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Checkpoint 156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 Exam Practice Test

Demo: 120 questions
Total 400 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) ___________ Server.

Options:

A.

SecurID

B.

LDAP

C.

NT domain

D.

SMTP

Question 2

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.

Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

C.

Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy

D.

Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway

Question 3

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

Antivirus

C.

Application Control

D.

NAT

Question 5

Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Logging and Status

D.

Monitoring

Question 6

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Options:

A.

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

B.

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

C.

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

D.

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

Question 7

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE online upgrade

C.

CPUSE offline upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

Question 8

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

Options:

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

Question 9

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

B.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

PKI Certificates and DynamiciD OTP

Question 10

When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?

Options:

A.

The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

B.

The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

C.

The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

D.

The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

Question 11

If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network resource only allowing certain users to access it, and only when they are on a specific network what is the best way to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Create an inline layer where the destination is the target network resource Define sub-rules allowing only specific sources to access the target resource

B.

Use a "New Legacy User at Location", specifying the LDAP user group that the users belong to, at the desired location

C.

Create a rule allowing only specific source IP addresses access to the target network resource.

D.

Create an Access Role object, with specific users or user groups specified, and specific networks defined Use this access role as the "Source" of an Access Control rule

Question 12

Choose what BEST describes a Session

Options:

A.

Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.

B.

Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.

C.

Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

D.

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole

Question 13

When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge

Question 14

Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

Options:

A.

Logs & Monitoring

B.

Smart Event

C.

Gateways & Severs Tab

D.

SmartView Monitor

Question 15

When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

B.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

C.

Reflected for ail users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.

Question 16

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

B.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

Question 17

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

Question 18

In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Display policies and logs on the administrator's workstation.

B.

Processing and sending alerts such as SNMP traps and email notifications.

C.

Verify and compile Security Policies.

D.

Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.

Question 19

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

Question 20

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Browser-Based Authentication

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Terminal Servers Agent

Question 21

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

Question 22

The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

B.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

C.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

D.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Question 23

Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

Options:

A.

Publish database

B.

Save changes

C.

Install policy

D.

Activate policy

Question 24

Fill in the blank: The_____is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.

Options:

A.

User index

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

User server

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Question 26

When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using template.

B.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

C.

Reflected for all users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

Question 27

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B.

Proactively detects threats

C.

Delivers file with original content

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Question 28

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

Options:

A.

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

B.

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

C.

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

D.

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

Question 29

Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

Options:

A.

Pentagon, star, and combination

B.

Star, octagon, and combination

C.

Combined and star

D.

Meshed, star, and combination

Question 30

R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Options:

A.

Windows only

B.

Gaia only

C.

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

D.

SecurePlatform only

Question 31

In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Logging & Monitoring

B.

None - the data is available by default

C.

Monitoring Blade

D.

SNMP

Question 32

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

Question 33

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

Options:

A.

Cannot reach the Security Gateway.

B.

The gateway and all its Software Blades are working properly.

C.

At least one Software Blade has a minor issue, but the gateway works.

D.

Cannot make SIC between the Security Management Server and the Security Gateway

Question 34

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

Options:

A.

sysdown

B.

exit

C.

halt

D.

shut-down

Question 35

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

Options:

A.

Central and Local.

B.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

C.

On-premise and Public Cloud.

D.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

Question 36

Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Save Policy

B.

Install Database

C.

Save session

D.

Install Policy

Question 37

Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Advanced Networking Blade

Question 38

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config -f

C.

save config -o

D.

save configuration

Question 39

Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway. Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working?

Options:

A.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

B.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish the policy.

C.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

D.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish the policy.

Question 40

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

MD5

D.

Pre-shared secret

Question 41

Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Options:

A.

Connection Cache

B.

State Cache

C.

State Table

D.

Network Table

Question 42

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared secret

B.

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

C.

Symmetrical IPSec key

D.

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

Question 43

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

Options:

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

Question 44

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

Question 45

Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?

Options:

A.

Cplic verify license

B.

Cplic print

C.

Cplic show

D.

Cplic license

Question 46

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Application Control

C.

Anti-spam and Email Security

D.

Anti-Virus

Question 47

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

Log server

C.

SmartEvent

D.

Multi-domain management server

Question 48

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

Options:

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

Question 49

What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

B.

Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.

C.

To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

D.

Used to better optimize a policy.

Question 50

When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

Options:

A.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

B.

Static NAT

C.

Static Route

D.

HTTPS Inspection

Question 51

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Options:

A.

add rba user roles

B.

add user

C.

add rba user

D.

add user roles

Question 52

Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

Options:

A.

Centos Linux

B.

Gaia embedded

C.

Gaia

D.

Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

Question 53

Name the pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS.

Options:

A.

AdminRole, and MonitorRole

B.

ReadWriteRole, and ReadyOnly Role

C.

AdminRole, cloningAdminRole, and Monitor Role

D.

AdminRole

Question 54

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.

Options:

A.

The amount of logs being stored is less than previous versions.

B.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install.

C.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.

D.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway.

Question 55

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

Options:

A.

Original packet and translated packet

B.

Manipulated packet and original packet

C.

Translated packet and untranslated packet

D.

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

Question 56

What SmartEvent component creates events?

Options:

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

Question 57

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Options:

A.

cpconfig

B.

Management Command Line

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate

Question 58

Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?

Options:

A.

The Security Gateway is upgraded.

B.

The existing license expires.

C.

The license is upgraded.

D.

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

Question 59

Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

Options:

A.

AES-128

B.

AES-256

C.

DES

D.

3DES

Question 60

When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce changes.

Options:

A.

Publish database

B.

Activate policy

C.

Install policy

D.

Save changes

Question 61

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

CloudGuard

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

Question 62

Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

Options:

A.

License and Update

B.

Package Repository and Licenses

C.

Update and License & Contract

D.

License & Contract and Package Repository

Question 63

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

Options:

A.

In the system SMEM memory pool.

B.

In State tables.

C.

In the Sessions table.

D.

In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.

Question 64

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

Options:

A.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

B.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results

C.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway

D.

The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

Question 65

A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

Options:

A.

Firewall. URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

B.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering. Content Awareness and Mobile Access

C.

Firewall. NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

D.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

Question 66

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

Question 67

The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal

Communication (SIC)?

Options:

A.

After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA.

B.

Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.

C.

A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS ICA.

D.

New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.

Question 68

SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

Options:

A.

Security Policy Management and Log Analysis

B.

Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.

C.

Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring

D.

Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.

Question 69

What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

Options:

A.

Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

B.

Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.

C.

Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.

D.

Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

Question 70

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

Question 71

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

Question 72

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked

C.

Open SmartDashboard and review the logs tab

D.

From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet.

Question 73

Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.

Options:

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

Question 74

What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

Options:

A.

Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention

B.

Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN

D.

Firewall, Application Control and IPS

Question 75

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

Options:

A.

NAT

B.

Firewall

C.

Global Properties

D.

Object Explorer

Question 76

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

Question 77

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartcenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

Question 78

What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

Options:

A.

A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.

B.

A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.

C.

To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.

D.

A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

Question 79

You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

Options:

A.

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

B.

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

C.

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

D.

On the Security Management Server object, check the box “Identity Logging”

Question 80

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Question 81

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_“cpview process ID”. cap”number of captures”?

Options:

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

Question 82

True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.

Options:

A.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

B.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.

C.

True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission.

Question 83

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Options:

A.

Server Units

B.

Administrator Units

C.

Account Units

D.

Account Servers

Question 84

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

Options:

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

Question 85

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Options:

A.

Automatic Static NAT

B.

Manual Hide NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Manual Static NAT

Question 86

When should you generate new licenses?

Options:

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

Question 87

Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Identity Awareness

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

Question 88

A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

Options:

A.

The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.

B.

Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.

C.

The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.

D.

The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

Question 89

R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Options:

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Version R75 and higher

Question 90

What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Destination and Hide

B.

Hide and Static

C.

Static and Source

D.

Source and Destination

Question 91

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

D.

At least 20GB

Question 92

Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a__________ and _______.

Options:

A.

Software blade; software container

B.

Software package: signature

C.

Signature; software blade

D.

Software container software package

Question 93

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

Question 94

To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Protections

B.

IPS Protections

C.

Profiles

D.

ThreatWiki

Question 95

View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

Options:

A.

Those rules have been published in the current session.

B.

Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.

C.

Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.

D.

The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

Question 96

True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

Options:

A.

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

B.

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

C.

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

D.

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

Question 97

In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the "Actions" column of a rule?

Options:

A.

"Inspect", "Bypass"

B.

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Categorize"

C.

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Block"

D.

"Detect", "Bypass"

Question 98

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Options:

A.

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

B.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

C.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

D.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

Question 99

What is a role of Publishing?

Options:

A.

The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public

B.

The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways

C.

The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways

D.

Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base

Question 100

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Common Name

B.

Country

C.

User container

D.

Organizational Unit

Question 101

To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

Options:

A.

Cache the data to speed up its own function.

B.

Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.

C.

Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.

D.

Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.

Question 102

An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases. Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Section titles are not sent to the gateway side.

B.

These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement.

C.

A Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title.

D.

Sectional Titles do not need to be created in the SmartConsole.

Question 103

Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

Options:

A.

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

B.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

C.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

D.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

Question 104

Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Security Gateway container

C.

Management server

D.

Management container

Question 105

The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Options:

A.

Major version upgrades to R77.30

B.

Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes

C.

Only major version upgrades to R80.10

D.

All upgrades

Question 106

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Question 107

CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.

The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B.

Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

C.

The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

D.

Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

Question 108

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

Options:

A.

The Gateway is an SMB device

B.

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

D.

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

Question 109

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

Question 110

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

cat $FWDlR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

Question 111

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

Options:

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

Question 112

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.

Messaging tool user to verify a user’s credentials

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created

Question 113

Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

Token

D.

Pre-shared secret

Question 114

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

Question 115

Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

Options:

A.

All options stop Check Point processes

B.

backup

C.

migrate export

D.

snapshot

Question 116

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Options:

A.

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

B.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

C.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

D.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

Question 117

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

Options:

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

Question 118

Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Access Control

C.

Desktop Security

D.

Threat Prevention

Question 119

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Question 120

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway

Options:

A.

Antivirus

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

NAT

D.

Application Control

Demo: 120 questions
Total 400 questions