Month End Sale Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70percent

Cisco 200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam Practice Test

Demo: 248 questions
Total 1024 questions

Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers

Question 1

Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effects on the right.

Options:

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.

B.

This is a root bridge.

C.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

D.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.

E.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.

Question 3

: 248

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?

Options:

A.

authorization

B.

authentication

C.

anti-replay

D.

accounting

Question 4

What is a function of MAC address learning?

Options:

A.

It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

It increases the potential for MAC address flooding.

C.

It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks

D.

lt increases security on the management VLAN

Question 5

What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?

Options:

A.

decreases overall network complexity

B.

limits data queries to the control plane

C.

reduces cost

D.

offloads the creation of virtual machines to the data plane

Question 6

Which (unction generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?

Options:

A.

encryption and decryption for VPN link processing

B.

building route tables and updating the forwarding table

C.

changing the source or destination address during NAT operations

D.

encapsulation and decapsulation of packets in a data-link frame

Question 7

What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a controller-based network?

Options:

A.

providing a central view of the deployed network

B.

forwarding packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

setting packet-handling policies

Question 8

A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

Options:

A.

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

ip ospf dead-interval 40

C.

ip ospf network point-to-point

D.

ip ospf priority 0

Question 9

What is the role of the root port in a switched network?

Options:

A.

It replaces the designated port when the designated port fails

B.

It is the best path to the root from a nonroot switch.

C.

It replaces the designated port when the root port fails.

D.

It is administratively disabled until a failover occurs.

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 11

An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

longest prefix match

B.

highest administrative distance

C.

highest metric

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest cost to reach the next hop

Question 13

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

Options:

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

Question 14

What does the term "spirt MAC” refer to in a wireless architecture?

Options:

A.

divides data link layer functions between the AP and WLC

B.

combines the management and control functions from the data-forwarding functions

C.

uses different MAC addresses for 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands on the same AP

D.

leverages two APs to handle control and data traffic

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary address must be advertised in OSPF?

Options:

A.

10.1.40.0/25

B.

10.1.40.0/24

C.

10.1.40.0/23

D.

10.1.41.0/25

Question 16

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

Question 17

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit.

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Broadcast SSID option

B.

Enable the Status option.

C.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802 11g Only.

D.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.

E.

Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest

Question 19

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 20

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

Question 21

What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

Options:

A.

forwarding mode and provides the lowest-cost path to the root bridge for each VLAN

B.

learning mode and provides the shortest path toward the root bridge handling traffic away from the LAN

C.

blocking mode and provides an alternate path toward the designated bridge

D.

listening mode and provides an alternate path toward the root bridge

Question 22

Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:

• using an industry-standard trunking protocol

• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs

How must the interconnecting ports be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 23

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the component details on the right.

Options:

Question 24

Drag and drop the common functions from the left onto the cofresponding network topology architecture layer on the right. Not all common functions are used.

Options:

Question 25

What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?

Options:

A.

It serves as a sequence tag on SNMP traffic messages.

B.

It serves as a password lo protect access to MIB objects.

C.

It passes the Active Directory username and password that are required for device access

D.

It translates alphanumeric MIB output values to numeric values.

Question 26

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

B.

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

C.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

D.

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

Question 27

What is the primary purpose of private address space?

Options:

A.

conserve globally unique address space

B.

simplify the addressing in the network

C.

limit the number of nodes reachable via the Internet

D.

reduce network complexity

Question 28

Which mechanism allows WPA3 to provide a higher degree of security than its predecessors?

Options:

A.

special-character support in preshared Keys

B.

SAE password-based key exchange

C.

automatic device pairing

D.

certificate-based authentication

Question 29

Refer to Exhibit.

Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:

DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30

DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29

DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28

HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used

Options:

Question 30

Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

Options:

Question 31

Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.

Options:

Question 32

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

Options:

A.

Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

D.

Point-to-Point Protocol

Question 33

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

Options:

A.

personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B.

complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

Question 34

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken so that neighbofing devices rapidly discover switch Cat9300?

Options:

A.

Configure the cdp timer 10 command on switch Cat9300.

B.

Enable portfast on the ports that connect to neighboring devices.

C.

Configure the cdp holdtime 10 command on switch Cat9300.

D.

Configure the cdp timer 10 command on the neighbors of switch Cat9300.

Question 35

What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?

Options:

A.

ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

B.

2004:31c:73d9:683e:255::

C.

fffe:034:0dd:45d6:789e::

D.

fe80:4433:034:0dd::2

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit.

Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190. Which next-hop is used by the router to forward the request?

Options:

A.

192.168.7.4

B.

192.168.7.7

C.

192.168.7.35

D.

192.168.7.40

Question 37

Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.

Options:

A.

FlexConnect

B.

SE-Connect

C.

bridge

D.

local

Question 38

Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 39

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

::ffif 1014 1011/96

B.

2001 7011046:1111:1/64

C.

;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d

D.

2002 5121204b 1111:1/64

E.

FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104

Question 40

A wireless access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• "zero-touch" deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

mesh

D.

cloud-based

Question 41

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 42

What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

Increase the available throughput on the link.

B.

Increase security by encrypting management frames

C.

Allow for stateful failover between WLCs

D.

Enable the connected switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations

Question 43

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 44

What describes a northbound REST API for SON?

Options:

A.

application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests

B.

network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods

C.

network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes

D.

application-facing interface far GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

Question 45

A HCP pool has been created with the name CONTROL. The pool uses the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. The server is located at 172.16 32.15. What is the step in the process for clients on the 192.168.52.0/24 subnet to reach the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

ip forward-protocol udp 137

B.

ip default-network 192.168.52.253

C.

ip helper-address 172.16.32.15

D.

ip default-gateway 192.168.52.253

Question 46

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

Options:

A.

255.255.224.0

B.

255.255.255.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.252

Question 47

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Options:

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

Question 48

Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to protect it from external access and allow only internal users access while restricting internet access?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

public

C.

private

D.

multicast

Question 49

How does MAC learning function on a switch?

Options:

A.

broadcasts frames to all ports without queueing

B.

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the address table

C.

sends a retransmission request when a new frame is received

D.

sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group

Question 50

What does traffic shaping do?

Options:

A.

It modifies the QoS attributes of a packet

B.

It queues excess traffic

C.

It organizes traffic into classes.

D.

It sets QoS attributes within a packet.

Question 51

Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?

Options:

A.

next-generation firewall to keep stateful packet inspection

B.

multifactor authentication using two separate authentication sources

C.

ACL to restrict incoming Telnet sessions "admin" accounts

D.

IPS with a block list of known attack vectors

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

32

Question 53

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?

Options:

A.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 265 255.255.252

B.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.248

C.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.0

D.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128

Question 54

What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

In-band management via an asynchronous transport

B.

out-of-band management via an IP transport

C.

in-band management via an IP transport

D.

out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport

Question 55

Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Question 56

A DHCP pool has been created with the name NOCC. The pool is using 192.168.20.0/24 and must use the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. What is the next step in the process?

Options:

A.

default-router192.168.20.253

B.

network 192.168.20.254 255.255.255.0 secondary

C.

ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.20.253

D.

next-server 192.168.20.254

Question 57

In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

Options:

A.

when the subnet must be available only within an organization

B.

when the subnet does not need to be routable

C.

when the addresses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addresses

D.

when the subnet must be routable over the internet

Question 58

A network architect planning a new Wi-Fi network must decide between autonomous, cloud-based, and split MAC architectures. Which two facts should the architect consider? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Lightweight access points are solely used by split MAC architectures.

B.

Cloud-based architectures uniquely use the CAPWAP protocol to communicate between access points and clients.

C.

Each of the three architectures must use WLCs to manage their access points.

D.

All three architectures use access points to manage the wireless devices connected to the wired infrastructure.

E.

Autonomous architectures exclusively use tunneling protocols to manage access points remotely.

Question 59

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?

Options:

A.

when 203 0 113.1 is no longer reachable as a next hop B. when the default route learned over external BGP becomes invalid

B.

when a route to 203.0 113 1 is learned via BGP

C.

when the default route over external BGP changes its next hop

Question 61

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

Question 62

How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?

Options:

A.

ratio of signal-to-noise rating supplied by the wireless device

B.

signals from other Wi-Fi networks that interfere with the local signal

C.

measured difference between the desired Wi-Fi signal and an interfering Wi-Fi signal

D.

any interference that is not Wi-Fi traffic that degrades the desired signal

Question 63

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

Question 64

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The packets fail to match any permit statement

B.

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C.

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D.

The ACL is empty

E.

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

Question 65

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

Options:

A.

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B.

Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

C.

Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

D.

Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

Question 66

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

Options:

A.

The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B.

The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

D.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Question 67

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

Options:

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

Question 68

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

Question 69

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

Options:

A.

It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

C.

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

D.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Question 70

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

Options:

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

Question 71

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

12

D.

18

Question 72

Refer to the exhibit.

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

Options:

A.

Branch-1

B.

Branch-2

C.

Branch-3

D.

Branch-4

Question 73

What is the purpose of an SSID?

Options:

A.

It provides network security

B.

It differentiates traffic entering access posits

C.

It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

D.

It identifies a WLAN

Question 74

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

Options:

A.

management-plane

B.

control-plane

C.

data-plane

D.

services-plane

Question 75

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Options:

Question 76

Where does wireless authentication happen?

Options:

A.

SSID

B.

radio

C.

band

D.

Layer 2

Question 77

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

Question 78

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

Options:

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

Question 79

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

ip helper-address

B.

ip address dhcp

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp relay

Question 80

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Question 81

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

C.

ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

Question 82

Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

Options:

A.

The interface is not participating in OSPF

B.

A point-to-point network type is configured

C.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

D.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

Question 83

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

Options:

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

Question 84

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

Question 85

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

Options:

A.

ntp authenticate

B.

ntp server

C.

ntp peer

D.

ntp master

Question 86

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

Options:

Question 87

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Question 88

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

Question 89

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Question 90

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Options:

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Question 91

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.

D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Question 92

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

Question 93

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

Question 94

What Is a syslog facility?

Options:

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

Question 95

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

Question 96

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

Options:

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

Question 97

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Options:

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Question 98

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

Question 99

Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

Options:

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

Question 100

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Options:

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?

Options:

A.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity

B.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

C.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connectivity

D.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1

Question 102

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

Options:

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Question 103

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

Options:

A.

port-to-multipoint

B.

broadcast

C.

point-to-point

D.

nonbroadcast

Question 104

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

Question 105

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Question 106

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

B.

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

C.

Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

D.

Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

E.

Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

Question 107

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Options:

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Question 108

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

Options:

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

Question 109

Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

Options:

A.

10.10.1.10

B.

10.10.10.20

C.

172.16.15.10

D.

192.168.0.1

Question 110

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

Options:

A.

FIFO

B.

WFQ

C.

PQ

D.

WRED

Question 111

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Options:

Question 112

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

Options:

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

Question 113

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

Options:

A.

Configure the version of SSH

B.

Configure VTY access.

C.

Create a user with a password.

D.

Assign a DNS domain name

Question 114

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

enable the PortFast feature on ports

B.

implement port-based authentication

C.

configure static ARP entries

D.

configure ports to a fixed speed

E.

shut down unused ports

Question 115

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

Question 116

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 117

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

Question 118

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

Question 119

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

Question 120

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

Options:

A.

207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

C.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

D.

207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

Question 121

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Options:

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

Question 122

Refer to me exhibit.

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

Options:

A.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

B.

It discards the packets.

C.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

D.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

Question 123

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

Question 124

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

Question 125

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

Options:

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

Question 126

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Options:

A.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

Question 127

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

load balancer

C.

firewall

D.

LAN controller

Question 128

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

Options:

A.

Reassociation Request

B.

Probe Request

C.

Authentication Request

D.

Association Request

Question 129

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

Question 130

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

Options:

A.

VTP

B.

DTP

C.

egress traffic

D.

ingress traffic

Question 131

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

Options:

Question 132

Refer to the exhibit.

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

Router

C.

Load balancer

D.

firewall

Question 133

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

Options:

A.

broadband cable access

B.

frame-relay packet switching

C.

dedicated point-to-point leased line

D.

Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

Question 134

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

B.

a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names

C.

usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain

D.

a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.

It sends packets out of interface FaO/2.

D.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

Question 136

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

Options:

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

Question 137

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

Options:

A.

wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

B.

onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

C.

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

D.

physical workstations are configured to share resources

Question 138

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Options:

Question 139

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Question 140

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

Question 141

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

latency

B.

port security violation

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

nothing plugged into the port

Question 142

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

Question 143

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.

B.

It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.

C.

It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.

D.

It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality

E.

It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

Question 144

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

STP

C.

SNMP

D.

DNS

Question 145

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 146

Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Question 147

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Question 148

Refer to the exhibit.

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 149

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?

Options:

A.

It forwards it out G0/3 only

B.

It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

C.

It drops the frame.

D.

It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.

Question 150

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Question 151

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Options:

Question 152

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

Options:

A.

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

B.

It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

C.

It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network.

D.

It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

Question 153

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

Options:

A.

wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B.

a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

C.

a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

D.

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Question 154

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

platform-as-a-service

C.

business process as service to support different types of service

D.

software-as-a-service

Question 155

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

Question 156

Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

Options:

A.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

C.

it load-balances traffic between all three routes

D.

It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

Question 157

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

Question 158

What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

serves as the network aggregation point

B.

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

C.

designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

D.

is the backbone for the network topology

E.

physical connection point for a LAN printer

Question 159

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

Options:

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

Question 160

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

Options:

Question 161

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 162

How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

B.

The EthernetChannel must be configured in "mode active".

C.

When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

D.

To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.

Question 163

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)

Options:

A.

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

B.

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

C.

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

D.

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

E.

It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

Question 164

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

Question 165

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?

Options:

A.

on the router closest to the server

B.

on the router closest to the client

C.

on every router along the path

D.

on the switch trunk interface

Question 166

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address dhcp

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C.

ipv6 address autoconfig

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Question 167

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B.

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

C.

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

D.

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

Question 168

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

Options:

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Question 169

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

Options:

A.

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function

E.

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

Question 170

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

Options:

A.

reducing bandwidth usage

B.

by reducing packet loss

C.

by differentiating voice and video traffic

D.

by increasing jitter

Question 171

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST API

C.

NETCONF

D.

Southbound API

Question 172

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

B.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

C.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

D.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

Question 173

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

Options:

A.

1729.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

Question 174

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

Question 175

Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

password-encrypt

B.

enable password-encryption

C.

enable secret

D.

service password-encryption

Question 176

In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Management

C.

Data

D.

application

Question 177

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

Options:

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

Question 178

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

Options:

A.

It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.

B.

It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.

C.

It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.

D.

It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

Question 179

Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

Question 180

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

it supports protocol discovery

Question 181

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

Options:

A.

read

B.

create

C.

replace

D.

update

Question 182

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

Options:

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

Question 183

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

Options:

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

Question 184

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Options:

A.

floating static route

B.

host route

C.

default route

D.

network route

Question 185

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Options:

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Question 186

Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?

Options:

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

Question 187

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Options:

Question 188

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Options:

Question 189

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Options:

Question 190

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Question 191

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

Question 192

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

Question 193

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Question 194

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

Question 195

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Question 196

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Options:

Question 197

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Options:

Question 198

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Options:

Question 199

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

Question 200

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

Question 201

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 202

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Options:

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

Question 203

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Question 204

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 205

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Question 206

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Question 207

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

Question 208

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Question 209

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Question 210

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Question 211

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Options:

Question 212

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Question 213

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Question 214

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Question 215

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Question 216

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Question 217

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Question 218

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Question 219

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 220

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Question 221

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 222

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

Options:

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Question 223

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Question 224

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Options:

Question 225

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Question 226

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

Question 227

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 228

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Question 229

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Swrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode active

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Question 230

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Options:

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

Question 231

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Question 232

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Question 233

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Question 234

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

Question 235

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

Question 236

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

Question 237

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 238

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

Question 239

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 240

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Question 241

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Question 242

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Options:

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Question 243

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Question 244

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 245

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Question 246

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Question 247

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface vlan 1234

ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148

ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722

ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002

ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155

ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Question 248

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

i

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

I

access-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Demo: 248 questions
Total 1024 questions