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ACFE CFE-Law Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) - Law Exam Practice Test

Demo: 65 questions
Total 217 questions

Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) - Law Questions and Answers

Question 1

The concealment of assets occurs most commonly in which of the following types of fraud schemes?

Options:

A.

Bankruptcy fraud

B.

Fictitious revenues

C.

Payroll fraud

D.

Income smoothing

Question 2

The same customer goes into a bank each day and purchases bearer instruments with cash in amounts just under the mandatory reporting requirements in the jurisdiction. The bank employees suspect that the customer is attempting to violate the jurisdiction’s money laundering regulations. If the jurisdiction’s anti-money laundering AML regulations follow the Financial Action Task Force FATF Recommendations, then the bank:

Options:

A.

May not file a report of suspicious transactions related to potential criminal activity with the appropriate authorities

B.

Is required to file a cash transaction report for possible criminal activity with the appropriate authorities because the purchases involved cash

C.

Is required to file a report of suspicious transactions with the appropriate authorities because the employees suspect money laundering violations

D.

May, but is not required to, file a report of suspicious transactions related to possible money laundering with the appropriate authorities

Question 3

Which of the following can affect the rights that employees may have during an internal investigation?

Options:

A.

Existence of fraud risk factors

B.

Existence of violation red flags

C.

Existence of interstate compacts

D.

Existence of an employment contract

Question 4

Which of the following is one of the three basic options by which organizations can legitimize cross-border transfers of personal information?

Options:

A.

Use a third-party transferring service

B.

Obtain approval from a Certified Information Privacy Professional (C PP)

C.

Establish a contract between the entities exchanging the information

D.

Obtain a warrant granting permission to transfer the data

Question 5

Which of the following statements about civil actions in most jurisdictions is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The plaintiff ' s complaint must typically contain a copy of all documents that might be relevant to the case.

B.

Civil actions begin with the filing of a pleading, usually in the jurisdiction where the defendant resides or where the claim originated.

C.

The plaintiff ' s complaint does not need to state the grounds for legal relief.

D.

All of the above are correct.

Question 6

Each of the following statements concerning cross-examination of witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions is accurate EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

If opposing counsel asks a very complex question, then the witness should ask for the question to be rephrased.

B.

One of the goals of cross-examination is to discredit the witness’s testimony.

C.

Opposing counsel will generally cross-examine a witness only if it would help the case.

D.

During cross-examination, opposing counsel is mostly concerned with discovering information that was previously undiscovered in the case.

Question 7

Samson Inc. operates in a jurisdiction that prohibits unreasonable workplace searches and surveillance in areas or items where employees have a reasonable expectation of privacy. In which of the following areas or items can an employee at Samson Inc. MOST LIKELY have a reasonable expectation of privacy during a workplace search?

Options:

A.

A laptop computer that was issued by Samson Inc.

B.

A desk drawer in a communal workspace.

C.

A recycling bin in the employee ' s office.

D.

A personal mobile phone brought to the office from home.

Question 8

Company A used Company B to recover damages for the breach of a contract. In the same proceeding. Company B sought damages for an allegation that Company A fraudulently induced Company B into entering the contract. In this case, what would Company B ' s claim against Company A be called?

Options:

A.

Counterclaim

B.

Collateral attack

C.

Reversal

D.

Cross-claim

Question 9

Tatiana is the chief executive officer (CEO) of Mattress World Warehouse, a retail mattress store that has been struggling financially A week before Mattress World Warehouse files for bankruptcy Tatiana sets ten mattresses to her husband at 80% below market value Which type of fraud scheme has Tatiana MOST LIKELY committed?

Options:

A.

A fraudulent bankruptcy

B.

A fraudulent conveyance

C.

A planned bustout

D.

A concealed transfer

Question 10

Country A ' s government requires financial institutions to report all instances of a customer depositing or withdrawing more than $10,000 in a day. To avoid attention regarding his illicit assets, James deposits $9,000 each day. In which of the following schemes is James engaging?

Options:

A.

Mobile payment scheme

B.

Integration scheme

C.

Reverse deposit scheme

D.

Structuring scheme

Question 11

Lana is a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) who works for Penn National, a private company. Lana suspects that Payne, an employee for Penn National, has stolen numerous products from the company. Lana plans to conduct an internal investigation into the missing products. Based on these facts, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

Options:

A.

Payne has a duty to cooperate with the investigation even if what is requested from him is not reasonable.

B.

Payne can refuse to cooperate with the investigation because he has a legal right to privacy.

C.

Payne likely has a duty to cooperate with the investigation as part of the employer-employee relationship.

D.

Payne can refuse to cooperate with the investigation because he has the right to remain silent.

Question 12

In common law jurisdictions failing to suspend routine destruction of electronic data can result in sanctions for failure to preserve relevant evidence

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 13

Which of the following is a legal element that must be shown to prove a claim for commercial bribery?

Options:

A.

The defendant acted negligently.

B.

The defendant gave or received a thing of value.

C.

The principal suffered damages as a result of the bribe

D.

The defendant failed to exercise due care.

Question 14

Frederick has multiple high-volume foreign bank accounts. The country he lives in requires him to report such accounts annually for tax purposes but he regularly and intentionally fails to report his accounts in order to reduce the amount of taxes he must pay. Which of the following schemes has Frederick MOST LIKELY committed?

Options:

A.

A tax credit evasion scheme

B.

A value-added tax evasion scheme

C.

An excise tax evasion scheme

D.

An income and wealth tax evasion scheme

Question 15

A custodial arrest occurs when the suspect is questioned by a law enforcement officer.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a legal element that must be shown to prove a claim for fraudulent misrepresentation of material facts?

Options:

A.

The defendant made a false statement

B.

The victim suffered damages because of the misrepresentation.

C.

The victim did not exercise due care in relying on the representation.

D.

The victim relied on the misrepresentation.

Question 17

Which of the following is an element that must be proven to establish a perjury offense?

Options:

A.

The defendant made a false statement in a court of law.

B.

The defendant made a false statement that influenced the fact finder’s decision.

C.

The defendant made a false statement to a judge.

D.

The defendant made a false statement that was material to the proceeding.

Question 18

Which of the following statements regarding using front businesses as a method of laundering money is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

Front businesses are a favored method because it is easy to match the costs associated with providing customers food, liquor, and entertainment with the revenues produced.

B.

Bars, restaurants, and nightclubs are commonly used as front businesses because these venues tend to charge relatively low prices and customers rarely vary in their purchases.

C.

Front businesses can often be detected because these businesses have a large number of customers during peak operating hours and high income.

D.

A front business that conducts legitimate business can provide cover for delivery and transportation related to illegal activity.

Question 19

Which of the following statements concerning front businesses as a method of laundering money is the LEAST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

A red flag of a front business is the observation of a large number of customers during peak operating hours

B.

Front businesses provide cover for delivery and transportation related to illegal activity

C.

From criminals ' perspective a disadvantage to front businesses is that they generally must pay taxes on the illicit income

D.

Front businesses benefit launderers by providing a safe place to manage criminal activities

Question 20

Which of the following typically does NOT need to be present for communications between an attorney and the attorney ' s client to be protected by a legal professional privilege?

Options:

A.

Communication between a legal advisor and a client

B.

Purpose of the communications was to seek or provide legal advice

C.

Intent to keep the communications confidential

D.

A lawsuit has been filed

Question 21

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the UK Bribery Act?

Options:

A.

Like the FCPA, the UK Bribery Act contains an explicit exception for facilitating payments.

B.

If an organization ' s anti-corruption program complies with the FCPA, then it will also comply with the UK Bribery Act.

C.

The UK Bribery Act has a broader application than the FCPA because it makes commercial bribery a crime.

D.

Unlike the FCPA, the UK Bribery Act makes it a crime to bribe a foreign public official in connection with international business transactions.

Question 22

Countries A and B both follow the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations concerning cross-border transfers of currency Trevor is traveling from Country A to Country B while carrying $16,000 in cash which exceeds Country B ' s reporting threshold Trevor is required to disclose the amount of currency he is carrying to authorities in Country B.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 23

Davis is an employee at Waccamaw Homeplace a publicly traded corporation Davis knows that Waccamaw is about to publicly announce a new joint venture project in China, so he buys shares of Waccamaw stock Assuming that his conduct was illegal m the jurisdiction in which he works and resides, what type of crime did Davis MOST LIKELY commit?

Options:

A.

Churning

B.

Futures fraud

C.

Insider trading

D.

Trading on margin

Question 24

A company files a civil lawsuit against one of its directors for insider trading. At the end of the trial, a court orders the director to refrain from purchasing or obtaining the stock of a particular corporation. Which of the following BEST describes this type of remedy?

Options:

A.

Punitive damages

B.

Declaratory relief

C.

Injunction

D.

Monetary relief

Question 25

Which of the following statements concerning alternative remittance systems is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

The systems are not necessarily illegal.

B.

Funds are sent and received without the use of traditional financial institutions.

C.

The systems are characterized by a lack of physical or digital transfer of currency between payers and payees.

D.

The ledgers used typically contain information regarding payers and payees, such as names and account numbers.

Question 26

In jurisdictions that allow for corporate criminal liability, which of the following is typically required for the corporation to be vicariously liable for the acts of one of its employees?

Options:

A.

The employee committed the offense with the intention of personal benefit.

B.

The employee was acting outside the scope of their employment.

C.

Management was directly involved in the underlying offense.

D.

An employee of the corporation committed each element of a criminal offense.

Question 27

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about the circumstances under which a conflict of interest claim would be actionable against an agent?

Options:

A.

The agent must have purported to act on behalf of or as an agent for an identified principal

B.

The agent must have had an undisclosed interest m a matter that could influence their professional role

C.

The agent must have informed the principal of their actions

D.

The agent must have been authorized by someone with actual authority to carry out the transaction at issue

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT required for a contract transaction or scheme to be classified as an investment contract?

Options:

A.

The expectation of making a profit

B.

Profits derived solely from the investor ' s management activity

C.

investment m a common enterprise

D.

An investment of money or other asset

Question 29

Which of the following is NOT a legal element that must be shown to prove a claim for fraudulent misrepresentation of material facts?

Options:

A.

The victim relied on the misrepresentation

B.

The defendant acted negligently

C.

The defendant made a false statement (i, e., a misrepresentation of fact)

D.

The victim suffered damages as a result of the misrepresentation

Question 30

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding criminal proceedings and discovery in adversarial jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Most criminal proceedings are divided into pretrial, investigative and trial phases

B.

Parties typically cannot request evidence from each other until after the trial begins.

C.

The majority of criminal discovery usually occurs before the trial begins.

D.

The judge is the primary driver of the discovery process in criminal proceedings.

Question 31

Which of the following statements concerning the appointment of expert witnesses at that is accurate?

Options:

A.

Generally, the court appoints the primary expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions.

B.

Generally, only the parties may select expert witnesses in inquisitor jurisdictions

C.

Generally the court selects the primary expert witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions

D.

Generally, only the parties may select experts to introduce testimony in adversarial jurisdictions

Question 32

Which of the following describes the purpose of an expert witness testimony at trial?

Options:

A.

To offer an opinion as to a party ' s guilt or innocence

B.

To give a firsthand account of the fads of the case on the record

C.

To give an opinion when the fact finder needs specialized knowledge

D.

None of the above

Question 33

According to the best practices regarding large cash transactions with customers as provided by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations, which of the following transactions would require a report to be filed with the government?

Options:

A.

A domestic cash deposit into a bank of a sum that is below the jurisdiction ' s designated threshold.

B.

A single cash purchase of restaurant supplies for a sum that is above the jurisdiction ' s designated threshold.

C.

A single cash purchase of casino credits for a sum that is above the jurisdiction ' s designated threshold.

D.

All of the above.

Question 34

One of the purposes of securities regulation is to maintain market confidence.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 35

Which of the following statements concerning fact finders in criminal trials in common law jurisdictions is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

The presence of a jury is always required to make factual findings in a common law criminal trial

B.

A panel of a professional judge and lay judges usually serves as the fact finder in serious cases

C.

A judge is typically responsible for factual findings

D.

Juries usually serve as the fact finder in serious cases

Question 36

Claude stole a large amount of cash from his employer and then deposited the funds into a domestic bank account Next, he wired the illicit funds to a foreign bank account and engaged m several other transactions using foreign accounts to make them difficult to trace Finally, he transferred the funds back to a domestic account and then spent the money. Which of the following actions was the layering stage of Claude ' s money laundering scheme?

Options:

A.

When he first deposited the funds into a domestic account

B.

When he first stole the cash from his employer

C.

When he moved the funds through several transactions using foreign accounts

D.

When he spent the money

Question 37

Wilson, a Certified Fraud Examiner and Garcia both work for ABC Corp., a private company that operates in a jurisdiction with civil laws against privacy violations, defamation, and similar offenses. ABC’s president tells Wilson to investigate and search Garcia’s private tablet even though Garcia is not suspected of any wrongdoing. Assuming Wilson conducted the search without legitimate interest or authority and Garcia had a reasonable expectation of privacy, under which of the following claims would Garcia MOST LIKELY be able to recover damages from Wilson and ABC?

Options:

A.

Public disclosure of private facts

B.

Property damage

C.

Defamation

D.

Intrusion into an individual’s private matters

Question 38

Which of the following statements about the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) s TRUE?

Options:

A.

IOSCO is a self-regulatory organization for companies that have securities traded on international securities markets

B.

IOSCO provides a forum for regular cooperation on banking supervisory matters affecting developing nations

C.

IOSCO is an oversight body responsible for issuing and enforcing regulations that govern all international securities markets

D.

IOSCO is recognized as the international standard-setter for securities markets

Question 39

Cindi, a U.S. resident, is conducting an advance-fee fraud scheme. As part of the scheme, Cindi uses the U.S. mail system to send advertisements to potential victims in China. If the U.S. government prosecutes Cindi, which of the following would most likely be the basis for the charges?

Options:

A.

Wire fraud

B.

Mail fraud

C.

Communications fraud

D.

Interstate fraud

Question 40

In most countries employers must provide notice to their employees before they implement an employee monitoring program

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 41

__________ insurance is a type of insurance under which an insured entity is covered against losses caused by the dishonest or fraudulent acts of its employees.

Options:

A.

Fidelity

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Opportunity

D.

Residual risk

Question 42

Which of the following would be direct evidence that an employee committed a cash larceny scheme that resulted in the theft of $800 from their employer ' s safe?

Options:

A.

A coworker states that the employee appeared to be nervous on the day of the theft.

B.

A diagram is used to display the location of the employer ' s safe.

C.

A witness testifies that they saw the employee take the money.

D.

A witness testifies that the employee was usually the last person to leave the office.

Question 43

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development’s (OECD) Recommendation on Combating Bribery in International Business (the Recommendation) urges member states to combat the bribery of foreign public officials by improving which of the following primary areas within their respective infrastructures?

Options:

A.

Public safety systems and regulations

B.

Laws related to criminal jurisdiction

C.

Requirements and practices related to public health

D.

Banking and accounting requirements and practices

Question 44

According to the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development’s OECD Recommendation on Combating Bribery in International Business, member states are encouraged to combat the bribery of foreign public officials by improving which of the following primary areas within their respective infrastructures?

Options:

A.

Initiatives related to stronger data protection

B.

Criminal, civil, commercial, and administrative laws

C.

E-commerce business practices and regulations

D.

Regulations related to the public’s health and safety

Question 45

Which of the following statements concerning money services businesses (MSBs) is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

MSBs tend to have a tower money laundering risk than other financial institutions.

B.

MSBs are generally less strictly regulated than traditional financial institutions.

C.

A check cashing company is classified as an MSB.

D.

A currency exchange is classified as an MSB.

Question 46

Slater has been appointed as a bankruptcy administrator. According to the recommendations of the World Bank Principles for Effective Insolvency and Creditor/Debtor Regimes (World Bank Principles), which of the following statements concerning Slater ' s role as bankruptcy administrator is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

Slater may investigate all contracts the debtor entered into, but he does not have the power to cancel them without the debtor ' s permission.

B.

Slater may request relevant information from the debtor ' s agents or others with knowledge of the debtor ' s affairs, but he cannot force them to provide it.

C.

Slater may collect, preserve, and dispose of the debtor ' s property.

D.

Slater may not interfere with contracts signed by the debtor.

Question 47

Which of the following is most likely to affect the rights that an employee may have during an internal investigation?

Options:

A.

The length of the employee ' s tenure at the organization

B.

Whether the employee has signed a noncompetition agreement

C.

Whether the employee has signed a union contract

D.

The likelihood of the employee ' s guilt or innocence

Question 48

Management at ABC Org. suspects that Marcia, an employee in charge of negotiating vendor contracts, has a conflict of interest. For ABC Org. ' s conflict-of-interest claim to be actionable, which of the following scenarios must be TRUE?

Options:

A.

The alleged conflict must have resulted in a direct personal benefit for Marcia.

B.

Marcia must have failed to disclose that she had a personal or economic interest in a matter that could influence her professional role.

C.

Marcia must have informed the organization that she had a connection to one or more of the vendors with whom she was negotiating.

D.

The alleged conflict must have resulted in a financial loss for the organization.

Question 49

Amanda works for a government contractor. She informs the government that her employer has been submitting false claims to the government for payment. Later, it is discovered that Amanda misappropriated more than $150,000 of her employer’s money. Amanda qualifies as a whistleblower entitled to anti-retaliation protection under the law because of her report to the government. Which of the following statements about Amanda is correct?

Options:

A.

The employer can terminate Amanda for misappropriating funds.

B.

The employer cannot terminate Amanda for any reason.

C.

The employer can terminate Amanda for making the report to the government.

D.

None of the above.

Question 50

Leslie, a business owner, submits tax information regarding her company ' s finances to her country ' s taxing authority. The taxing authority allows companies to subtract the cost of production from their gross sales to determine the taxable income. To reduce her tax liability, Leslie inflates the costs of production on her tax forms. Which of the following schemes has Leslie MOST LIKELY committed?

Options:

A.

A value-added tax evasion scheme

B.

A falsified tax deduction scheme

C.

A sales tax scheme

D.

A tax credit evasion scheme

Question 51

Which of the following typically does NOT have to be present for communications between an attorney and the attorney ' s client to be protected by a legal professional privilege?

Options:

A.

Purpose of the communications was to seek or provide legal advice

B.

A lawsuit has been filed

C.

Intent to keep the communications confidential

D.

Communication between a legal advisor and a client

Question 52

Which of the following is a red flag that an entity is operating a security business without the proper license or registration?

Options:

A.

The entity ' s website contains detailed background information.

B.

There is an unexplained absence of customer complaints against the entity.

C.

There are justified gaps in the work history of promoters at the entity

D.

The agents working at the entity have criminal records.

Question 53

During a bankruptcy bustout scheme, or planned bankruptcy, the debtor committing the fraud typically performs which of the following actions?

Options:

A.

Colludes with creditors and the trustee to pay some creditors but not ethers

B.

Bribes a trustee to overlook assets in the debtor ' s possession

C.

Conspires with suppliers to produce fraudulent invoices

D.

Purchases large quantities of goods on credit

Question 54

Evidence that tends to make some fact that is in dispute more or less likely than it would be without the evidence is called:

Options:

A.

Authentic evidence

B.

Relevant evidence

C.

Direct evidence

D.

Real evidence

Question 55

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to affect the rights that an employee may have during an internal investigation?

Options:

A.

The likelihood that the case will eventually go to trial.

B.

The existence of a collective bargaining agreement.

C.

The amount of evidence that the employer possesses.

D.

The length of the employee ' s tenure at the organization.

Question 56

Company A sued Company B to recover damages tor the breach of a contract. In the same proceeding Company B sought damages for an allegation that Company A fraudulently induced Company B into entering the contract In this case what would Company B ' s claim against Company A be called?

Options:

A.

Cross-claim

B.

Collateral attack

C.

Reversal

D.

Counterclaim

Question 57

XYZ Company sued Faith to recover damages based on a claim of misappropriation of funds. In the same civil proceeding, Faith sued XYZ for false imprisonment that allegedly occurred during an interview. In this situation, the claim by Faith against XYZ Company can BEST be described as a:

Options:

A.

Reverse action

B.

Parallel proceeding

C.

Counterclaim

D.

Cross-claim

Question 58

Which of the following statements regarding the qualifications of expert witnesses in most adversarial jurisdictions is correct?

Options:

A.

The qualification of an expert is primarily based on educational accomplishments.

B.

An expert is not qualified to testify unless all parties involved in the litigation approve.

C.

Certification in a specific field is not usually a factor that would help qualify an expert.

D.

A person can be qualified to testify based on special training or experience.

Question 59

Which of the following statements about civil actions in most jurisdictions is correct?

Options:

A.

The plaintiff’s complaint must typically contain a copy of all documents that might be relevant to the case.

B.

Civil actions begin with the filing of a pleading, usually in the jurisdiction where the defendant resides or where the claim originated.

C.

The plaintiff’s complaint does not need to state the grounds for legal relief.

D.

All of the above are correct.

Question 60

Each of the following is a common legal defense for tax evasion EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The taxpayer relied on an attorney or accountant.

B.

The taxpayer has filed for bankruptcy.

C.

The taxpayer has a mental illness.

D.

There is no tax deficiency.

Question 61

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about rules prohibiting securities broker-dealers from making unsuitable recommendations on investments or investment strategies?

Options:

A.

A suitability violation occurs when a broker does not carry out a trade requested by or promised to a customer

B.

A suitability violation occurs when a broker recommends an investment or investment strategy that is inconsistent with the client ' s objectives

C.

A suitability violation occurs when a broker trades in a client ' s account without obtaining prior approval for making the transaction(s).

D.

A suitability violation occurs when a broker enters into transactions and manages a client ' s account for the purpose of generating excessive commissions

Question 62

Each day, Rachel purchases $14 500 in bearer instruments with cash from a bank where all currency transactions above 515,000 must be reported to the government Rachets actions are a red flag of which of the following schemes ' ?

Options:

A.

Channel stuffing

B.

Alternative remittance system

C.

Structuring

D.

Real estate laundering

Question 63

Which of the following is a red flag that might be indicative of an entity operating a security business without the proper license or registration?

Options:

A.

There are justified gaps in the work history of promoters at the entity.

B.

The entity is known to have a history of regulatory problems.

C.

There is a lack of customer complaints against the entity.

D.

The entity ' s website contains detailed background information.

Question 64

Which of the following is NOT a right of the accused under the United Nations ' (UN) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)?

Options:

A.

Right of the accused to be informed of criminal charges

B.

Right to be presumed innocent until proven guilty

C.

Right to a trial by jury

D.

Freedom from arbitrary arrests

Question 65

Which of the following statements concerning money services businesses MSBs is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

A depository investment bank is classified as an MSB.

B.

A currency exchange is classified as an MSB.

C.

MSBs are generally at a lower risk of money laundering than consumer banks.

D.

MSBs generally have stricter regulations than other financial institutions.

Demo: 65 questions
Total 217 questions