Labour Day Special Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70percent

Checkpoint 156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 Exam Practice Test

Demo: 185 questions
Total 617 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 Questions and Answers

Question 1

You had setup the VPN Community VPN-Stores'with 3 gateways. There are some issues with one remote gateway(1.1.1.1) and an your local gateway. What will be the best log filter to see only the IKE Phase 2 agreed networks for both gateways

Options:

A.

action:"Key Install" AND 1.1.1.1 AND Main Mode

B.

action:"Key Install- AND 1.1.1.1 ANDQuick Mode

C.

Blade:"VPN" AND VPN-Stores AND Main Mode

D.

Blade:"VPN" AND VPN-Stores AND Quick Mode

Question 2

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

B.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

D.

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

Question 3

What is the minimum number of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

Options:

A.

1

B.

6

C.

2

D.

4

Question 4

What is the purpose of the command "ps aux | grep twd"?

Options:

A.

You can check the Process ID and the processing time of the twd process.

B.

You can convert the log file into Post Script format.

C.

You can list all Process IDs for all running services.

D.

You can check whether the IPS default setting is set to Detect or Prevent mode

Question 5

What is a possible command to delete all of the SSH connections of a gateway?

Options:

A.

fw sam -I dport 22

B.

fw ctl conntab -x -dpott=22

C.

fw tab -t connections -x -e 00000016

D.

fwaccel dos config set dport ssh

Question 6

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

Options:

A.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

B.

PKI Certificates and DynamicID OTP

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

Question 7

View the rule below. What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Options:

A.

The current administrator has read-only permissions to Threat Prevention Policy.

B.

Another user has locked the rule for editing.

C.

Configuration lock is present. Click the lock symbol to gain read-write access.

D.

The current administrator is logged in as read-only because someone else is editing the policy.

Question 8

What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Options:

A.

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

B.

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

C.

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

D.

Use 2 clusters +1st sync + 2nd sync

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packet acceleration?

Options:

A.

Source address

B.

Protocol

C.

Destination port

D.

VLAN Tag

Question 10

UserCheck objects in the Application Control and URL Filtering rules allow the gateway to communicate with the users. Which action is not supported in UserCheck objects?

Options:

A.

Ask

B.

Drop

C.

Inform

D.

Reject

Question 11

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Question 12

Alice knows about the Check Point Management HA installation from Bob and needs to know which Check Point Security Management Server is currently capable of issuing and managing certificate. Alice uses the Check Point command "cpconfig'' to run the Check Point Security Management Server configuration tool on both Check Point Management HA instances "Primary & Secondary" Which configuration option does she need to look for:

Options:

A.

Certificate's Fingerprint

B.

Random Pool

C.

CA Authority

D.

Certificate Authority

Question 13

Sieve is a Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Bank with a large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances Steve's manager. Diana asks him to provide firewall connection table details from one of the firewalls for which he is responsible. Which of these commands may impact performance briefly and should not be used during heavy traffic times of day?

Options:

A.

fw tab -t connections -s

B.

fw tab -t connections

C.

fw tab -t connections -c

D.

fw tab -t connections -f

Question 14

Firewall polices must be configured to accept VRRP packets on the GAiA platform if it Firewall software. The Multicast destination assigned by the internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) for VRRP is:

Options:

A.

224.0.0.18

B.

224 00 5

C.

224.0.0.102

D.

224.0.0.22

Question 15

Kurt is planning to upgrade his Security Management Server to R81.X. What is the lowest supported version of the Security Management he can upgrade from?

Options:

A.

R76 Splat

B.

R77.X Gaia

C.

R75 Splat

D.

R75 Gaia

Question 16

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

B.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

C.

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

D.

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

Question 17

Which command will reset the kernel debug options to default settings?

Options:

A.

fw ctl dbg -a 0

B.

fw ctl dbg resetall

C.

fw ctl debug 0

D.

fw ctl debug set 0

Question 18

What does the Log "Views" tab show when SmartEvent is Correlating events?

Options:

A.

A list of common reports

B.

Reports for customization

C.

Top events with charts and graphs

D.

Details of a selected logs

Question 19

Which one is not a valid Package Option In the Web GUI for CPUSE?

Options:

A.

Clean Install

B.

Export Package

C.

Upgrade

D.

Database Conversion to R81.20 only

Question 20

What are the services used for Cluster Synchronization?

Options:

A.

256H-CP tor Full Sync and 8116/UDP for Delta Sync

B.

8116/UDP for Full Sync and Delta Sync

C.

TCP/256 for Full Sync and Delta Sync

D.

No service needed when using Broadcast Mode

Question 21

Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?

Options:

A.

Auditor

B.

Read Only All

C.

Super User

D.

Full Access

Question 22

In terms of Order Rule Enforcement, when a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

If the Action of the matching rule is Accept the gateway will drop the packet

B.

If the Action of the matching rule is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down

C.

If the Action of the matching rule is Drop the gateway stops matching against later rules in the Policy Rule Base and drops the packet

D.

If the rule does not match in the Network policy it will continue to other enabled polices

Question 23

Alice & Bob are concurrently logged In via SSH on the same Check Point Security Gateway as user "admin* however Bob was first logged in and acquired the lock Alice Is not aware that Bob is also togged in to the same Security Management Server as she is but she needs to perform very urgent configuration changes - which of the following GAlAclish command is true for overriding Bobs configuration database lock:

Options:

A.

lock database override

B.

unlock override database

C.

unlock database override

D.

database unlock override

Question 24

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or ______ .

Options:

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Question 25

What are the two ClusterXL Deployment options?

Options:

A.

Distributed and Full High Availability

B.

Broadcast and Multicast Mode

C.

Distributed and Standalone

D.

Unicast and Multicast Mode

Question 26

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits if the Track option is set to “None”?

Options:

A.

No, it will work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules Track option set as Log or alert.

B.

Yes it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway.

C.

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged.

D.

Yes it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways.

Question 27

Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

Options:

A.

Source Address

B.

Destination Address

C.

TCP Acknowledgment Number

D.

Source Port

Question 28

What are possible Automatic Reactions in SmartEvent?

Options:

A.

Mail. SNMP Trap, Block Source. Block Event Activity, External Script

B.

Web Mail. Block Destination, SNMP Trap. SmartTask

C.

Web Mail, Block Service. SNMP Trap. SmartTask, Geo Protection

D.

Web Mail, Forward to SandBlast Appliance, SNMP Trap, External Script

Question 29

How many versions, besides the destination version, are supported in a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

2

D.

4

Question 30

The installation of a package via SmartConsole CANNOT be applied on

Options:

A.

A single Security Gateway

B.

A full Security Cluster (All Cluster Members included)

C.

Multiple Security Gateways and/or Clusters

D.

R81.20 Security Management Server

Question 31

What is the recommended way to have a redundant Sync connection between the cluster nodes?

Options:

A.

In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define two Sync interfaces per node. Connect both Sync interfaces

without using a switch.

B.

Use a group of bonded interfaces. In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define a Virtual IP for the Sync

interface.

C.

In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define two Sync interfaces per node. Use two different Switches to

connect both Sync interfaces.

D.

Use a group of bonded interfaces connected to different switches. Define a dedicated sync interface, only one interface per node using the SmartConsole / Gateways &

Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management.

Question 32

After verifying that API Server is not running, how can you start the API Server?

Options:

A.

Run command "set api start" in CLISH mode

B.

Run command "mgmt__cli set api start" in Expert mode

C.

Run command "mgmt api start" in CLISH mode

D.

Run command "api start" in Expert mode

Question 33

Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in “Log” tracking option?

Options:

A.

Destination port

B.

Data type

C.

File attributes

D.

Application

Question 34

You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the tight protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor.

Which Check Point product protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?

Options:

A.

IPS AND Application Control

B.

IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot

C.

IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security

D.

SandBlast

Question 35

Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links.

Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SandBlast Threat Emulation

B.

SandBlast Agent

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

SandBlast Threat Extraction

Question 36

Choose the correct syntax to add a new host named “emailserver1” with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA Management CLI?

Options:

A.

mgmt_cli add host name “myHost12 ip” address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt_cli add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

mgmt_cli add host “emailserver1” address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt_cli add host name “emailserver1” ip-address 10.50.23.90

Question 37

Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ________ .

Options:

A.

User groups

B.

Users using UserCheck

C.

Individual users

D.

All users in the database

Question 38

What is NOT a Cluster Mode?

Options:

A.

Load Sharing Unicast

B.

Load Sharing Multicast

C.

Active-Active

D.

High Availability Multicast

Question 39

What ports are used for SmartConsole to connect to the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

CPMI (18190)

B.

ICA_Pull (18210), CPMI (18190) https (443)

C.

CPM (19009), CPMI (18190) https (443)

D.

CPM (19009), CPMI (18190) CPD (18191)

Question 40

How would you enable VMAC Mode in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

Cluster Object -> Edit -> ClusterXL and VRRP -> Use Virtual MAC

B.

fw ctl set int vmac_mode 1

C.

cphaconf vmac_mode set 1

D.

Cluster Object -> Edit -> Cluster Members -> Edit -> Use Virtual MAC

Question 41

SmartEvent uses it's event policy to identify events. How can this be customized?

Options:

A.

By modifying the firewall rulebase

B.

By creating event candidates

C.

By matching logs against exclusions

D.

By matching logs against event rules

Question 42

You are the administrator for ABC Corp. You have logged into your R81 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

What does this mean?

Options:

A.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.

B.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.

C.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.

D.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.

Question 43

Which of the following Check Point commands is true to enable Multi-Version Cluster (MVC)?

Options:

A.

Check Point Security Management HA (Secondary): set cluster member mvc on

B.

Check Point Security Gateway Only: set cluster member mvc on

C.

Check Point Security Management HA (Primary): set cluster member mvc on

D.

Check Point Security Gateway Cluster Member: set cluster member mvc on

Question 44

Which two Cluster Solutions are available under R81.20?

Options:

A.

ClusterXL and NSRP

B.

VRRPandHSRP

C.

VRRP and IP Clustering

D.

ClusterXL and VRitP

Question 45

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

Options:

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

Question 46

To find records in the logs that shows log records from the Application & URL Filtering Software Blade where traffic was dropped, what would be the query syntax?

Options:

A.

blada: application control AND action:drop

B.

blade."application control AND action;drop

C.

(blade: application control AND action;drop)

D.

blade;"application control AND action:drop

Question 47

Alice works for a big security outsourcing provider company and as she receives a lot of change requests per day she wants to use for scripting daily (asks the API services from Check Point fof the Management API. Firstly she needs to be aware if the API services are running for the management. Which of the following Check Point Command is true:

Options:

A.

api mgmt status

B.

api status

C.

status api

D.

status mgmt apt

Question 48

For Management High Availability, which of the following is NOT a valid synchronization status?

Options:

A.

Collision

B.

Down

C.

Lagging

D.

Never been synchronized

Question 49

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

Options:

A.

For short connections like http service – delay sync for 2 seconds

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

Question 50

What is the purpose of extended master key extension/session hash?

Options:

A.

UDP VOIP protocol extension

B.

In case of TLS1.x it is a prevention of a Man-in-the-Middle attack/disclosure of the client-server communication

C.

Special TCP handshaking extension

D.

Supplement DLP data watermark

Question 51

Which of the following links will take you to the SmartView web application?

Options:

A.

https:// /smartviewweb/

B.

https:// /smartview/

C.

https:// smartviewweb

D.

https:// /smartview

Question 52

Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Server showing the port numbers, corresponding protocol name, and status?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/database/fwauthd.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauth.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/state/fwauthd.conf

Question 53

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

Question 54

With Mobile Access enabled, administrators select the web-based and native applications that can be accessed by remote users and define the actions that users can perform the applications. Mobile Access encrypts all traffic using:

Options:

A.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

B.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

C.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, no additional software is required.

D.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, no additional software is required.

Question 55

: 131

Which command is used to display status information for various components?

Options:

A.

show all systems

B.

show system messages

C.

sysmess all

D.

show sysenv all

Question 56

Which statements below are CORRECT regarding Threat Prevention profiles in Smart Dashboard?

Options:

A.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule Only.

B.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule only.

C.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

D.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

Question 57

You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?

Options:

A.

cpinfo –h all

B.

cpinfo –o hotfix

C.

cpinfo –l hotfix

D.

cpinfo –y all

Question 58

Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

Options:

A.

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Question 59

Which directory below contains log files?

Options:

A.

/opt/CPSmartlog-R81/log

B.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/log

C.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/fw1/log

D.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/log

Question 60

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

Question 61

Customer’s R81 management server needs to be upgraded to R81.20. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R81 configuration, clean install R81.20 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE offline upgrade

C.

CPUSE online upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

Question 62

Which GUI client is supported in R81?

Options:

A.

SmartProvisioning

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartLog

Question 63

SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:

Options:

A.

using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only

B.

detect only

C.

inline/prevent or detect

D.

as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the traffic flow only

Question 64

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resilient VPN client.

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client.

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same.

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser.

Question 65

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

Question 66

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

Question 67

What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

Question 68

To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?

Options:

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny Template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

Question 69

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

Options:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

Question 70

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

Question 71

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

Options:

A.

When a box up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

D.

When a box fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

Question 72

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Wire Mode configuration, chain modules marked with ____________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

Question 73

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

Options:

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

Question 74

The Correlation Unit performs all but the following actions:

Options:

A.

Marks logs that individually are not events, but may be part of a larger pattern to be identified later.

B.

Generates an event based on the Event policy.

C.

Assigns a severity level to the event.

D.

Takes a new log entry that is part of a group of items that together make up an event, and adds it to an ongoing event.

Question 75

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

Options:

A.

Once a week

B.

Once an hour

C.

Twice per day

D.

Once per day

Question 76

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Question 77

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

Always delivers a file to user

B.

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

C.

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

D.

Delivers file only if no threats found

Question 78

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

Options:

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

Question 79

Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

Options:

A.

cpwd

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

Question 80

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

Question 81

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d –s report

C.

cpstat –f all

D.

cphaprob –a list

Question 82

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

Question 83

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

Options:

A.

That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.

B.

Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

C.

Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

D.

You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.

Question 84

To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on

B.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 4

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

Question 85

SecureXL improves non-encrypted firewall traffic throughput and encrypted VPN traffic throughput.

Options:

A.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve all traffic.

B.

This statement is false because SecureXL does not improve this traffic but CoreXL does.

C.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve this traffic.

D.

This statement is false because encrypted traffic cannot be inspected.

Question 86

SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:

Options:

A.

19090,22

B.

19190,22

C.

18190,80

D.

19009,443

Question 87

Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

Options:

A.

fw tab -t

B.

fw tab -s

C.

fw tab -n

D.

fw tab -k

Question 88

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

Question 89

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

B.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

C.

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

Question 90

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

Options:

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

Question 91

Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpd

C.

cpwd

D.

fwssd

Question 92

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

Question 93

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

Question 94

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

Options:

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

Question 95

On what port does the CPM process run?

Options:

A.

TCP 857

B.

TCP 18192

C.

TCP 900

D.

TCP 19009

Question 96

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Question 97

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

Options:

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

Question 98

You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:

Options:

A.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Application Wiki

B.

Threat Prevention and Threat Tools

C.

Threat Wiki and Check Point Website

D.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention

Question 99

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

Options:

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

Question 100

Fill in the blank: The “fw monitor” tool can be best used to troubleshoot ____________________.

Options:

A.

AV issues

B.

VPN errors

C.

Network traffic issues

D.

Authentication issues

Question 101

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Question 102

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.

Options:

A.

WMI

B.

Eventvwr

C.

XML

D.

Services.msc

Question 103

The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

Question 104

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

Question 105

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

Options:

A.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

Question 106

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

Options:

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

Question 107

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?

Options:

A.

6 GB

B.

8GB with Gaia in 64-bit mode

C.

4 GB

D.

It depends on the number of software blades enabled

Question 108

What is the command to show SecureXL status?

Options:

A.

fwaccel status

B.

fwaccel stats -m

C.

fwaccel -s

D.

fwaccel stat

Question 109

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

Question 110

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

Question 111

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

Options:

A.

remove database lock

B.

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.

override database lock

D.

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

Question 112

What is true of the API server on R81.20?

Options:

A.

By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements.

B.

By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI.

C.

By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with 16GB of RAM (or more).

D.

By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand-alone servers with 8GB of RAM (or more).

Question 113

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

Options:

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

Question 114

Joey wants to upgrade from R75.40 to R81 version of Security management. He will use Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method to achieve this.

What is one of the requirements for his success?

Options:

A.

Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine

B.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine

C.

Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine

D.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more

Question 115

What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

Options:

A.

The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster

B.

The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain

C.

Overview over SecureXL templated connections

D.

Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL

Question 116

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

Question 117

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R81.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solution?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

C.

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

D.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

Question 118

Which of the following commands shows the status of processes?

Options:

A.

cpwd_admin -l

B.

cpwd -l

C.

cpwd admin_list

D.

cpwd_admin list

Question 119

Fill in the blank: The R81 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows then as prioritized security events.

Options:

A.

SmartMonitor

B.

SmartView Web Application

C.

SmartReporter

D.

SmartTracker

Question 120

Which file contains the host address to be published, the MAC address that needs to be associated with the IP Address, and the unique IP of the interface that responds to ARP request?

Options:

A.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

B.

/var/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

C.

$CPDIR/conf/local.arp

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp

Question 121

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Question 122

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

Options:

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0set static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

Question 123

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Options:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

Question 124

What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

Question 125

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated.

What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.

There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated.

B.

The connection required a Security server.

C.

Acceleration is not enabled.

D.

The traffic is originating from the gateway itself.

Question 126

The ____ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

Question 127

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.20. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

Options:

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

Question 128

NO: 219

What cloud-based SandBlast Mobile application is used to register new devices and users?

Options:

A.

Check Point Protect Application

B.

Management Dashboard

C.

Behavior Risk Engine

D.

Check Point Gateway

Question 129

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

Question 130

Check Point security components are divided into the following components:

Options:

A.

GUI Client, Security Gateway, WebUI Interface

B.

GUI Client, Security Management, Security Gateway

C.

Security Gateway, WebUI Interface, Consolidated Security Logs

D.

Security Management, Security Gateway, Consolidate Security Logs

Question 131

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

Options:

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

Question 132

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_”cpview process ID”.cap”number of captures”?

Options:

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

Question 133

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

Question 134

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Question 135

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

Question 136

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

Options:

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

Question 137

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.

Lagging

B.

Synchronized

C.

Never been synchronized

D.

Collision

Question 138

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

Options:

A.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

Question 139

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

Options:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

Question 140

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

Options:

A.

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

Question 141

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

Question 142

You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Client Info

B.

SecuRemote

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

Check Point Capsule Cloud

Question 143

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Mode

B.

VPN Routing Mode

C.

Wire Mode

D.

Stateless Mode

Question 144

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on

C.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

Question 145

Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?

Options:

A.

50%

B.

75%

C.

80%

D.

15%

Question 146

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

Options:

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

Question 147

R81.20 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Options:

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Versions R75 and higher

Question 148

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

Question 149

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

Options:

A.

clusterXL_admin down

B.

cphaprob_admin down

C.

clusterXL_admin down-p

D.

set clusterXL down-p

Question 150

What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

Options:

A.

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

B.

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

C.

It will not block malicious traffic

D.

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

Question 151

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

Options:

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

Question 152

During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

Options:

A.

Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation

B.

Host having a Critical event found by IPS

C.

Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus

D.

Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot

Question 153

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.

It is not required L2TP traffic

Question 154

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

Options:

A.

2(OS) images

B.

images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the newest image

Question 155

CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:

Options:

A.

MySQL

B.

Postgres SQL

C.

MarisDB

D.

SOLR

Question 156

The Security Gateway is installed on GAIA R81. The default port for the Web User Interface is ______ .

Options:

A.

TCP 18211

B.

TCP 257

C.

TCP 4433

D.

TCP 443

Question 157

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

Options:

A.

User data base corruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiations

Question 158

There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R81 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Using Web Services

B.

Using Mgmt_cli tool

C.

Using CLISH

D.

Using SmartConsole GUI console

E.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems

Question 159

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

Question 160

What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?

Options:

A.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

B.

Source MAC address, Destination MAC address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

C.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port

D.

Source address, Destination address, Destination port, Protocol

Question 161

What is the difference between an event and a log?

Options:

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

Question 162

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

Options:

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

Question 163

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Question 164

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

Question 165

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members.

Question 166

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

Question 167

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

Question 168

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

Options:

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

Question 169

How can SmartView application accessed?

Options:

A.

http:// /smartview

B.

http:// :4434/smartview/

C.

https:// /smartview/

D.

https:// :4434/smartview/

Question 170

Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?

Options:

A.

source port ranges

B.

source ip

C.

source port

D.

same info from Packet Acceleration is used

Question 171

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

Question 172

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

Question 173

Which command lists all tables in Gaia?

Options:

A.

fw tab –t

B.

fw tab –list

C.

fw-tab –s

D.

fw tab -1

Question 174

Advanced Security Checkups can be easily conducted within:

Options:

A.

Reports

B.

Advanced

C.

Checkups

D.

Views

E.

Summary

Question 175

Where you can see and search records of action done by R81 SmartConsole administrators?

Options:

A.

In SmartView Tracker, open active log

B.

In the Logs & Monitor view, select “Open Audit Log View”

C.

In SmartAuditLog View

D.

In Smartlog, all logs

Question 176

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

Question 177

CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:

Options:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

Question 178

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

Options:

A.

fw conn all

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

show all connections

D.

show connections

Question 179

Which statement is true regarding redundancy?

Options:

A.

System Administrators know when their cluster has failed over and can also see why it failed over by using the cphaprob –f if command.

B.

ClusterXL offers three different Load Sharing solutions: Unicast, Broadcast, and Multicast.

C.

Machines in a ClusterXL High Availability configuration must be synchronized.

D.

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia and available to all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized environments.

Question 180

On R81.20 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

Question 181

What SmartEvent component creates events?

Options:

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

Question 182

SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

Options:

A.

Management Dashboard

B.

Gateway

C.

Personal User Storage

D.

Behavior Risk Engine

Question 183

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

Options:

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

Question 184

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

Question 185

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulator

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

Demo: 185 questions
Total 617 questions