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APM APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 122 questions
Total 409 questions

APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which one of the following is an example of a project issue?

Options:

A.

There are no suppliers that can meet our specification.

B.

We may not be able to finish on time.

C.

The project is going to be late.

D.

A key phase of the project is taking longer than expected

Question 2

Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by:

Options:

A.

identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest.

B.

ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

C.

justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders.

D.

providing information to all stakeholders.

Question 3

Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Evaluation.

B.

Identification.

C.

Registration.

D.

Justification.

Question 4

What could be considered a significant barrier to communication?

Options:

A.

Use of body language.

B.

Having formal meetings.

C.

Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.

D.

Use of informal communication channels

Question 5

Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

Options:

A.

The project team.

B.

The chief executive.

C.

The project manager.

D.

The project support office

Question 6

The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to:

Options:

A.

provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and risk of alternative options.

B.

ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager's activity.

C.

document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for managing the project.

D.

document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.

Question 7

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A. project is always the starting point for operational refinement.

Question 8

What defining character from those listed below particularly typifies an issue?

Options:

A.

A major problem that was unexpected and now requires the attention Of the whole project team.

B.

A major problem that can only be addressed by the project sponsor.

C.

A major problem that may happen in the future.

D.

A major problem that requires A. formal process of escalation

Question 9

The group whose remit is to set the strategic direction of a project is commonly known as:

Options:

A.

the project management team.

B.

primary user group.

C.

steering group.

D supplier group.

Question 10

A member of your team has described being involved in a risk event. Which one of the following would best describe such an event?

Options:

A.

An action or set of actions to reduce the probability or impact of a threat, or to increase the probability or impact of an opportunity.

B.

The plan of the response to risks.

C.

An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if realised would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A risk identification workshop.

Question 11

A key output of a well-controlled configuration management process is:

Options:

A.

documented traceability between versions of each configuration item.

B.

that the project is most likely to meet its success criteria.

C.

documented evidence of all project changes: proposed. authorised, rejected or deferred.

D.

an agreed point after which no further changes to scope will be considered.

Question 12

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.

B.

A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.

C.

An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.

D.

A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.

Question 13

In order to be defined as an issue, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?

Options:

A.

It must result in a set tolerance being exceeded.

B.

The project manager must be able to resolve it.

C.

It must have happened because of an identified risk.

D.

The project team must be able to deal with it internally.

Question 14

The implementation of risk management on A. project requires a cost allocation from the project budget. Which statement describes the most representative return from such an investment?

Options:

A.

A benefit to the project if potential opportunities are realised

B.

The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually greater than the cost of managing that risk.

C.

Risk management in the project facilitates team building.

D.

It allows the organisation to assure stakeholders of project compliance with regard to risk management.

Question 15

Which one of the following is NOT typically associated with a project's context?

Options:

A.

The issues and areas that matter to stakeholders.

B.

Technical, social or political considerations.

C.

The environment in which the project is being carried out.

D.

The sequence and dependencies of activities.

Question 16

Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development

Options:

A.

3 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 17

Resource levelling seeks:

Options:

A.

to schedule activities within the limits of their float.

B.

to minimise the use of overtime and weekend working.

C.

not to exceed the limits of resource available.

D.

to increase the resource availability

Question 18

The phases of a project life cycle are:

Options:

A.

starting, planning, control and closing.

B.

concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

C.

initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.

D.

concept, definition, implementation and operations.

Question 19

What must happen when an issue is likely to result in a change of scope?

Options:

A.

The issue owner is consulted,

B.

A decision regarding the issue is deferred.

C.

The issue is rejected and the owner is informed.

D.

The issue needs to be progressed through change control.

Question 20

In A. RACI coding format, what does 'A' stand for?

Options:

A.

Available.

B.

Authorised.

C.

Accountable.

D.

Acceptable.

Question 21

Which of the following are the major stakeholders of the project management plan?

1) Project sponsor

2) General public

3) Project team

4) Project manager

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 22

As part of the risk management process the capture of threats and

opportunities to the project objectives are referred to as:

Options:

A.

risk assessment.

B.

risk avoidance.

C.

risk exposure.

D.

risk identification.

Question 23

Quality control verifies that:

Options:

A.

the project follows appropriate processes.

B.

project outputs are delivered on time.

C.

the project follows appropriate governance.

D.

project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

Question 24

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

Options:

A.

to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.

B.

to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

C.

to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.

D.

to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders

Question 25

What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a communication plan?

Options:

A.

The project is more likely to finish on time.

B.

There will be greater adherence to the organisation's governance and standards.

C.

The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change.

D.

There will be more focus on what benefits the project will be delivering.

Question 26

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

Question 27

A procurement strategy is a:

Options:

A.

technical specification.

B.

day-to-day requirement.

C.

detailed timetable.

D.

high-level approach.

Question 28

What is the most likely result of providing effective quality management in the project?

Options:

A.

The project outputs will have been delivered.

B.

Conformance of the outputs and processes to requirements will result in a product that is fit for purpose.

C.

The project management plan will have been followed

D.

Customer expectations will have been exceeded with both outputs and processes

Question 29

How is 'quality' best defined?

Options:

A.

The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance of the outputs of a process or the process itself to requirements.

C.

A. discipline for ensuring the outputs, benefits and the processes by which they are delivered meet stakeholder requirements and are fit for purpose.

D.

The satisfaction of stakeholder needs measured by the success criteria as identified and agreed at the start of the project.

Question 30

Which of the following is not an output of a critical path analysis?

Options:

A.

Total and free float.

B.

Earliest start time and latest finish time of activities.

C.

Project completion time.

D.

Cost-benefit analysis.

Question 31

You have been asked to assist in the development of a project management plan for the project. As A. minimum, what should this plan include?

Options:

A.

A. summary of the project acceptance criteria.

B.

CVs of all the team members.

C.

Details Of previous similar projects.

D.

Resourcing details for quality reviews.

Question 32

Which of the following defines the term 'risk'?

Options:

A.

The potential of a situation or event to impact on the achievement of specific objectives.

B.

A problem that is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.

C.

Scope creep within an uncontrolled project.

D.

The use of estimation to determine costs, resources and activities.

Question 33

Scope management in an iterative life cycle would ensure that:

Options:

A.

the must have' requirements are given the top priority for delivery.

B.

the scope is identified at a deeper level in the project.

C.

all stakeholders get what they want from the project.

D.

areas of the project that will be delivered are fully agreed

Question 34

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

Options:

A.

They have a lack of interest in what the project is they feel it doesn't really affect them.

B.

They haven't been involved in project manager from the candidates available

C.

They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

D.

They are a in another project and time to perform the stakeholder role

Question 35

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

Options:

A.

quality assurance.

B.

quality planning.

C.

quality control.

D.

quality audit.

Question 36

Which of the following aspects would best describe part of the project environment?

Options:

A.

The influence and interests of the key stakeholders of the project.

B.

The technical difficulties that are anticipated when undertaking the project.

C.

The circumstances within which the project is being undertaken.

D The relationship between the project manager and the project team.

Question 37

The concept that describes how estimating accuracy changes through the project life cycle is termed:

Options:

A.

estimating risk.

B.

estimating funnel.

C.

normal values.

D.

parametric estimating.

Question 38

What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project?

Options:

A.

Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum.

B.

Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information.

C.

Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework.

D.

Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback

Question 39

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a:

Options:

A.

gate review.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review

Question 40

Configuration management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the process through which all requests to change the approved baseline of a project is captured. evaluated and then approved. rejected or deferred.

B.

the system that ensures that all changes to configuration items are controlled and the interrelationships between items are identified.

C.

the technical and administrative activities concerned with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and quality control of the scope of work.

D.

A report of the current status and history of all changes to the configuration, together with a complete record of what has happened to the configuration to date.

Question 41

What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on the estimating method being used?

Options:

A.

The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out.

B.

The overall budgeted value of the project being estimated.

C.

Whether the project is likely to proceed or not.

D.

The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that exists.

Question 42

One advantage of virtual communications is:

Options:

A.

that nonverbal signals can have an impact on discussions.

B.

it's easy to detect signs of conflict within the project team.

C.

access to a wider resource pool for the project.

D.

that the project team will always be co-located.

Question 43

The main purpose of configuration management is to:

Options:

A.

minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project.

B.

ensure that the final product meets the strategic needs of the business.

C.

provide control of the deliverables and avoid mistakes or misunderstandings.

D.

maximise the impact of agreed enhancements on the project deliverables.

Question 44

The responsibility for development and production of the business case is primarily with:

Options:

A.

the project manager

B.

jointly shared between the project manager and project sponsor.

C.

the project sponsor.

D.

the project steering group/committee.

Question 45

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.

B.

Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.

C.

Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

D.

Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

Question 46

A project stakeholder could best be described as:

Options:

A.

A member of the sponsoring organisation's board of directors.

B.

A key player who is seeking to maximize control over the project

C.

A person or group who has an interest in or is impacted by the project.

D.

A project team member who has the skills necessary to deliver the project

Question 47

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

Options:

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

Question 48

On examining a particular risk in the project there is some uncertainty among the project team of how important this risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on how the significance of the risk is to be determined?

Options:

A.

By assessing its probability of occurrence.

B.

By assessing its impact on project objectives,

C.

By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its impact on project objectives.

D.

By assessing its effect on the business case.

Question 49

Which one Of the following statements about project risk is true?

Options:

A.

Risk is always beneficial to the project.

B.

Risk is neither beneficial or detrimental to the project

C.

Risk can be beneficial or detrimental to the project.

D.

Risk is always detrimental to the project.

Question 50

What is the importance of having a business case?

Options:

A.

It allows the sponsor to use the document as a baseline to calculate project slippage.

B.

It provides an overview of the project team performance at each stage of delivery.

C.

It shows how the project manager is performing in delivering the project

D.

It allows the sponsor to decide on project continuously when used at gate review

Question 51

Portfolio management includes prioritising:

Options:

A.

projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation's strategic objectives.

B.

projects with exceptionally high returns on investment.

C.

projects and programmes over business as usual.

D.

projects which maximise change over those which maximise investment

Question 52

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Risk events always have beneficial effects on the project.

B.

Risk events can have either beneficial or detrimental effects on the project.

C.

Risk events always have detrimental effects on the project.

D.

Risk events have neither beneficial nor detrimental effects on the project.

Question 53

Which of the following is the purpose of an estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Keeping resource usage to a minimum to help reduce costs.

B.

Supporting the production of comparative estimates.

C.

Identifying where costs can be minimised when preparing a budget.

D.

Representing increasing levels of estimating accuracy achieved through the life cycle

Question 54

Communication includes:

1) exchanging information

2) managing stakeholders

3) confirming there is a shared understanding

4) building relationships within your team

Options:

A.

2 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 55

An important aim of a post-project review is to:

Options:

A.

validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.

B.

capture learning and document it for future usage.

C.

ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.

D.

establish that project benefits have been identified.

Question 56

What role does the project manager have in the writing of the business case? The project manager:

Options:

A.

works with the project sponsor.

B.

has no involvement.

C.

must develop it themself.

D.

works with the end user.

Question 57

Which of the following statements about risks and issues is correct?

Options:

A.

Issues must be escalated to the project sponsor.

B.

Risks must be escalated to the project sponsor.

C.

Issues must be dealt with by the governance board.

D.

Risks must be dealt with by the governance board.

Question 58

You have been asked to review the project's quality management plan and in particular the elements of the plan most relevant to quality control. Which one of the following will be your primary focus for consideration?

Options:

A.

The development of a. strategy for the management of quality in the project.

B.

Supplying the client with evidence of control to ISO 9000:2000.

C.

A. review of whether underlying processes and way of working are leading towards product deliverables of the right quality.

D.

The agreed methods of inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria defined during quality planning.

Question 59

Benefits management ends once the benefits have been:

Options:

A.

defined.

B.

quantified.

C.

realised.

D.

conceived.

Question 60

The primary purpose of a gate review is to decide:

Options:

A.

whether the project manager and team are performing well.

B.

if the project is on schedule and within budget.

C.

if stakeholders are satisfied.

D.

whether to continue with the project.

Question 61

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members

2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members

3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area

4) Lack of accountability of team members

Options:

A.

1, 2 & 3

B.

1, 2 & 4

C.

1, 3 & 4

D.

2, 3 & 4

Question 62

What factor creates the effect of the estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Project team getting to know each other better.

B.

utilization of learning and experience.

C.

Project scope increasing in cost.

D.

use of a linear life cycle

Question 63

An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

Options:

A.

the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.

B.

technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.

C.

lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.

D.

the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

Question 64

Within which phases of a project life cycle are risks identified?

Options:

A.

Within the end phase.

B.

Within the initial phases.

C.

Within the deployment phase.

D.

Within each phase.

Question 65

Which one of the following statements BEST defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure(PBS)?

Options:

A.

To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project

B.

To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies

C.

To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover

D.

To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project

Question 66

Which of the following role is primarily responsible for defining goals and creating vision for the operability of the project's outputs?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Product owner.

C.

User.

D Business case owner.

Question 67

Which of the following are not considered by quality planning?

Options:

A.

Contingency budget for remedial work.

B.

Equipment required for quality testing.

C.

Staff qualified to undertake inspections.

D.

Processes to obtain stakeholder approvals.

Question 68

The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the...

Options:

A.

Cost breakdown structure

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Business case

D.

Project management plan

Question 69

Unlike in linear life cycles, the scope in an iterative lifecycle is:

Options:

A.

expected to change.

B.

hard to change.

C.

unimportant.

D.

unstructured.

Question 70

Which of the following defines quality?

Options:

A.

The fitness for purpose of outputs and processes.

B.

The value for money of a product.

C.

The satisfaction of the stakeholders.

D.

The thoroughness of the management plan.

Question 71

An extended project life cycle can be defined as:

Options:

A.

an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle.

B.

an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle.

C.

a framework for conducting a cost-benefit analysis once a project has closed.

D.

a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project.

Question 72

What is essential for ensuring the level of stakeholder engagement is maintained throughout the delivery of the project?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders communicate with each other.

B.

The project management plan is established.

C.

An effective communication plan is used.

D.

All stakeholders are treated equally.

Question 73

Which one of the following is NOT a project change?

Options:

A.

An approved omission from the agreed project scope.

B.

The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project.

C.

A. requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs.

D.

The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope.

Question 74

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the business case?

Options:

A.

Safety plan for the project.

B.

Implementation options.

C.

Stakeholder identification.

D.

Business benefits.

Question 75

Which of the following disadvantages applies to video conferencing?

Options:

A.

A level of technological expertise is required.

B.

Body language can reinforce the message.

C.

It is harder to maintain concentration.

D.

There are increased costs of getting to the meeting.

Question 76

Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?

Options:

A.

Actively seeking some senior management support.

B.

Measures by which the success of the project is judged.

C.

Achievement of milestones.

D.

A motivated project team.

Question 77

The value of a risk log lies in its ability to provide:

Options:

A.

A. record of all risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

B.

A. record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.

C.

A. means of assessing the likelihood and impact of risks.

D.

A. structured process for risk management.

Question 78

The purpose of PESTLE analysis is to:

Options:

A.

understand the project's external operating environment.

B.

prioritise requirements that should be included in the project.

C.

periodically review the financial viability of the project.

D.

determine the project team's strengths and weaknesses.

Question 79

How is the deployment baseline used throughout the project?

Options:

A.

Progress monitoring and implementation of change control.

B.

Benefits realisation.

C.

Identify options for deployment.

D.

Prepare users for delivery of the output into operation.

Question 80

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

Options:

A.

Steering group.

B.

Risk owner.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Project manager

Question 81

What is the estimating method that uses data from a similar project as the basis for the estimate?

Options:

A.

Evaluative estimating.

B.

Risk based estimating.

C.

Analogous estimating.

D.

Analytical estimating.

Question 82

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

B.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

C.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle.

D.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.

Question 83

What is meant by the term programme management?

Options:

A.

The management of A. group of projects or activities that have a common business aim.

B.

The line management of A. team of programme managers.

C.

The management of A. functional are aused by a number of different projects.

D.

The management of the programme of activities identified in the project plan

Question 84

The question: 'Is the project actually following the processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan?' would be answered by?

Options:

A.

Quality alignment.

B.

Quality control.

C.

Quality assurance.

D.

Quality improvement.

Question 85

What is a factor that is important when communicating as part of stakeholder engagement?

Options:

A.

Planned communication will help to establish the level of interest and power a stakeholder is likely to possess.

B.

Planned communication will increase the number of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project.

C.

Planned communication will reduce the power of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project.

D.

Planned communication is likely to reduce the number Of valid stakeholders who have an interest in the project.

Question 86

Which of the following can be adjusted in a timebox situation?

Options:

A.

Deadline and duration.

B.

Time and cost.

C.

Scope and quality.

D.

Budget and resources.

Question 87

From the project sponsor's viewpoint, which of the following is not an important aspect of the project communication plan?

Options:

A.

How issues are to be escalated from project manager to project sponsor.

B.

Understanding stakeholders' power and influence.

C.

When project workshops are to be held.

D.

Reference to higher level corporate policies.

Question 88

A project management plan could best be described as:

Options:

A.

an activity on a network diagram.

B.

A. Gantt chart.

C.

A. plan for the programme.

D.

an overall plan for the project.

Question 89

Which stakeholders are likely to form the main part of a project governance board?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor, project manager and quality manager.

B.

Corporate management, project sponsor, quality manager and project office.

C.

Sponsor, supplier representative and user representative.

D Sponsor, project manager and senior project team members.

Question 90

Which of the following would be considered as the main purpose of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

To provide a documented account of the outcomes of the planning process.

B.

To enable agreement between the project sponsor and project manager with regard to project budget, resource requirements and timescale.

C.

To provide A. record of how the project was planned, for archiving in the organisation's lessons learned.

D.

To identify and record the projects intended financial spend over the period of project delivery.

Question 91

Which one of the following would NOT typically be part of procurement?

Options:

A.

Estimating.

B.

Engagement of external suppliers.

C.

Definition of items to be acquired.

D.

Bidding.

Question 92

Critical path analysis places emphasis upon:

Options:

A.

risks

B.

resources

C.

milestones

D.

activities

Question 93

The prime purpose of configuration management is to:

Options:

A.

ensure the traceability and integrity of the delivered product or products

B.

minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project

C.

ensure that the final product meets the needs of the business as defined by key stakeholders.

D.

maximise the impact of agreed enhancements to the project deliverables

Question 94

Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a key duty of

Options:

A.

the quality manager.

B.

the key users,

C.

the project manager.

D.

the business sponsor.

Question 95

Quality control consists of:

1) improvement

2) inspection

3) measurement

4) testing

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

2, 3 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

1, 2 and 3

Question 96

Which of the following best describes a project's context?

Options:

A.

The environment in which the business operates.

B.

The geographic location in which the project is undertaken.

C.

The external and internal business environments including stakeholder's interests and influences.

D Industry and business sector practices.

Question 97

Project success criteria are best defined as:

Options:

A.

the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged.

B.

the factors that, when present in the project are most conducive to a successful outcome.

C.

the measures that establish if project activities are ahead or behind schedule.

D.

the activities or elements of the project which are considered to be critical to success

Question 98

Which of the following is a project?

Options:

A.

Introducing a new information technology system.

B.

Operating a national rail network.

C.

Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces.

D.

Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians

Question 99

Which of the following statements about scheduling is false?

Options:

A.

Defines the sequence of activities.

B.

Considers work calendars and time contingency.

C.

Provides a baseline for safety considerations.

D.

Quantifies the required resources.

Question 100

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project team members?

Options:

A.

To establish formal reporting procedures for project progress.

B.

To assess the progress of their work against the strategic objectives.

C.

To ensure that work assigned to them by the Project Manager is performed.

D.

To identify and resolve project issues affecting the work delegated to them

Question 101

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines, is referred to as the:

Options:

A.

change management committee,

B.

change authority,

C.

change control board.

D.

change implementation group.

Question 102

Which of the following is a part of change control?

Options:

A.

Requests for change are realised.

B.

Requests for change are mitigated.

C.

Requests for change are evaluated.

D.

Requests for change are resolved.

Question 103

Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding.

B.

Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing.

C.

Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing.

D.

Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing.

Question 104

One benefit of a gate review process is:

Options:

A.

it allows learning from one phase of the project to be passed on to the next phase.

B.

it stops projects that no longer meet the organisation's needs.

C.

it allows procurement to be planned into the project life cycle.

D.

it allows the project team to plan delivery of the next phase

Question 105

The purpose of quality assurance is to:

Options:

A.

provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

determine a set of procedures and standards for project management.

C.

inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes.

D.

define the scope and specifics of a project's deliverables

Question 106

Where in the project life cycle benefits realization most common?

Options:

A.

The start of deployment.

B.

The end of deployment.

C.

The end of the concept phase prior to handover

D.

The extended life cycle.

Question 107

Which one of the following best describes A. programme?

Options:

A.

A group of projects collected together that have a common purpose.

B.

A group of projects collected together for management convenience.

C.

A group of projects collected together because of their use of common resources.

D.

A group of projects collected together because of their relationship to business-as-usual.

Question 108

While providing support to the project and attending a risk management workshop, the following statements were noted. Which one of these could be considered as a risk to a project?

Options:

A.

We have never done a project of this kind before.

B.

We might not have sufficient people with the right experience to undertake the project.

C.

We always find that design verification takes longer than planned.

D.

We have never worked in that country before.

Question 109

A typical issue management process could follow the steps:

Options:

A.

identification, escalation. action, resolution.

B.

assessment, escalation, closure, resolution.

C.

assessment, planning, action, response.

D.

identification, planning, response, resolution.

Question 110

Procurement strategy can be defined as the high-level approach for securing:

Options:

A.

stakeholder engagement.

B.

funding for the project.

C.

buy in from the project sponsor.

D.

goods and services required for the project.

Question 111

A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as _________ project life cycle.

Options:

A.

a hybrid.

B.

an extended.

C.

a reduced.

D.

a combined.

Question 112

One purpose of a typical project business case is to:

Options:

A.

carry out earned value analysis.

B.

allocate resources to the project.

C.

analyse cost-benefit of the project.

D.

plan project work packages

Question 113

What is the main benefit of using prototyping. time boxing or iterative thinking?

Options:

A.

They offer tested methods for experimentation and risk reduction

B.

They reduce stakeholders' expectations of how they benefit from the project.

C.

Try allow the project to develop an extended life cycle.

D.

They always deliver the project quicker than planned

Question 114

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

Options:

A.

Evaluation of the benefits of the project.

B.

Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.

C.

Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.

D.

Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.

Question 115

PESTLE analysis covers the following areas:

Options:

A.

Political, Economic, Sociological, Technical, Legal, Environmental.

B.

Personnel, Economic, Safety, Technical, Legal, Ecological.

C.

Political, Ecological, Strategy, Technical, Life cycle, Environmental.

D Personnel, Ecological, Sociological, Training, Life cycle, Ecological.

Question 116

The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why, when and how is called the:

Options:

A.

communication management plan.

B.

stakeholder mapping grid.

C.

document distribution schedule.

D.

responsibility assignment matrix.

Question 117

The project manager's prime responsibility is to:

Options:

A.

deliver the benefits.

B.

define the requirements.

C.

sign off the business case.

D.

implement the project plan

Question 118

The purpose of project progress reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure a simpler critical path.

B.

enable the tracking of project deliverables.

C.

ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

D.

provide an increased total float.

Question 119

Which of the following descriptions particularly identifies a risk?

Options:

A.

An unplanned delay to the project.

B.

A. current problem that will result in the project going over budget.

C.

An uncertain event that if it occurs will have an effect on one or more of the project objectives,

D.

A. current problem that will result in the project being delayed.

Question 120

Which of the following BEST describes a project issue?

Options:

A.

An event that may or may not occur

B.

An opportunity that occurs through change control

C.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis

D.

A problem that must be escalated to the appropriate level of management for resolution

Question 121

What is the term given to the senior management team that set the strategic. direction for a project?

Options:

A.

Project management office.

B.

Change control board.

C.

Project steering group.

D.

Programme director.

Question 122

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a...

Options:

A.

decision gate.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review.

Demo: 122 questions
Total 409 questions