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ACAMS CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 118 questions
Total 395 questions

Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Question 1

The new KYC lead at a bank is particularly focused on enhancing the risk management component of its KYC program and refers to the Basel Committee's customer due diligence (CDD) principles.

Which of the following describe key improvements to a KYC program established in the Basel Committee's CDD principles? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Implementation of a blacklist of correspondent customers with previously detected and investigated suspicious activity

B.

Enhancement of a customer acceptance policy to more clearly identify high-risk customers

C.

Increased frequency of training provided to front office employees

D.

Enhancement of customer identification procedures to appropriately identify trust, nominee, and fiduciary accounts

Question 2

Which of the following is a broader risk specific to casinos and gambling?

Options:

A.

Low thresholds for transactions

B.

Frequent use of cash

C.

Cross-border transactions

D.

Weak KYC policies and procedures

Question 3

What is the primary advantage of using a risk-based approach in allocating compliance resources?

Options:

A.

It reduces the overall cost of compliance programs.

B.

It eliminates the need for periodic audits of low-risk customers.

C.

It ensures focus on high-risk areas while maintaining operational efficiency.

D.

It standardizes compliance processes across all regions.

Question 4

Which of the below is a core function of a financial intelligence unit (FIU) as described in FATF Recommendation 29?

Options:

A.

Sponsoring the research and development of advanced technological surveillance tools to be used nationally

B.

Prosecuting significant cases of money laundering or terrorist financing falling under national jurisdiction

C.

Sharing real-time criminal intelligence gathered from national law enforcement agencies with the private sector

D.

Serving as a national center for the collection and analysis of suspicious activity

Question 5

Tax evasion is:

Options:

A.

a deliberate attempt not to pay the tax which is due or obliged.

B.

bending the rules to pay less tax than required.

C.

not an important crime as it does not impact society.

D.

a sophisticated process which always means the same as tax avoidance.

Question 6

Which role within private banking has the best placement to identify and report money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Relationship manager

C.

Operations manager

D.

Compliance officer

Question 7

Which of the following describes a role of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?

Options:

A.

Oversight of the Financial Intelligence Units in FATF Member countries

B.

Providing a unique platform for information exchange regarding anti-money laundering efforts

C.

Regulation of financial markets through directives and executive orders

D.

Enhancement of international cooperation to foster anti-money laundering efforts via recommendations and guidance

Question 8

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities. Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

B.

exchange strategic information between FlUs and obliged entities

C.

exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

Question 9

Which line of defense would be tasked with interpreting new AML regulations and revising training for client-facing relationship managers?

Options:

A.

The first line

B.

The second line

C.

Senior management

D.

The third line

Question 10

Risks associated with real estate transactions include (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases.

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person.

C.

paying true market price for a property.

D.

non-financed purchases.

Question 11

Which non-governmental bodies typically issue information and guidance related to AML/CFT issues? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Wolfsberg Group

B.

Transparency International

C.

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

D.

Tax Justice Network

Question 12

When deciding on the frequency of periodic customer due diligence (CDD) refresh, firms should foremost consider the:

Options:

A.

Risk profile of customers

B.

Available level of automation for the process

C.

Operational burden of periodic refresh implementation

D.

Cost of implementation

Question 13

Which of the following are AML risks associated with onboarding a high-risk customer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Enhanced customer due diligence requirements

B.

Greater potential for laundering illicit proceeds

C.

Reduced regulatory scrutiny compared to low-risk customers

D.

Increased likelihood of engaging in financial crimes

Question 14

What is the primary purpose of anti-bribery and corruption regulations?

Options:

A.

To prohibit the payment of anything of value by persons or entities to government officials or employees of state-owned enterprises to obtain an improper business advantage

B.

To prohibit the conversion of illegally obtained money into legal money by senior government figures

C.

To protect against election interference by corrupt foreign adversaries facilitated by illicit funds

D.

To protect against the use of illegal means by senior political figures to avoid paying taxes

Question 15

Which should be provided to the board of directors or designated specialized committee when preparing suspicious activity reports (SARs)?

Options:

A.

Statistical data regarding SARs filed during the reported period

B.

All possible details of SARs filed during the reported period

C.

Copies of all SARs filed during the reported period

D.

Names of all customers subject to SARs filed during the reported period

Question 16

Common risks associated with cryptocurrency and convertible virtual currencies include: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Funds being stolen from other users

B.

Difficulty converting into physical currency

C.

Obscuring the source of illicit funds

D.

Facilitating payment for other illicit activities and goods

E.

Layering transactions to hide the origin of funds derived from illicit activity

Question 17

Which key performance indicators (KPIs) should be considered in the context of ML/TF transaction monitoring? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Number of days required to hire new staff

B.

Number of alerts raised for review or reporting

C.

Number of alerts by region

D.

Number of transactions by top customers

E.

Average time to review an alert

Question 18

Which statement best describes an organizational challenge for law enforcement agencies and Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) when conducting cross-border money laundering (ML) investigations?

Options:

A.

Defining a common communication approach and language between all involved parties.

B.

Delays in the investigation due to a foreign FIU awaiting the results of queries performed by third parties.

C.

Conducting an investigation in all countries through which ML funds were transferred when one or more of the countries do not have an FIU.

D.

Investigations which involve high-ranking politicians, who often have influence over the local FIU.

Question 19

The primary objectives of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) are to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

evaluate and monitor compliance with the FATF standards and provide recommendations for improvement.

B.

assist countries in implementing EU, UN, and regional sanctions regimes.

C.

develop and promote international standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing.

D.

conduct investigations on countries legislations and laws to prevent them from being used for money laundering and terrorist financing.

E.

ensure that countries follow its laws to maintain financial stability.

Question 20

Which customer actions are red flags for virtual currency peer-to-peer transactions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A customer receives funds from a popular decentralized mixer

B.

A customer uses funds from their monthly income to purchase virtual currency

C.

A customer makes a transaction on the blockchain that their traditional financial institution is unaware of

D.

A customer receives multiple wires from different sources and uses those funds to purchase virtual currency

Question 21

The law enforcement agency (LEA) of a foreign jurisdiction contacts a financial institution (FI) regarding one of the FI's clients. The LEA advises that the client is currently wanted for prosecution as a result of a series of human trafficking charges.

What should the FI do? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inform local LEA and regulator of the request for awareness

B.

Close the client's accounts immediately to avoid any undue risk

C.

Review the client's activity, determine if suspicious activity exists, and report accordingly

D.

Advise the LEA that the government needs to be contacted for extradition

E.

Comply immediately with the foreign jurisdiction and turn over all client information

Question 22

Which persons must always comply with all Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) regulations? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Permanent US resident aliens regardless of location

B.

Merchants that offer US-origin goods for sale regardless of location

C.

Non-US financial institutions that offer accounts in USD regardless of location

D.

US citizens regardless of location

E.

US incorporated entities and their foreign branches

Question 23

Based on the AML principles outlined by the Wolfsberg Group, what do private and correspondent banks have in common when monitoring for terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

Cash access from a pre-paid card increases the potential that the card will be used for money laundering purposes.

B.

Transaction monitoring examines the relationship between due diligence information and account closings.

C.

Account and transactional activity are monitored after the proper identification and verification of customers.

D.

Numbered or alternate name accounts will only be accepted if the bank has established the identity of the client and beneficial owner.

Question 24

A financial crimes risk appetite statement describes:

Options:

A.

how an organization defines Its risk-based approach.

B.

how an organization determines its key risk and performance indicators.

C.

the level and type of risk the organization is willing to take to meet its objectives

D.

the purpose of an organization's financial crimes compliance program.

Question 25

Red flags for potential money laundering in real estate include completing luxury real estate purchases. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

using shell companies or trusts for privacy, lax planning, or asset protection.

B.

in the names of unrelated thud patties.

C.

using the proceeds from selling a prior property or liquidating investments to make an all-cash purchase

D.

using legal entities and intermediaries to protect the privacy of the purchasers.

E.

using loans backed by cash or certificates of deposit.

Question 26

A bank in the Netherlands has been requested to share information about a series of transactions and related customers with a bank in Italy. Both banks are subject to European Union jurisdiction.

Which factor is the most important to consider before the Dutch bank shares the requested information with the Italian bank?

Options:

A.

The Dutch bank should limit any information sharing to what is necessary, reasonable, and proportionate, in line with applicable laws and regulations

B.

The Dutch bank's legal obligations to protect customer privacy and bank secrecy prohibit it from sharing any such information

C.

The Dutch bank should require a production order from the Italian bank and receive approval from its legal department before sharing the requested information

D.

The need to fight financial crime outweighs the EU's data protection and privacy regulations

Question 27

Which of the following programs would most likely be considered part of an effective supervision regime for a regulator?

Options:

A.

Onsite and offsite reviews, cooperating on an international basis with access to a range of sanctions and outreach

B.

Onsite and offsite reviews, cooperating on an international and domestic basis with access to a range of sanctions and outreach

C.

Offsite reviews, cooperating on a domestic basis with access to a range of sanctions and outreach

D.

Onsite reviews, cooperating on an international and domestic basis with outreach and access to a range of sanctions

Question 28

From an international standards perspective both the EU and Financial Action Task Force (FATF) consider data sharing a crucial component of effective anti-money laundenng measures because data sharing:

Options:

A.

allows Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) to enact sanctions against perpetrators of financial crime

B.

promotes financial transparency and protects the integrity of the financial systems

C.

needs to be approved by the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) before sharing between financial institutions

D.

helps financial institutions to be more effective in fighting crime with data analysis

Question 29

How do national risk assessments (NRAs) and sectoral risk assessments influence a financial institution’s (FI’s) internal AML/CFT risk assessment?

Options:

A.

An FI must demonstrate that the risks identified in its AML/CFT risk assessment are aligned with the NRA and sectoral risk assessments and that these risks are managed effectively

B.

If a sectoral risk assessment is published, the FI must implement it directly across all subsidiaries and branches without modification

C.

An FI’s AML/CFT risk assessment must be written and approved by the board of directors exactly as specified in the NRA and sectoral risk assessment

D.

An FI must strictly adopt the exact risk factors, weightings, and methodologies from the NRA and sectoral risk assessment without adjustment

Question 30

An employee at a financial institution (FI) suspects that one of their co-workers is involved in a financial investment scam syndicate.

Which step should be taken next by the employee who has the suspicion?

Options:

A.

Conduct an open-source intelligence investigation using artificial intelligence tools to gain more information on the activities of the suspected employee

B.

Use the FI's whistleblowing channel to report the suspected employee

C.

Question their co-worker to determine if their suspicions are correct before reporting to the FI's Human Resources department

D.

Warn colleagues and customers of the FI that the employee's suspicious financial investment proposals could be a scam

E.

Report the suspected employee to the line manager of the FI to take the required action

Question 31

A national risk assessment (NRA) can impact the risk-based approach (RBA) within an organization's anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program by: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

helping to identify high-risk sectors that require enhanced due diligence (EDO),

B.

eliminating the need for sectoral risk assessments within the organization

C.

guiding the allocation of resources for mitigating financial crime risks

D.

requiring all organizations to apply standardized measures

E.

automatically reducing the organization's responsibility for conducting its own risk assessment

Question 32

Which statement regarding data privacy is the most accurate in the context of AML investigations?

Options:

A.

Organizations are required to demonstrate that customers have opted into information sharing before submitting suspicious activity reports to relevant financial intelligence units (FIUs)

B.

Any customer that is the subject of a suspicious report filing has the right to request redaction of their personal data

C.

FIUs should document purposes for which personal data included on suspicious activity reports may be shared with other agencies

D.

Data privacy laws prohibit information sharing between financial institutions for the purposes of AML investigations in all jurisdictions

Question 33

When selecting an anti-financial crime (AFC) tool for an organization, the most important factor to consider is whether the tool:

Options:

A.

integrates seamlessly with existing systems and processes.

B.

meets budget and cost requirements.

C.

automates all regulatory reporting requirements.

D.

replaces manual compliance training for employees.

Question 34

Which criminal activities could possibly serve as a predicate offense to financial crimes or money laundering activity? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Assault

B.

Arson

C.

Bribery or corruption

D.

Fraud

E.

Organized crime or racketeering

Question 35

The compliance department of a casino is reviewing recent transactions and has identified activities that may require further scrutiny.

Which transaction would require further investigation?

Options:

A.

A patron who regularly visits the casino, deposits small amounts of cash, and consistently requests to cash out winnings in high-value checks

B.

A group of tourists who buy chips with credit cards and engage in high-stakes games before cashing out

C.

A player who purchases USD 50,000 in chips using a combination of cash and a wire transfer from an international account, does not gamble, and then cashes out

D.

An occasional visitor who plays low-stakes games using a prepaid debit card linked to a foreign account

Question 36

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

Question 37

A law enforcement action alleged that on several trading days over the course of two months, defendants engaged in a series of copper gold, crude oil. and natural gas futures transactions on an electronic trading platform One defendant repeatedly bought future contracts at low prices from the other, and then immediately sold them back at higher prices. As a result, one defendant effectively pocketed the same amount as the other lost even though there were no changes in the open positions held by either defendant.

What is a name for this typology?

Options:

A.

Short position

B.

Reverse flip

C.

Bid-ask spread

D.

Wash trading

Question 38

Which types of external data sources are expected to be used for screening customers as part of customer due diligence (CDD)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Customer feedback and online review platforms

B.

Social media profiles to assess lifestyle and spending habits

C.

Sanctions lists, including those issued by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)

D.

Registers of stolen or forged documents (where available)

E.

Beneficial ownership registers and adverse media sources

Question 39

Which of the following indicators of potentially suspicious activity are commonly associated with high-risk business sectors and structures such as shell companies? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Knowing the goods or services, if identified, do not match the profile of the company or the nature of the financial activity

B.

All payments are in smaller amounts below reporting thresholds but are high when aggregated while still being consistent with standard business practices

C.

A company regularly conducts large-volume transactions in a medium-risk jurisdiction with longstanding business partners and provides complete documentation and audit trails

D.

Insufficient or no information is available to identify originators or beneficiaries of funds transfers through searches or direct inquiries

E.

Payments have no stated purpose, do not reference goods or services, or only reference a contract or invoice number

Question 40

A large international bank's chief compliance officer (CCO) is exploring ways to enhance the bank's ability to identify suspicious activities by using intelligence data more effectively. One potential solution is to engage in public-private partnerships (PPPs) to leverage shared intelligence and enhance collaboration with government agencies.

The bank considers joining a PPP initiative with the local Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) and other financial institutions to improve its access to relevant data and intelligence. The CCO understands that while PPPs can provide significant benefits, such as improved risk detection and enhanced information sharing, there are also potential limitations, including data privacy concerns and differing priorities between public and private sector partners.

Which approach would best maximize the benefits of PPPs for the bank while mitigating the limitations associated with data sharing and intelligence?

Options:

A.

Engage in the PPP without strict data sharing protocols, allowing for open and unrestricted flow of information between the bank, FIUs, and other financial institutions

B.

Rely solely on the intelligence provided by government agencies through the PPP because they have the most comprehensive data on suspicious activities

C.

Establish a clear framework within the PPP that outlines data privacy protections and ensures that information sharing complies with legal and regulatory requirements in all jurisdictions involved

D.

Prioritize the bank’s internal data sources over external intelligence from PPPs, as internal data is easier to control and does not present data privacy challenges

Question 41

Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

increased reputation risk.

B.

inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.

C.

civil and criminal penalties

D.

delisting of public filing status.

Question 42

A large international financial institution (FI) operates in both the United States and the European Union. A cross-border transaction involving a high-net-worth client with dual U.S. and French citizenship raises concerns due to a third-party intermediary in a high-risk jurisdiction.

Given that the transaction falls under the U.S. Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) and OFAC requirements, as well as the EU’s 6th Anti-Money Laundering Directive (6AMLD) and European Banking Authority (EBA) regulations, what is the best approach for the compliance team to ensure compliance?

Options:

A.

Follow EU regulations only, as the beneficiary is based in France

B.

Implement a dual-compliance approach satisfying both U.S. and EU AFC regulations

C.

Defer to the most stringent regulatory regime to streamline compliance

D.

Follow U.S. regulations only, as the transaction originates in the United States

Question 43

How canawareness be raisedwithincountries that do not have sanctions regulatory regimes? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Restrict trade between countries that have robust AML/CFT and sanctions regulatory regimes and those that do not.

B.

AFC (Anti-Financial Crime) and sanctions-related seminars, webinars, and training within these countries.

C.

Enforcement and pecuniary fines against these countries.

D.

Bilateral conversations and cooperation between governments.

Question 44

The financial industry relies heavily on rules-based approaches to transaction monitoring to detect suspicious activities.

Scenario-based systems use technology and algorithms to identify: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

fraudulent identities involving stolen or manufactured identification.

B.

suspicious behavior involving a transaction that occurs at an unusual time of day.

C.

hidden beneficial owners.

D.

transaction patterns involving transactions that exceed a certain dollar amount.

E.

anomalies involving a transaction that occurs in a location far away from the customer's usual spending patterns.

Question 45

A financial institution has received complaints about friction in the onboarding process when additional information is requested.

Which potential solutions could help ensure a better customer onboarding experience with reduced friction? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Implement internal or external tools that streamline onboarding processes

B.

Implement new processes only once every three years to ensure consistency

C.

Ensure consistent training of all employees on new processes, policies, and tools

D.

Ensure that only team leads or managers have decision-making power

Question 46

According to PinCEN. when a financial institution (PI) identities a suspicious activity that necessitates suspicious activity report (SAR) filing, the SAR supporting documentation should (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

include all documents or records that assisted the Fl in making the determination that the activity required a filing.

B.

always be limited to account name, account details, and transaction records.

C.

have written policies and procedures to maintain supporting documentation.

D.

be saved in a single separate file with hard copies stored in a fireproof cabinet.

Question 47

A wealthy individual is using a complex corporate structure to facilitate illegal logging and then illegal mining of the resulting resources from that land.

Which category of predicate crime is taking place?

Options:

A.

Trade-based money laundering

B.

Corruption

C.

Illicit resource trade

D.

Environmental crime

Question 48

Which of the following statements is true regarding Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Sanctions can only be placed on certain individuals in foreign countries as designated by OFAC

B.

Blocked funds must be placed into an interest-bearing account on a financial institution's books

C.

Sanctions can be either comprehensive or selective using the blocking of assets and trade restrictions to accomplish foreign policy and national security goals

D.

OFAC sanctions automatically expire after five years unless renewed by Congress

Question 49

Which of the following statements is true regarding tipping off?

Options:

A.

Tipping off is an obligation only applied to AFC professionals and bank staff because they are required to file a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).

B.

Tipping off is a criminal act whereby confidential information about a financial crime investigation is disclosed in an unauthorized manner to a third party who may be the subject of the investigation or able to prejudice it.

C.

Tipping off is not committed when detailed inquiries are made with a customer whose transactions have been flagged by a transaction monitoring system.

D.

When an unusual transaction is detected, an AFC professional can instruct the relationship manager to communicate with the customer to decide whether a SAR should be filed.

Question 50

A global financial institution is conducting a comprehensive review of its due diligence processes to strengthen its defenses against financial crime. Recent incidents have highlighted vulnerabilities related to employee misconduct, including unauthorized transactions and sharing of sensitive customer information. Additionally, the FI has faced issues with third-party vendors who failed to meet compliance standards, leading to increased regulatory scrutiny.

Which of the following measures would be most effective in addressing the bank's due diligence needs for employees, vendors, and third parties to mitigate insider threats and ensure compliance with AML regulations?

Options:

A.

Relying on self-reported compliance certifications from vendors and employees to confirm adherence to AML standards on a periodic basis

B.

Establishing a surveillance program for employees, vendors, and third parties, including periodic risk assessments, access controls, and regular reviews of their compliance with AML policies

C.

Implementing background checks for employees and vendors prior to onboarding or the start of engagement to identify any red flags

D.

Limiting the number of vendors and third parties in high-risk jurisdictions in order to reduce exposure to compliance risks

Question 51

Which of the following is a primary objective of public sector groups in the fight against money laundering?

Options:

A.

Advising private financial institutions on how to enhance their profitability through AML efforts

B.

Establishing and enforcing legal frameworks to detect, prevent, and punish money laundering and related financial crimes

C.

Providing funding to private and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) for the development of advanced compliance technologies

D.

Acting as intermediaries between private sector firms and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to streamline AML compliance programs

Question 52

When a financial institution (FI) is considering providing traditional banking services to a virtual asset service provider (VASP), consideration should be given to whether the FI: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

has a general understanding of virtual assets.

B.

consistently reviews transactions between fiat and virtual currencies.

C.

implements enhanced KYC measures.

D.

owns virtual currencies itself.

Question 53

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele's high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

B.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

Question 54

An AML compliance officer is drafting plans to address deficiencies identified in an independent audit.

Which approach is the best option?

Options:

A.

Only commit to action plans that require no new investment to maximize shareholder value

B.

Draft action plans in consultation with the jurisdiction's FIU to remain aligned with other similar companies

C.

Only commit to action plans that can be implemented and closed within the three-month management reporting cycle

D.

Draft action plans to address the root cause of the deficiencies, regardless of how long they will take to fully implement

Question 55

Under the Egmont Group Principles, information exchange among financial intelligence units (FIUs) should be conducted:

Options:

A.

Without the expectation of reciprocity on how the information will be used.

B.

Only if the status of the foreign FIU is related to law enforcement.

C.

Freely, spontaneously, and upon request, on the basis of reciprocity.

D.

With set limits on the amount of financial and administrative information provided.

Question 56

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

Options:

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

Question 57

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

Question 58

Which of the below statements are supported by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) 40 Recommendations adopted in 2012? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Customer privacy regulations should guide the development of due diligence and other money laundering and terrorist financing preventive measures.

B.

Nations should work towards implementing targeted financial sanctions in alignment with the UN Security Council.

C.

Nations should take measures to ensure there is transparency to the beneficial ownership of legal persons.

D.

Nations should establish frameworks that take a risk-based approach to prevent and mitigate money laundering and terrorist financing.

E.

Governments must work toward developing identical administrative and operational frameworks for investigating and prosecuting crime.

F.

Regulators should direct Financial Institutions to establish appropriate frameworks to avoid banking higher risk customers.

Question 59

The compliance officer at a casino in Taiwan discovers that the casino received multiple cash deposits from a customer just below the Large-Amount Transaction Report (LTR) limit on consecutive days. The customer used three different betting accounts.

What is the appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Make a note in the customer's account that the customer's gambling activities are frequently conducted below the reporting limit

B.

Follow internal reporting procedures to escalate the activity as suspicious and report to appropriate authorities

C.

Inform the customer their activity Is suspicious and request an explanation

D.

Contact law enforcement to launch an Investigation into the customer's financial activities

Question 60

Which insurance product is considered the lowest risk for money laundering?

Options:

A.

Annuity contracts

B.

Permanent life insurance policies

C.

Group insurance products

D.

Cash-secured products

Question 61

A financial institution's US Branch receives a subpoena from law enforcement requesting detailed records of a customer's account activity. The customer is part of an ongoing investigation into a money laundering operation. At the same time, the institution has received a FinCEN 314(b) information-sharing request from another bank seeking details on transactions linked to the same customer. The compliance team is tasked with responding to both the subpoena and the FinCEN 314(b) request.

What should the compliance officer prioritize in responding to these requests while ensuring that all legal and regulatory obligations are met?

Options:

A.

Notify the customer of the information-sharing request from the other financial institution and seek their consent before responding

B.

Consult the institution's legal counsel to validate the subpoena, then respond directly to law enforcement while ensuring all documentation is properly recorded

C.

Respond to the FinCEN 314(b) request first, as it allows for voluntary information sharing with partner organizations

D.

Provide the requested records to both law enforcement and the other financial institution immediately to ensure full cooperation and transparency

Question 62

Which of the following statements best describes the financial crime risk associated with gatekeepers?

Options:

A.

Gatekeepers have specialized knowledge that can be abused to facilitate the movement of illicit funds and conceal the Involvement of their clients in illicit schemes.

B.

Gatekeeper positions ate of a secretive nature, often making it difficult to verify (heir source of wealth.

C.

Gatekeepers have unique relationship structures, making it difficult to determine beneficial ownership

D.

Gatekeepers are entrusted with prominent functions and code of conduct that can assist laundering Illicit funds.

Question 63

A compliance officer at a large bank has been tasked with investigating a series of unusual transactions involving a long-time customer. The customer has made several large cash deposits into multiple accounts within a short period, raising red flags. After gathering and analyzing transaction data, reviewing customer records, and cross-referencing external sources, the compliance officer determines that there is a reasonable suspicion of money laundering. As part of documenting this investigation, the compliance officer must decide how and when to escalate the matter internally and whether to file a suspicious activity report (SAR).

What is the next critical step in this process?

Options:

A.

Document the customer's transaction history and keep the investigation confidential until further suspicious activity is detected.

B.

Immediately escalate the case to senior management, recommending the closure of the customer's accounts due to potential reputational risk.

C.

Report the investigation to external auditors and await further guidance before taking any action.

D.

Draft a SAR that includes a detailed chronology of the transactions, customer background and the rationale for suspicion, and submit it to the relevant financial intelligence unit (FIU) within the regulatory timelines.

Question 64

According to Basel Committee guidelines, which level of the organization should determine whether or not to enter business relationships with higher risk customers?

Options:

A.

Account opening staff

B.

Middle management

C.

Senior management

D.

First-level management

Question 65

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

Question 66

An agent of a wealthy individual residing in Country A, which is on the EU list of high-risk third jurisdictions, approaches a notary in Country B, which is in the EU. The agent wants to complete a disposal of assets recently acquired at auction by the wealthy individual through an offshore company. The agent also has a power of attorney to act on behalf of the offshore company issued by a respectable law firm from Country C, which is also in the EU. The agent asks the notary to proceed with the disposal as quickly as possible without paying any specific attention to related costs or taxes to be paid as a result of this transaction. The notary notices the intended transfer price is significantly lower than the one recorded at auction, but the agent does not want to discuss this matter and claims that it is not covered by the power of attorney.

Which red flags should the notary consider? (Select Two)

Options:

A.

The agent requested a disposal of assets at a lower price than recently acquired.

B.

The assets acquired through an auction were put in the name of an offshore company

C.

The agent acted on behalf of an individual residing in a country which is on the EU's list of high-risk jurisdictions

D.

The power of attorney was issued by a law firm in a different EU country from where the transaction took place.

Question 67

Which services provided by an accounting firm could be considered as higher risk from a financial crime perspective? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Forming a trust on behalf of a customer with a complex setup and acting as a nominee director

B.

Auditing a firm that provides payroll software to large corporate customers

C.

Preparing financial statements for a listed or a privately owned firm

D.

Providing tax advice to an international customer hoping to move their assets out of their home country

E.

Assisting an offshore corporation from a jurisdiction with no available beneficial owner information to buy property in the UK

Question 68

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). potential risk indicators related to money laundering proceeds from environmental crimes include. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

waste management sector companies based in high-risk jurisdictions with payments or trade invoices tor types of waste aligned with those they are authorized to process.

B.

frequent payments from companies in the logging. milling, or waste trade sectors to individuals or beneficiaries unrelated to the legal parson activity or business.

C.

unexplained wealth and cash transfers involving senior officials or politically exposed persons for their family members) with a position of responsibility related to the management or preservation of natural resources.

D.

small cash transfers from cash-Intensive businesses to beneficiaries in areas known as a source of gold mining, illegal logging, and Illegal land clearing.

Question 69

Which techniques are most commonly used in a rules-based approach to transaction monitoring for detecting suspicious activities? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using predefined rules to flag specific transaction patterns

B.

Randomly flagging transactions for further investigation

C.

Statistical tuning of monitoring scenarios to improve accuracy

D.

Using advanced machine learning models to detect outliers

E.

Setting transaction thresholds for automated alerts

Question 70

Tax evasion is:

Options:

A.

The practice of minimizing tax liability by exploiting loopholes or unintended interpretations of tax law

B.

A provision that reduces taxable income as an itemized or standard deduction

C.

A specialized accounting discipline focused on lawful tax planning

D.

The non-payment or under-payment of taxes, usually by deliberately making a false declaration or no declaration to tax authorities

Question 71

A subset of financial technology (FinTech) that focuses on technologies designed to facilitate the delivery of regulatory requirements more efficiently and effectively than existing capabilities is known as:

Options:

A.

SupTech

B.

SubTech

C.

RegTech

D.

BlueTech

Question 72

A customer frequently deposits large amounts of cash into an online gambling account and requests withdrawals shortly after with minimal gambling activity.

What is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the gambling and gaming industry?

Options:

A.

The customer is attempting to convert illicit funds into “clean” withdrawals

B.

The customer is attempting to avoid high fees by minimizing gambling activity

C.

The customer is testing the gaming platform’s payout system for potential fraud

D.

The customer is a high-risk gambler who regularly places large bets

Question 73

What key element contributes to the effectiveness of AML training programs'?

Options:

A.

In-person training sessions

B.

Comprehensive curriculum delivered by senior management

C.

Comprehensive content with engaging delivery methods

D.

Generalized content designed to apply to a broad audience

Question 74

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

Options:

A.

impose sanctions to maintain or restore international peace and security.

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

Question 75

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

Question 76

What areas of laws and regulations have the greatest impact on AML/CFT applications? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Information security, data privacy, and cybersecurity

B.

Foreign exchange control, and precious gemstone and metal dealing

C.

Ombudsman and anti-competition authority

D.

Electronic contract and biological signature acceptance

E.

Consumer protection, financial inclusion, and environmental, social and governance

Question 77

Having a risk-based approach is central to a financial institution understanding the money laundering and terrorist financing risk to which they are exposed. The development of a money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment is a key starting point.

Commonly used risk factors include. (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

product risk.

B.

credit risk.

C.

geographic risk.

D.

customer risk.

E.

liquidity risk.

Question 78

Which regulation is the cornerstone of AML/CFT legislation in the United States and requires financial institutions (FIs) to establish and maintain robust AML programs, including customer identification and due diligence procedures, as well as record-keeping and reporting of certain transactions to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN)?

Options:

A.

USA PATRIOT Act

B.

Bank Secrecy Act (BSA)

C.

Money Laundering Control Act (MLCA)

D.

Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (MiCA)

Question 79

An oil exploration company based in France does business with oil refineries in Iran, which is subject to comprehensive Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions.

What type of OFAC sanctions should be imposed against the French company?

Options:

A.

List-based

B.

Secondary

C.

Country-based

D.

Sectoral

Question 80

Country A's anti-corruption authority has been investigating the movement of potential proceeds of bribery and corruption to Country B and is now preparing to take the case to a local court.

Which method of obtaining the required evidence to prosecute the case would be most effective?

Options:

A.

Make an official request directly from the head of Country A's anti-corruption authority to Country B's corresponding law enforcement authority

B.

Make a request for the required evidence using Country A's mutual legal assistance treaty with Country B

C.

Use the International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL) network to obtain the required evidence from Country B

D.

Use the Egmont Secure Web to obtain the required evidence from Country B's financial intelligence unit

Question 81

A long-term client of an insurance company makes changes to a policy that require payment of an additional lump sum. The amount payable is high, though within the client's means based on the KYC information collected. The payment is made via a company in another jurisdiction that is known to have lax AML controls.

Which indicator of suspicious activity is present?

Options:

A.

A long-term client wants a change to a policy that is already in force

B.

The payment was made via a company that appears to be owned and controlled by the client being insured

C.

The additional premium payable appears to be within the client's means based on the KYC information collected

D.

The payment was made via a company in a jurisdiction known to have lax AML controls

Question 82

Money laundering can have a profound impact on the global economy that includes:

Options:

A.

Declining money supplies

B.

Increased sectoral polarization

C.

Increased inflation and low economic growth

D.

Destabilization of legitimate governments

Question 83

Which of the following attributes would enhance an AML program's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Providing basic AML training to all employees

B.

An AML officer being appointed to the board as a working member of management with increased authority

C.

Auditors providing prescriptive guidance and support to the program following a less than satisfactory audit

D.

Providing effective challenge with AML staff and continuous cross-training

Question 84

A key advantage of privacy enhancing technologies (PETs) in anti-money laundering is that they offer:

Options:

A.

simultaneous encryption and decryption for underlying data.

B.

full access to underlying data with full and uninterrupted calculations made on the data.

C.

secure processing of data while it remains encrypted.

D.

transfer, decryption and storage of data by the data processor.

Question 85

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

Question 86

It is essential to identify any "family members" or "close associates" of politically exposed persons (PEPs) as part of the KYC/CDD process because they could be:

Options:

A.

executing cross-border transactions for their own business which is not commensurate to the PEP's wealth.

B.

in a position to provide more information regarding the PEP's whereabouts and hidden properties.

C.

travelling to offshore jurisdictions often on holiday which exposes them to higher risks for AML.

D.

used as intermediaries to facilitate bribery or corruption or to conceal the illicit wealth of the PEP.

Question 87

Trust and company service providers (TCSPs) should address money laundering risk by: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Establishing dual controls and quality assurance practices when processing transactions for the client

B.

Considering what additional safeguards may be required when client instructions are given through another TCSP located in another jurisdiction

C.

Requiring the client to complete and submit an AML risk self-assessment to the jurisdiction’s Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU)

D.

Gathering and recording information from clients to understand the purpose of the legal entity, as well as the identity of managers and ultimate beneficial owners

E.

Establishing procedures to document the basis on which the TCSP will act as a registered officer for the client and retaining records of that involvement

F.

Conducting an onsite evaluation of the client to assess internal controls

Question 88

Challenges in the implementation of new technologies for AML/CFT include: (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

data privacy.

B.

enhanced due diligence (EDD) policies.

C.

the Travel Rule.

D.

data quality.

E.

complexity.

F.

regulatory.

Question 89

Which of the following best describes the use of fuzzy logic in customer screening systems?

Options:

A.

It produces outputs that include a range of intermediate possibilities between "Yes" and "No"

B.

It is an advanced analytics tool widely used to implement AFC controls

C.

It allows for a greater number of exact matches, reducing the need for manual review

D.

It is a new technique for enhancing the quality of alerts for review

Question 90

What is the primary purpose of a risk appetite statement (RAS) in an organization and how should it be effectively communicated and implemented?

Options:

A.

An RAS defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives and should be communicated clearly to all stakeholders with corresponding controls implemented

B.

An RAS is a detailed plan for managing operational risks and does not cover strategic or financial risks

C.

An RAS is a formal document meant for regulatory compliance that does not influence day-to-day risk management practices within the organization

D.

An RAS is used to outline the risk tolerance limits to external stakeholders and does not need to be communicated within the organization

Question 91

Which attributes are typically used to assess the vulnerability to money laundering risk of products offered by an insurer? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Purpose and intended use

B.

Liquidity

C.

Age of the beneficiary

D.

Customer anonymity or third-party transactions

E.

Length of waiting period

Question 92

Which of the following is a benefit of public-private partnerships (PPP)?

Options:

A.

Sourcing of key resources

B.

Rapid exchange of information on risks and high-risk activities or persons

C.

Ensuring understanding of politically exposed persons (PEPs)

D.

Obtaining salaries in the financial industry

Question 93

Which regulation permits financial institutions, upon providing notice to the US Department of the Treasury, to share information with one another in order to identify and report activities that may involve money laundering or terrorist activity to the federal government?

Options:

A.

Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 of the European Parliament

B.

Collaborative Sharing of Money Laundering/Terrorism Financing (ML/TF) Information & Cases (COSMIC)

C.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(a)

D.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(b)

Question 94

In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:

Options:

A.

include sophisticated and automated controls that use the newest types of technology available (for example, artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning).

B.

be proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the firm, approved by senior management, and regularly reviewed

C.

be completed by the business and validated by an external firm (for example, an auditing or consulting firm)

D.

be created approved, and owned only by the First Line of Defense business team, and reviewed annually

Question 95

One key aspect of promoting an enterprise-wide compliance culture within a financial institution is that the:

Options:

A.

Relevant information should be shared throughout the organization.

B.

Revenue-generating business sectors should have precedence over compliance.

C.

First line of defense should establish its own policies independently.

D.

Cost of compliance should increase proportionately to revenues.

Question 96

Which of the following scenarios warrants enhanced due diligence (EDD)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

An existing local league footballer trying to open a bank account with a bank in their local jurisdiction

B.

The current prime minister of a country trying to open a bank account in another country

C.

The former personal secretary to the minister of transport in a low-risk country 25 years ago opening a bank account at a bank in a neighboring low-risk country

D.

A bank located in a higher risk country trying to establish a correspondent-respondent banking relationship with a bank in a lower-risk country

E.

An individual with a current bank account who resides in one country becoming the ambassador of another country

Question 97

When assessing and managing money laundering risks while operating in foreign jurisdictions different from that of the head office, an effective AML monitoring program should:

Options:

A.

Be consistent with the head office audits

B.

Be tailored to the higher of standards between the jurisdictions.

C.

Conform to the foreign jurisdiction policies to align with the head office policies.

D.

Provide all foreign jurisdiction reports to the head office for approval.

Question 98

A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance. The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.

Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

B.

The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.

C.

The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

D.

The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.

E.

The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.

Question 99

In which of the following cases can a financial institution disclose a suspicious activity report (SAR)?

Options:

A.

A court order requests the bank to disclose the SAR subject to obtaining agreement from the legal team

B.

A customer asks about potential reporting to the local Financial Intelligence Unit (Fill)

C.

An external consultant inquires about the details of the SAR

D.

A third-country police directly inquires about the customer.

Question 100

Which of the services provided by Trust and Company Service Providers (TCSPs) present the greatest financial crime risks? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Providing clear procedures to ensure compliance with local tax regulations

B.

Using trusts to obscure the identity of beneficial owners

C.

Promoting the use of complex corporate structures

D.

Maintaining accurate and updated beneficial ownership details for all customers registered for their services

E.

Establishing shell companies for holding financial assets

Question 101

Which key financial crime risks relate to the remote gambling sector specifically? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Customers not being physically present for identification purposes

B.

Customers depositing large amounts of cash

C.

Customers using anonymous prepaid cards

D.

Customers betting more than they can afford

E.

Customers making numerous low-level transactions to avoid enhanced due diligence

Question 102

Which red flags apply to trade-based money laundering (TBML) schemes? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Use of wire transfers

B.

Loitering

C.

Instructions or involvement from third parties

D.

Amended letters of credit without reasonable justification

E.

Non-standard settlement arrangements

Question 103

How should risk-related issues be addressed to ensure the effectiveness of the three lines of defense model?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the second line reviews, monitors, and escalates risk-related issues as needed to senior management while maintaining independent oversight from the third line

B.

Have senior management handle risk-related issues directly when possible because they are ultimately responsible for the organisation's overall risk management strategy

C.

Delegate some risk-related issues to the first line to avoid overwhelming the second line and to ensure operational efficiency

D.

Assign risk-related oversight duties to the third line to provide an independent review and address issues more effectively by avoiding conflicts of interest in the first and second lines

Question 104

Which of the following is a crucial step for a financial institution when leveraging regulatory reports to improve transaction monitoring? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Comparing internal data across all sectors and products referenced in the reports

B.

Systematically incorporating risks identified in the reports into the internal risk assessment

C.

Comparing regulatory reports with peer data

D.

Building or enhancing monitoring scenarios based on reported crime typologies

Question 105

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

Question 106

Which of the following are important AML controls for a compliance manager of a regulated asset management company in the European Union to implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inviting prospective customers for an onboarding interview

B.

Rejecting any politically exposed persons (PEPs) as customers

C.

Understanding the source and origin of assets

D.

Performing negative news checks of prospective customers

E.

Producing financial stability reports on interesting customers

Question 107

When services are provided by a trust and company service provider (TCSP) connected to a high-risk country, which of the following may present an immediate financial crime risk concern?

Options:

A.

Management structure

B.

Governance framework

C.

Asset structure

D.

Origin of the funds

Question 108

The compliance officer at an EU bank is investigating one of the customer accounts maintained with the bank for the last two years. According to bank records, the company's primary economic activity is import and export of petrochemical products Over a period of one year, the account transactions have exceeded US$500 million with various high-value inward wire transfers received from suppliers in Yemen followed by outward wire transfers to counterparties in Azerbaijan.

Which factor should give the compliance officer the greatest concern If observed in the investigation?

Options:

A.

Media searches reveal a report that the customer was accused of misconduct three years ago.

B.

The EU bank considers the origin and destination countries Involved in the transactions to be high-risk.

C.

The customer's activity includes multiple cross-border transactions involving various counterparties.

D.

The EU bank received no originator or beneficiary information for the wire transfers.

E.

The customer specializes in the import and export of petrochemical products.

Question 109

Which of the following statements describe the strengths associated with public-private partnerships (PPPs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Public organizations can belter understand what the private sector experiences and inform policy and the enactment of laws

B.

Data-protection privacy policies provide an opportunity to develop information sharing protocols to prevent unauthorized access to information

C.

Data-protection privacy policies prohibit the evolution of PPPs due to restrictions based on legacy government legislation

D.

Small business owners can choose third-party providers or financial institutions to keep their private data safe which can easily be shared within a PPP

Question 110

Money services businesses (MSBs), payment service providers, and e-commerce platforms usually have a high volume of daily transactions.

What are the risks associated with these types of businesses? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

These businesses are all cash intensive, increasing the risk of financial crime

B.

KYC challenges arise because e-commerce platforms face global customers making customer due diligence complex and resource intensive

C.

These businesses are highly regulated and therefore have no reason to be non-compliant as this would put them at risk of sanctions and fines

D.

Criminals can make use of identify fraud to fulfill KYC processes for layering purposes

E.

The settlement systems of these businesses are not sophisticated enough to cope with the high transaction volume

Question 111

The manager of a bank's KYC team discovers that a high-risk customer's activity was not reviewed last quarter as the bank's internal schedule required.

What should the KYC team manager do?

Options:

A.

Submit a referral to file a suspicious activity report (SAR)

B.

Evaluate the KYC review process to understand why the review did not occur as required and take corrective action as necessary

C.

Contact the customer's relationship manager to suspend account access until the periodic KYC review is completed

D.

Remove the customer from the bank's high-risk list

Question 112

A prospective client walks into an accounting firm wanting to incorporate a company. The accountant feels uncomfortable after the meeting.

Which two of the accountant's observations warrant escalation to the compliance officer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The principal activities of the proposed company are importing and exporting new furniture

B.

The prospective client presents confusing details about the proposed business and has very little knowledge about the proposed business activity

C.

The prospective client is unable to provide information about the beneficial owners

D.

The prospective client exhibits confidence when speaking to the accountant when providing personal details

E.

The prospective client is able to provide source of funds and source of wealth documents

Question 113

Customer segmentation is important for effective transaction monitoring because:

Options:

A.

All customers transact in the same way, allowing patterns to be easily spotted

B.

Customer behavior can be compared and analyzed most effectively among similar peer groups

C.

It allows a broad range of customer types to be compared in one large group

D.

It is recommended by regulators solely to prevent sanctions risk

Question 114

When a government imposes economic sanctions on a target the purpose is to:

Options:

A.

protect the rights of the citizens of the state target against their own government and improve financial stability in the region.

B.

indicate that the use of military force is likely unless the state or non-state target complies with the government's

C.

interests encourage non-governmental organizations to increase the provision of humanitarian and charitable aid to the target

D.

alter the behavior of the state or non-state target that threatens the interests of that government or violates international norms

Question 115

The Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) of a life insurance company is reviewing the product risk assessment methodology.

Which of the following attributes of life insurance products would be attributed a higher risk rating? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Annuity products with a deferred income stream

B.

Products that allow the option to change the nominated beneficiary after the commencement of the policy

C.

Products with international health insurance coverage

D.

Products that allow for a cash surrender value

E.

Products that restrict the transfer of funds from one policy to another

Question 116

Which obliged entities or gatekeepers may be required to perform customer due diligence (CDD)? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Casino security guards

B.

City court judges

C.

Notaries involved in real estate transactions

D.

Dealers in precious metals and stones

E.

Real estate agents

F.

Accountants and auditors

Question 117

Unusual wire transfer transactions can include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

wire transfers in different currencies between accounts held at different banks for the same client.

B.

an incoming third-party wire transfer followed by the purchase of real estate in the client's name.

C.

an incoming wire transfer followed by the loan payment to a third party that is a business associate of the client.

D.

multiple wire transfers sent to counterparties associated with the client as per KYC documentation.

Question 118

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence

B.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed Instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes Procedures are an overarching framework Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

Demo: 118 questions
Total 395 questions