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ASHRM CPHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 35 questions
Total 119 questions

Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Questions and Answers

Question 1

An intervention between parties to promote reconciliation, settlement, or compromise is

Options:

A.

an arbitration.

B.

a mediation.

C.

a jury trial.

D.

a judge trial.

Question 2

A subpoena duces tecum requires the recipient to

    produce specified documents.

    appear at a deposition or trial.

    provide a list of all parties involved.

    disclose the names of expert witnesses.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 3

Protecting outdoor air intakes can mitigate the risk of terrorists introducing airborne agents. Steps include:

Options:

A.

Relocate intakes higher; establish a security zone; add lighting and surveillance

B.

Paint the intake vents a different color

C.

Put a “No trespassing” sign only

D.

Reduce HVAC maintenance

Question 4

A hospital has opted to open an anticoagulation clinic. As this is a high-risk medication, a risk manager wants to conduct a risk assessment before opening the clinic. The BEST tool to use would be a

Options:

A.

root cause analysis RCA.

B.

failure mode and effects analysis FMEA.

C.

cause and effect diagram.

D.

scatter diagram.

Question 5

A clear directive to a nurse is:

Options:

A.

“Be careful.”

B.

“Monitor the infusion pump’s operation at defined intervals and document checks.”

C.

“Do your best.”

D.

“If you have time, look at it.”

Question 6

Which of the following items should be part of a claim file?

    peer review reports or data

    correspondence with attorneys and investigators

    literature search

    verification of settlement authority

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

Question 7

If there is no OSHA standard for a given potential health hazard, OSHA may:

Options:

A.

Govern it under the General Duty Clause

B.

Have no authority at all

C.

Transfer it to the FDA

D.

Ignore it if it is expensive

Question 8

Which of the following should a risk manager consider when evaluating the effectiveness of a claims management program?

    indemnity-to-expense ratios

    total number of cases reported

    percentage of cases resolved within reserves

    percentage of cases identified prior to claim

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

Question 9

Supervisors who conduct job interviews may ask which of the following questions?

Options:

A.

Are you currently taking a prescription medication?

B.

Do you plan to have children?

C.

Can you meet the organization's attendance requirement?

D.

Are you a citizen of the United States?

Question 10

A risk manager is reviewing the professional liability insurance policy for the limits of liability. Which of the following should the risk manager review FIRST?

Options:

A.

conditions

B.

exclusions

C.

declaration

D.

insuring agreement

Question 11

What is the voluntary relinquishment by the insurer or self-insurer of the right to recover from a third party?

Options:

A.

Waiver of subrogation

B.

Coinsurance

C.

Underwriting

D.

Experience rating

Question 12

Which of the following should prompt a risk manager to give notice to a malpractice carrier?

Options:

A.

written medical record request from an attorney

B.

demand letter from a patient

C.

internal incident report

D.

disclosure to a patient

Question 13

A hospital risk manager has been called to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit to discuss a 25-week premature infant whose parents are refusing a planned blood transfusion due to their religious beliefs. After gathering information on the infant’s condition and hearing the parents and the healthcare professionals disagree on the best interests of the infant, the risk manager should

Options:

A.

arrange for an ethics committee consultation to meet the parents and discuss the issue.

B.

prohibit the blood transfusion, respecting the parents’ rights as substitute decision-makers for the infant.

C.

advise the care team to proceed with the blood transfusion.

D.

contact legal counsel to arrange for an emergency court hearing to obtain a court order from the state to intervene.

Question 14

People make fewer errors when:

Options:

A.

Staff work as a coordinated team with shared communication tools

B.

Individuals work alone to avoid distraction

C.

Speed is prioritized over verification

D.

Errors are hidden to protect reputations

Question 15

According to The Joint Commission, which of the following should be done to patient-owned electrical devices entering the facility?

Options:

A.

inventory with patient belongings

B.

sequester the electrical device

C.

conduct an electrical safety inspection

D.

tag by biomedical engineering

Question 16

When conducting an investigation of a liability claim, which of the following steps should be included?

    providing the RCA to the insurance company

    determining the applicable standard of care

    assessing the applicable legal principles

    obtaining an incident report from the claimant

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 17

Which of the following should be the primary consideration when designing a new risk management program for a facility?

Options:

A.

size of the facility

B.

type of insurance the facility carries

C.

history of the facility

D.

mission and vision of the facility

Question 18

If no specific OSHA standard applies to a given potential health hazard, then

Options:

A.

OSHA has no authority to govern the hazard.

B.

OSHA has the authority to govern the hazard under the general duty clause.

C.

the appropriate state agency must consult with OSHA in governance of the hazard.

D.

the appropriate state agency may govern the hazard without OSHA consultation.

Question 19

Whenever possible, medication orders should be by:

Options:

A.

Brand name

B.

Dose (explicit numeric dose and units)

C.

Color coding

D.

Verbal shorthand

Question 20

Aside from clinical risk exposures, which of the following should be evaluated as part of a risk assessment concerning telemedicine?

Options:

A.

operational

B.

behavioral

C.

public awareness

D.

financial

Question 21

In general, how many steps should an FMEA proceed in each direction (upstream/downstream) when mapping a process for failure analysis?

Options:

A.

Two steps in each direction (a common practical rule-of-thumb)

B.

Ten steps minimum regardless of complexity

C.

Only the current step; context is irrelevant

D.

Steps are not mapped in FMEA

Question 22

Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause of medication errors in healthcare entities?

Options:

A.

manual medication delivery systems

B.

illegible physician handwriting

C.

system or process failure

D.

look-alike, sound-alike drugs

Question 23

The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 includes provisions to

    amend the Public Health Service Act to establish procedures for the voluntary confidential reporting of medical errors.

    enable the creation of patient safety organizations PSOs.

    require mandatory reporting to PSOs.

    classify patient safety work product reported to PSOs as privileged and confidential.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

Question 24

In enterprise risk management, which of the following are external factors that may affect risk?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 25

Per The Joint Commission and CMS patient visitation standards, a hospital may restrict an individual's ability to visit a patient if the visitor

Options:

A.

is not the patient's immediate family member.

B.

is known to be a drug seeker in the community.

C.

administered the patient an unknown drug via IV.

D.

is not the patient's designated healthcare surrogate.

Question 26

Which sentinel event type has been reported among the most frequent categories in Joint Commission-related analyses (noting year-to-year variation)?

Options:

A.

Falls (recent years show high frequency)

B.

Cafeteria food complaints

C.

Parking disputes

D.

Gift shop inventory loss

Question 27

What is a best-practice early objective in a disclosure-and-resolution conversation after an adverse event?

Options:

A.

Delay communication until legal discovery is complete

B.

Provide timely explanation of what is known, express empathy/apology, and commit to prevention steps

C.

Blame an individual staff member immediately

D.

Provide no information to avoid lawsuits

Question 28

Which of the following has been proven to reduce costs of workers' compensation programs?

Options:

A.

early return-to-work programs

B.

comprehensive departmental safety analyses

C.

employee assistance programs

D.

employee disciplinary actions

Question 29

The source of many medication errors is:

Options:

A.

Verbal/telephone orders (when avoidable and not properly verified)

B.

Patient wristbands

C.

Elevator delays

D.

Radiology scheduling

Question 30

What are the four elements of the SBAR situational briefing model?

Options:

A.

Situation, Behavior, Action, Result

B.

Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

C.

Summary, Background, Action, Review

D.

Scene, Background, Assessment, Response

Question 31

An indemnification clause in a contract is designed to

Options:

A.

create a forum to resolve contract disputes related to fulfillment of the contract terms.

B.

hold the other party responsible for fulfilling the terms of the contract.

C.

defer all legal costs to the other party in the case of harm, liability, or loss.

D.

clarify commitments to compensate the other party for harm, liability, or loss.

Question 32

When a hospital notes that most errors are occurring at the “sharp end,” what does that mean?

Options:

A.

Errors are occurring in billing and contracting

B.

Errors occur during direct caregiver–patient interaction (frontline care)

C.

Errors occur only in device manufacturing

D.

Errors are exclusively leadership decisions

Question 33

An employer is not required to offer a reasonable accommodation to a job applicant with a qualified disability unless

Options:

A.

the applicant proves the disability.

B.

withholding the reasonable accommodation creates an unsafe condition.

C.

the applicant requests the accommodation.

D.

the employer recognizes that the accommodation is necessary.

Question 34

A 78-year-old patient in the ICU is unable to speak or swallow. The physician states that she is terminally ill and believes she lacks decision-making capacity. As such, he has deferred to her properly executed advance directive that clearly outlines her wishes for no life-prolonging treatment. The patient's three sons know of the directive, but insist that a PEG tube be placed to assist with feeding. The physician is opposed to placing the tube. The nurse calls the risk manager for advice. Which of the following should the risk manager advise?

Options:

A.

The patient has the right to autonomy, and the advance directive is proper; support the physician.

B.

The family will outlive the patient, and they have the right to sue; support the family.

C.

More facts are needed; decision making capacity must be determined before moving forward.

D.

More facts are needed; request an ethics consultation.

Question 35

According to Joint Commission findings, what is a primary cause of wrong-site surgery?

Options:

A.

Communication failure

B.

Laundry delays

C.

Weather conditions

D.

Pharmacy stock-outs

Demo: 35 questions
Total 119 questions