

C.

VXLAN

D.

VRF

Question 205

Refer to the exhibit. Which command is required to verify NETCONF capability reply messages?

Options:

A.

show netconf | section rpc-reply

B.

show netconf rpc-reply

C.

show netconf xml rpc-reply

D.

show netconf schema | section rpc-reply

Question 206

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures OSPF and wants to verify the configuration Which configuration is applied to this device?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 207

What occurs when a high bandwidth multicast stream is sent over an MVPN using Cisco hardware?

Options:

A.

The traffic uses the default MDT to transmit the data only if it isa (S,G) multicast route entry

B.

A data MDT is created to if it is a (*, G) multicast route entries

C.

A data and default MDT are created to flood the multicast stream out of all PIM-SM neighbors.

D.

A data MDT is created to allow for the best transmission through the core for (S, G) multicast route entries.

Question 208

Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 209

An engineer creates the configuration below. Drag and drop the authentication methods from the left into the order of priority on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 210

Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks

B.

Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic

C.

Provides reachability border nodes in the fabric underlay

D.

Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP.

Question 211

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 212

A client device roams between wireless LAN controllers that are mobility peers, Both controllers have dynamic interface on the same client VLAN which type of roam is described?

Options:

A.

intra-VLAN

B.

inter-controller

C.

intra-controller

D.

inter-subnet

Question 213

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer attempts to establish BGP peering between router CORP and two ISP routers. What is the root cause for the failure between CORP and ISP#2?

Options:

A.

Router ISP#2 is configured to use SHA-1 authentication.

B.

There is a password mismatch between router CORP and router ISP#2.

C.

Router CORP is configured with an extended access control list.

D.

MD5 authorization is configured incorrectly on router ISP#2.

Question 214

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure static NAT on R1 lo allow users HTTP access to the web server on TCP port 80. The web server must be reachable through ISP 1 and ISP 2. Which command set should be applied to R1 to fulfill these requirements?

Options:

A.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 extendable

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 extendable

B.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80

C.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 209.165.201.1 8080

D.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 no-alias

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 no-alias

Question 215

Refer to the exhibit.

On which interfaces should VRRP commands be applied to provide first hop redundancy to PC-01 and PC-02?

Options:

A.

G0/0 and G0/1 on Core

B.

G0/0 on Edge-01 and G0/0 on Edge-02

C.

G0/1on Edge-01 and G0/1 on Edge-02

D.

G0/0 and G0/1 on ASW-01

Question 216

What is the function of cisco DNA center in a cisco SD-access deployment?

Options:

A.

It is responsible for routing decisions inside the fabric

B.

It is responsible for the design, management, deployment, provisioning and assurance of the fabric network devices.

C.

It possesses information about all endpoints, nodes and external networks related to the fabric

D.

It provides integration and automation for all nonfabric nodes and their fabric counterparts.

Question 217

A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Fast Transition

B.

Central Web Authentication

C.

Cisco Centralized Key Management

D.

Identity PSK

Question 218

How is a data modeling language used?

Options:

A.

To enable data lo be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated

B.

To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed

C.

To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure

D.

To provide human readability to scripting languages

Question 219

When firewall capabilities are considered, which feature is found only in Cisco next-generation firewalls?

Options:

A.

malware protection

B.

stateful inspection

C.

traffic filtering

D.

active/standby high availability

Question 220

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer attempts to bundle interface Gi0/0 into the port channel, but it does not function as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on interface Gi0/0.

B.

Configure no shutdown on interface Gi0/0

C.

Enable fast LACP PDUs on interface Gi0/0.

D.

Set LACP max-bundle to 2 on interface Port-channeM

Question 221

Refer to the Exhibit.

An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. When checking on the standby status of each router the engineer notices that the routers are not functioning as expected. Which action will resolve the configuration error?

Options:

A.

configure matching hold and delay timers

B.

configure matching key-strings

C.

configure matching priority values

D.

configure unique virtual IP addresses

Question 222

What is required for intercontroller Layer 3 roaming?

Options:

A.

Mobility groups are established between wireless controllers.

B.

The management VLAN is present as a dynamic VLAN on the second WLC.

C.

WLCs use separate DHCP servers.

D.

WLCs have the same IP addresses configured on their interfaces.

Question 223

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, which protocol is used by an extended node to connect to a single edge node?

Options:

A.

VXLAN

B.

IS-IS

C.

802 1Q

D.

CTS

Question 224

AN engineer is implementing a route map to support redistribution within BGP. The route map must configured to permit all unmatched routes. Which action must the engineer perform to complete this task?

Options:

A.

Include a permit statement as the first entry

B.

Include at least one explicit deny statement

C.

Remove the implicit deny entry

D.

Include a permit statement as the last entry

Question 225

How cloud deployments differ from on-prem deployments?

Options:

A.

Cloud deployments require longer implementation times than on-premises deployments

B.

Cloud deployments are more customizable than on-premises deployments.

C.

Cloud deployments require less frequent upgrades than on-premises deployments.

D.

Cloud deployments have lower upfront costs than on-premises deployments.

Question 226

A vulnerability assessment highlighted that remote access to the switches is permitted using unsecure and unencrypted protocols Which configuration must be applied to allow only secure and reliable remote access for device administration?

Options:

A.

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input none

B.

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input telnet ssh

C.

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input ssh

D.

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input all

Question 227

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a router on a stick to route packets between Clients, Servers, and Printers; however, initial tests show that this configuration is not working. Which command set resolves this issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 228

Refer to the exhibit. Router BRDR-1 is configured to receive the 0.0.0.0/0 and 172.17.1.0/24 network via BGP and advertise them into OSPF are 0. An engineer has noticed that the OSPF domain is receiving only the 172.17.1.0/24 route and default route 0.0.0.0/0 is still missing. Which configurating must engineer apply to resolve the problem?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 229

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent?

Options:

A.

Yagi

B.

multidirectional

C.

directional patch

D.

omnidirectional

Question 230

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

Options:

A.

security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch

B.

security group tag number assigned to each port on a network

C.

security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

D.

security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

Question 231

Which network devices secure API platform?

Options:

A.

next-generation intrusion detection systems

B.

Layer 3 transit network devices

C.

content switches

D.

web application firewalls

Question 232

Which technology uses network traffic telemetry, contextual information, and file reputation to provide insight into cyber threats?

Options:

A.

threat defense

B.

security services

C.

security intelligence

D.

segmentation

Question 233

Refer to the exhibit.

After the code is run on a Cisco IOS-XE router, the response code is 204.

What is the result of the script?

Options:

A.

The configuration fails because another interface is already configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24.

B.

The configuration fails because interface GigabitEthernet2 is missing on the target device.

C.

The configuration is successfully sent to the device in cleartext.

D.

Interface GigabitEthernet2 is configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24

Question 234

Drag and drop the tools from the left onto the agent types on the right.

Options:

Question 235

What is one primary REST security design principle?

Options:

A.

fail-safe defaults

B.

password hash

C.

adding a timestamp in requests

D.

OAuth

Question 236

An engineer configures GigabitEthernet 0/1 for VRRP group 115. The router must assume the primary role when it has the highest priority in the group. Which command set is required to complete this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 237

Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router handle traffic after the CoPP policy is configured on the router?

Options:

A.

Traffic coming to R1 that does not match access list SNMP is dropped.

B.

Traffic coming to R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

C.

Traffic passing through R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

D.

Traffic generated by R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

Question 238

How does Cisco Trustsec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

Options:

A.

uses flexible NetFlow

B.

assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

C.

classifies traffic based an the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

D.

classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

Question 239

Refer to the exhibit.

R2 is the neighboring router of R1. R2 receives an advertisement for network 192 168.10.50/32. Which configuration should be applied for the subnet to be advertised with the original /24 netmask?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 240

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Python code snippet prints the descriptions of disabled interfaces only?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 241

Refer to the exhibit.

VPN-A sends point-to-point traffic to VPN-B and receives traffic only from VPN-C VPN-B sends point-to-point traffic to VPN-C and receives traffic only from VPN-A Which configuration is applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 242

When is the Design workflow used In Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

in a greenfield deployment, with no existing infrastructure

B.

in a greenfield or brownfield deployment, to wipe out existing data

C.

in a brownfield deployment, to modify configuration of existing devices in the network

D.

in a brownfield deployment, to provision and onboard new network devices

Question 243

Which technology is used as the basis for the cisco sd-access data plane?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

LISP

C.

VXLAN

D.

802.1Q

Question 244

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102 0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails?

Options:

A.

192.168.101.18

B.

192.168.101.6

C.

192.168.101.10

D.

192.168.101.14

Question 245

Refer to the exhibit.

A company requires that all wireless users authenticate using dynamic key generation. Which configuration must be applied?

Options:

A.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open wep wep_methods

B.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic wep wep_methods

C.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic open wep_dynamic

D.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open eap eap_methods

Question 246

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 247

Refer the exhibit.

Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?

Options:

A.

This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

B.

This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

C.

Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID

D.

Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID

Question 248

What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?

Options:

A.

The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of requested multicast group

B.

The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers.

C.

The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets.

D.

The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.

Question 249

An engineer is working with the Cisco DNA Center API Drag and drop the methods from the left onto the actions that they are used for on the right.

Options:

Question 250

Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring HSRP an engineer enters the show standby command. Which two facts are derived from the output? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The router with IP 10.10 1.3 is active because it has a higher IP address

B.

If Fa0/0 is shut down, the HSRP priority on R2 becomes 80

C.

R2 Fa1/0 regains the primary role when the link comes back up

D.

R2 becomes the active router after the hold time expires.

E.

R2 is using the default HSRP hello and hold timers.

Question 251

Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Utilize DHCP option 17.

B.

Configure WLC IP address on LAN switch.

C.

Utilize DHCP option 43.

D.

Configure an ip helper-address on the router interface

E.

Enable port security on the switch port

Question 252

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 16 use?

Options:

A.

c0:41:43:64:13:10

B.

00:00:0c 07:ac:10

C.

00:05:5c:07:0c:16

D.

05:00:0c:07:ac:16

Demo: 252 questions
Total 843 questions