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  4. 71201X - Avaya Aura Core Components Implement Certified Exam

Avaya 71201X Avaya Aura Core Components Implement Certified Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 11 questions
Total 79 questions
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Avaya Aura Core Components Implement Certified Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

When adding a new Avaya Aura Communication Manager (CM) Endpoint/Station, which Class of Service (COS) profile is assigned by default?

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

0

Question 2

Which two interfaces can be used to add, change and remove an Avaya Aura Communication Manager (CM) H.323 Endpoint? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SAT terminal via SSH on Communication Manager

B.

Avaya Aura Device Services (AADS)

C.

Linux Command Line at CM Server

D.

The Communication Manager section of Avaya Aura System Manager (SMGR)

E.

SMI Web-Interface at CM Server

Question 3

Which three ways can be used to configure an Avaya Workplace client? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

User’s Corporate E-mail Address (using Avaya Aura Device Services and DNS Server)

B.

Advanced mode

C.

Web address/URL (using Avaya Aura Device Services)

D.

Manually (Expert mode)

E.

Basic Mode

Question 4

Which Avaya application product provides Avaya clients with auto-configuration options?

Options:

A.

Avaya Workplace Conferencing

B.

Avaya Session Border Controller (ASBCE)

C.

Avaya Aura Device Services (AADS)

D.

Avaya Aura Web Gateway (AAWG)

Question 5

To administer Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) from Avaya Aura® System Manager (SMGR), what is CM referred to as when it is added?

Options:

A.

Sequenced Application

B.

Feature Server

C.

Application Server

D.

Managed Element

Question 6

Facility Restriction Level (FRL) can be used to control the privileges of a call originator.

What are the levels of FRL that can be assigned?

Options:

A.

0 - 10 (with 10 being the lowest privilege level)

B.

0 - 7 (with 7 being the lowest privilege level)

C.

0 - 7 (with 7 being the highest privilege level)

D.

0 - 10 (with 10 being the highest privilege level)

Question 7

Which feature is used to route a call, matching a Dial Pattern or Regular Expression, to a chosen SIP Entity?

Options:

A.

Routing Policy

B.

Network Route Table

C.

Route Selection

D.

Route Pattern

Question 8

Which two platforms are supported implementation options for release 10.1 Avaya Aura Core products? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Ubuntu

B.

System Platform

C.

Windows Server 2019

D.

Software only – Customer Provided Redhat OS

E.

VMware ESXI

Question 9

Which statement regarding the Avaya Aura System Manager (SMGR) Log and Alarm exporting capabilities is true?

Options:

A.

Logs and Alarms are exported using the Log Harvester.

B.

Both Alarms and Logs can be exported from their respective viewers.

C.

Alarms and logs can be exported, but logs need to harvested first.

D.

Alarms can be exported, but logs cannot.

Question 10

After the deployment of the Avaya Aura Device Services (AADS) virtual machine, where are the initial installation steps carried out?

Options:

A.

from the Device Services page in Avaya Aura System Manager (SMGR)

B.

from Solution Deployment Manager (SDM)

C.

from the AADS Web interface

D.

from the AADS command-line, using the AADS Installation Utility

Question 11

When viewing a SIP Station Registration, what is the expected behaviour?

Options:

A.

The first registration request is rejected with a 401 Unauthorized message.

B.

The first registration request is successful if the correct password has been entered.

C.

Only Advanced SIP Telephony (AST) device registrations are shown on traceSM.

D.

TraceSM does not show successful SIP Station Registrations, it only displays registration failures.

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Demo: 11 questions
Total 79 questions
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