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ACAMS CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 93 questions
Total 313 questions

Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following can be considered a reliable, independent source document, data, or information?

Options:

A.

Information provided by a prospective customer

B.

Photocopy of a copy of a government-issued identity document

C.

Information obtained from an open-source database

D.

Information obtained directly from a government-managed registry

Question 2

Which statement about the extraterritorial reach of US laws and legislation is accurate?

Options:

A.

The Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) extraterritorial reach requires that the Travel Rule be applied to all financial institutions globally, including all USD transactions

B.

The Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 (AML Act) extraterritorial reach covers all USD transactions throughout the global economy

C.

The Office of Foreign Assets Control's (OFAC's) economic and trade sanctions may pose extraterritorial risks for financial institutions and businesses outside of the US

D.

Section 319(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act extraterritorial reach permits the seizure of funds from a correspondent bank account in the US that have been opened and maintained for the foreign bank

Question 3

Which of the following are potential financial crime-related red flags when obtaining client data? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

A client frequently submits financial statements much earlier than required appearing overly eager

B.

A client insists on using a personal bank account for business transactions despite being advised otherwise

C.

A new client shows a preference for minimal direct interaction and relies primarily on indirect communication methods, citing convenience or time constraints

D.

The client is a publicly listed company but very diversified

E.

The ultimate beneficial ownership is unclear

Question 4

Professions such as lawyers, accountants, and trust and company service providers (TCSPs) are sometimes referred to as "gatekeepers" because they:

Options:

A.

often do not understand and are not covered by money laundering laws and regulations, unwittingly allowing criminals to enter the legitimate economy.

B.

are an entry point to the financial system and a first line of defense against the infiltration of illicit funds into the legitimate economy.

C.

are required under money laundering laws and regulations in all jurisdictions to stop any criminals from being able to integrate illicit funds into the legitimate economy.

D.

are high-risk actors who can deliberately allow criminals to enter the legitimate economy.

Question 5

How do nominees benefit criminals misusing thorn for money laundering purposes? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Allow beneficial owners to provide proxies lot voting on corporate decisions

B.

Obscure beneficial ownership

C.

Allow domicile in the nominee's jurisdiction

D.

Derail investigations

Question 6

During which process must a country demonstrate to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) that it has an effective framework to protect the financial system from abuse?

Options:

A.

Formal assessment

B.

Regulatory overview

C.

Technical analysis

D.

Mutual evaluation

Question 7

A law enforcement agency submits several requests to a financial institution.

Which request is legitimate and requires the bank to respond?

Options:

A.

Keep an account open upon verbal request

B.

Produce documents and testimony without a subpoena

C.

Seize privileged documents upon written request

D.

Freeze an account in terms of a court order

Question 8

The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision published guidelines on the "Sound management of risks related to money laundering and financing of terrorism."

With regard to identifying and accepting customers, it recommends that banks: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures to ensure due diligence activities are identical for all customers.

B.

Establish policies and procedures to identify and verify customers, beneficial owners, and any individuals that can transact on behalf of their customers.

C.

Establish policies and procedures for customer due diligence that vary based on risk.

D.

Are prohibited from offering numbered accounts to customers, even if procedures are established to gather and maintain due diligence information.

E.

Establish policies and procedures that encourage processing transactions while due diligence information is being established and verified.

Question 9

In which of the following cases can a financial institution disclose a suspicious activity report (SAR)?

Options:

A.

A court order requests the bank to disclose the SAR subject to obtaining agreement from the legal team

B.

A customer asks about potential reporting to the local Financial Intelligence Unit (Fill)

C.

An external consultant inquires about the details of the SAR

D.

A third-country police directly inquires about the customer.

Question 10

Which of the below would be relevant money laundering red flags for life insurance companies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Paying premium several years in advance and terminating early for a refund

B.

Natural persons having more than one insurance policy

C.

High-premium life insurances that provide high payouts

D.

Regularly switching policies and accepting penalties

E.

Beneficiary payouts to elderly people

Question 11

A bank received a subpoena regarding one of its clients. The financial intelligence unit of the bank should review the subpoena and:

Options:

A.

Close the client's account by informing the client of the subpoena.

B.

Perform a transaction review and respond fully to the subpoena.

C.

File a suspicious activity report (SAR), including the receipt of the subpoena in the SAR narrative.

D.

Adjust the client's risk score and close the case.

Question 12

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

Options:

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

Question 13

Which of the following is a broader risk specific to casinos and gambling?

Options:

A.

Low thresholds for transactions

B.

Frequent use of cash

C.

Cross-border transactions

D.

Weak KYC policies and procedures

Question 14

Which action could be taken by an organization to better understand the threats faced from proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Work with the front-line to understand their strategic growth targets specifically aimed at increasing their market share around military technology and dual-use products

B.

Review the organization's sanction risk assessment to better understand the potential for exposure to Russia and the Democratic People's Republic of Korea

C.

Read and analyze the most recent National Proliferation Financing Risk Assessment produced by the relevant body of the organization's jurisdiction

D.

Undertake a detailed review of all payment-related transactions to any clients identified as defense contractors, paying special attention to the beneficial owners of those clients

Question 15

A compliance manager at a virtual asset service provider (VASP) is evaluating its business and its impact on AML policies. Which of the following features of the VASP's business would be of greatest concern? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Allowing clients lo transact anonymity-enhanced tokens

B.

Onboardlng of clients who are residents abroad. Including those with politically exposed person (PEP) status

C.

Enabling transfer of tokens from one blockchain to another

D.

Offering services to VASPs established in jurisdictions that are not FATF compliant

E.

Operating a network of crypto ATMs charging high fees

F.

Lack of adequate IP address tracking capabilities

Question 16

A multinational corporation is considering expanding into a new market with a history of political instability and corruption.

Which strategy would be most effective in mitigating reputational risk from a financial crime perspective associated with such an expansion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the jurisdiction risks and other relevant factors have been taken into consideration in the EWRA and the residual risks are within the corporation's risk appetite

B.

Partnering with established local businesses to leverage their knowledge and connections while sharing risks

C.

Ensuring the company has strong ties with local government officials to influence policy and avoid negative scrutiny

D.

Committing to open communication, ethical practices, and community engagement to build trust with stakeholders

E.

Minimizing the company's direct presence in the country to reduce exposure to potential risks

Question 17

Common risks and red flags associated with trade finance clients may include: (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

account activity that is not consistent with the purpose of the account

B.

bills of lading matching the description of goods, quantities, and values with transshipment details justified

C.

transaction structures that appear unnecessarily complex

D.

trade documents, such as invoices and letters of credit, that are not clearly worded or are in foreign languages

E.

invoices with prices that are much higher than market price

F.

fluctuations in the pricing of standard goods and services

Question 18

The supply of goods and services can be vulnerable to corruption within a company, particularly the solicitation and receipt of bribes and kickbacks, because: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

certain contractors may receive preferential treatment, allowing them opportunities to inflate margins during the tender process

B.

unsuccessful bidders are informed of decisions and provided detailed justifications for awarding the contracts

C.

procurement and contracting processes involve the management of the tender process, which may lack sufficient oversight

D.

bids are solicited and disseminated to a wide audience through advertising and other channels.

Question 19

An agent of a wealthy individual residing in Country A, which is on the EU list of high-risk third jurisdictions, approaches a notary in Country B, which is in the EU. The agent wants to complete a disposal of assets recently acquired at auction by the wealthy individual through an offshore company. The agent also has a power of attorney to act on behalf of the offshore company issued by a respectable law firm from Country C, which is also in the EU. The agent asks the notary to proceed with the disposal as quickly as possible without paying any specific attention to related costs or taxes to be paid as a result of this transaction. The notary notices the intended transfer price is significantly lower than the one recorded at auction, but the agent does not want to discuss this matter and claims that it is not covered by the power of attorney.

Which red flags should the notary consider? (Select Two)

Options:

A.

The agent requested a disposal of assets at a lower price than recently acquired.

B.

The assets acquired through an auction were put in the name of an offshore company

C.

The agent acted on behalf of an individual residing in a country which is on the EU's list of high-risk jurisdictions

D.

The power of attorney was issued by a law firm in a different EU country from where the transaction took place.

Question 20

The relationship manager in the corporate banking department at a bank is required to take specialized AML training tailored to the risks the department is most likely to encounter.

Which types of content are most appropriate for this training? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Money laundering typologies applicable to monetary instrument reporting

B.

Applicable AML laws and regulations

C.

Regulatory exam best practices

D.

Money laundering typologies applicable to corporate loans

Question 21

When applying new technologies to AML, application programming interfaces (APIs) allow for:

Options:

A.

Digital identification on mobile devices

B.

Different applications to connect and communicate

C.

Authentication via artificial intelligence (AI) and biometrics

D.

Quick CDD and client traits analysis during onboarding

Question 22

An AML/CFT unit often compiles information about customer activity and product usage that might be of interest to other parts of the organization.

Before allowing the unit to communicate such information internally, the organization must review:

Options:

A.

Enterprise-wide risk assessments and the employee handbook for any limitations on sharing commercially sensitive customer data

B.

The risk rating of the customers to avoid sharing data relating to higher risk customers

C.

The organization's AML compliance policies to ensure that customer data can be easily shared internally and internationally

D.

Applicable data privacy laws in relevant jurisdictions and the organization's data security and privacy policies for any limitations

Question 23

In the process of mutual evaluations and subsequent follow-ups used by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) to assess the quality of various jurisdictions' AML controls, the FATF:

Options:

A.

imposes economic sanctions on jurisdictions with lax AML controls to force them to strengthen their controls.

B.

conducts on-site inspections of financial institutions in jurisdictions with lax AML controls to identify deficiencies and recommend improvements.

C.

publishes annual reports ranking all member jurisdictions based on their self-assessment of AML controls.

D.

conducts a peer review process whereby member countries assess the AML controls of other jurisdictions and provide recommendations for improvement.

Question 24

Which financial crime risks are inherent to e-commerce platforms? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

E-commerce platforms exploited to move criminal proceeds

B.

Use of stolen bank cards for online purchases

C.

E-commerce platforms susceptible to fraud schemes

D.

E-commerce platforms used as a front for illicit transactions

E.

E-commerce platforms encouraging unregulated peer-to-peer lending

F.

Use of foreign currency to mask criminal proceeds

Question 25

Which of the following risk factors are commonly associated with money laundering in insurance products? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Surrendering a policy early to liquidate funds

B.

Focusing excessively on the investment performance of an insurance product

C.

Using a credit card to purchase an insurance policy

D.

Using cryptocurrencies or other non-fiat currencies to fund an insurance policy

Question 26

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

Options:

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

Question 27

When deciding on the fuzzy matching threshold for sanctions screening, consideration should be given to:

Options:

A.

the operational burden of dealing with potential matches.

B.

the value of fines for non-compliance.

C.

the experience of the team dealing with potential matches.

D.

whether the data to be screened is reliable and verified.

Question 28

Which of the following are red flags pertaining to potentially suspicious transactions by a customer? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A customer deposits a large number of consecutively numbered money orders.

B.

A customer requests loans made to local companies or secured by obligations of local banks.

C.

A customer has regular deposits and withdrawals primarily in wire transfers.

D.

A customer receives wire transfers from different unknown accounts which are immediately wired onwards to a third party.

E.

A customer withdraws cash in amounts just under the reporting threshold.

Question 29

The chief compliance officer at a global bank that operates in the US, EU, and other countries is responsible for navigating the US and EU regulations related to anti-money laundering (AML) and sanctions as well as any local regulations in the countries where it operates.

What should be the primary compliance concern of the bank?

Options:

A.

US anti-money laundering regulations are stricter than the EU AML Directives, making it easier for the global bank to be compliant in the EU

B.

US and EU regulations require the bank to build separate compliance teams, making it necessary to establish completely separate systems for US and EU operations

C.

The EU's sanctions regime is stricter than that of the US Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), so the bank must prioritize compliance with EU regulations over US laws and train the staff in Europe accordingly

D.

Balancing compliance with the US BSA and OFAC sanctions while ensuring adherence to EU AML directives and the GDPR, which complicates cross-border data sharing

Question 30

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

Question 31

The primary objectives of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) are to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

evaluate and monitor compliance with the FATF standards and provide recommendations for improvement.

B.

assist countries in implementing EU, UN, and regional sanctions regimes.

C.

develop and promote international standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing.

D.

conduct investigations on countries legislations and laws to prevent them from being used for money laundering and terrorist financing.

E.

ensure that countries follow its laws to maintain financial stability.

Question 32

The primary roles of a Country's Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

collaborating with law enforcement agencies, financial institutions, and other stakeholders to detect and prevent Illicit financial activities.

B.

conducting examinations of financial institutions to ensure compliance with anti-money laundering regulations.

C.

engaging in providing financial services, including banking and investment activities, to the public and private sectors

D.

facilitating the exchange of information between the public and private sectors.

E.

enacting legislation regarding the operations of financial institutions.

Question 33

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

Question 34

A national risk assessment (NRA) can impact the risk-based approach (RBA) within an organization's anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program by: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

helping to identify high-risk sectors that require enhanced due diligence (EDO),

B.

eliminating the need for sectoral risk assessments within the organization

C.

guiding the allocation of resources for mitigating financial crime risks

D.

requiring all organizations to apply standardized measures

E.

automatically reducing the organization's responsibility for conducting its own risk assessment

Question 35

In a standard customer due diligence (CDD) process focused on financial inclusion, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations require: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

identification of the customer's occupation.

B.

identification and verification of the customer's identity.

C.

identification of the customer's work address.

D.

identification of the beneficial owner.

E.

verification of the customer's credit history.

F.

[verification of the customer's income sources.

Question 36

Which changes at a financial institution (FI) should trigger an enterprise-wide reassessment of its inherent AML risk exposure? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Introduction of new products or services

B.

Mergers or acquisitions

C.

Restructuring of the FI's risk and compliance functions

D.

Use of new technologies for delivering existing products

E.

Changes in the individuals overseeing the FI's product lines and sales strategies

Question 37

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

Question 38

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

Options:

A.

impose sanctions to maintain or restore international peace and security.

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

Question 39

An oil exploration company based in France does business with oil refineries in Iran, which is subject to comprehensive Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions.

What type of OFAC sanctions should be imposed against the French company?

Options:

A.

List-based

B.

Secondary

C.

Country-based

D.

Sectoral

Question 40

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

Question 41

Which activities are part of adverse media screening for negative news and reputational risks? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Analyzing customer sentiment through feedback and surveys

B.

Identifying individuals or entities linked to criminal activities or sanctions

C.

Periodically monitoring regulatory updates and enforcement actions for associated entities

D.

Scanning publicly available news articles and regulatory alerts

E.

Monitoring changes in credit scores of individuals or entities

Question 42

A law enforcement action alleged that on several trading days over the course of two months, defendants engaged in a series of copper gold, crude oil. and natural gas futures transactions on an electronic trading platform One defendant repeatedly bought future contracts at low prices from the other, and then immediately sold them back at higher prices. As a result, one defendant effectively pocketed the same amount as the other lost even though there were no changes in the open positions held by either defendant.

What is a name for this typology?

Options:

A.

Short position

B.

Reverse flip

C.

Bid-ask spread

D.

Wash trading

Question 43

Which statement best describes a key money laundering risk associated with virtual asset service providers (VASPs), cryptoassets, and related products?

Options:

A.

Cryptoassets can be transferred across borders quickly, but the volatility of their value still makes them less attractive for money laundering compared to traditional assets

B.

Mandatory reporting requirements have been implemented for certain types of crypto transactions, but gaps in regulation and enforcement still leave room for money laundering activities.

C.

The transparency of blockchain technology helps law enforcement trace transactions, but it can also provide criminals with ways to obscure their financial activities through complex layering techniques.

D.

The pseudonymous nature of transactions allows criminals to hide their identities while transferring large sums of money globally, making it difficult to trace the ultimate beneficial owner.

Question 44

Which collective body of Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) was formed with an objective to improve Information exchange and sharing mechanisms among member FlUs as well as to support its members by enhancing their capabilities'?

Options:

A.

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

B.

The Egmont Group

C.

The Wolfsberg Group

D.

The International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Question 45

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

Options:

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

Question 46

While gaming platforms are typically used for recreational purposes, they can potentially be used for terrorist financing through games in which players can:

Options:

A.

buy in-game items with virtual in-game currencies.

B.

exchange in-game items with other players.

C.

trade in-game items with other players that can be exchanged for fiat currency

D.

obtain in-game materials by performing in-game activities.

Question 47

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence

B.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed Instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes Procedures are an overarching framework Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

Question 48

Which red flags apply to trade-based money laundering (TBML) schemes? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Use of wire transfers

B.

Loitering

C.

Instructions or involvement from third parties

D.

Amended letters of credit without reasonable justification

E.

Non-standard settlement arrangements

Question 49

The Wolfsberg Group's 2012 "Principles (or Private Banking" established that.

Options:

A.

private banks agree that transparency of client beneficial ownership Is necessary and appropriate.

B.

due diligence requirements tor private banking customers are necessary to prevent predicate offenses.

C.

risk based approaches are insufficient to address the heightened risk presented through private banking

D.

private banks need to better coordinate and align their global AML control environment strategies.

Question 50

The first line of defense is responsible for:

Options:

A.

collecting complete customer information.

B.

ongoing screening of customers.

C.

suspicious activity and sanctions reporting.

D.

evaluating the effectiveness of compliance controls.

Question 51

Which step should financial institutions take when complying with sanctions requirements?

Options:

A.

Change the risk profile to "high-risk" if an existing customer becomes a sanctioned entity and continue monitoring further transactions.

B.

Adopt automatic screening systems to detect designated persons and entities.

C.

Conduct enhanced due diligence for prohibited entities on the sanctions list.

D.

Freeze the funds or assets of designated persons and entities once this decision is approved by the board.

Question 52

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

B.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

C.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

Question 53

Which of the following are important AML controls for a compliance manager of a regulated asset management company in the European Union to implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inviting prospective customers for an onboarding interview

B.

Rejecting any politically exposed persons (PEPs) as customers

C.

Understanding the source and origin of assets

D.

Performing negative news checks of prospective customers

E.

Producing financial stability reports on interesting customers

Question 54

The chief compliance officer (CCO) at a bank approved offering trade finance services to a company which is established within a country with a weak democratic system routinely reviews news on upcoming targeted economic sanction regulations in the EU, a major import partner for the country's production of crude oil.

Which of the following pieces of news would be of greatest concern?

Options:

A.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on refined oil products.

B.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on oil extraction equipment

C.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new export control regime for electronic equipment

D.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new import restriction regime for goods coming from countries that do not respect human rights

Question 55

Interactions between the compliance department and other functions or departments within an organization contribute to making the anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program more robust by addressing specific risk areas.

Which departments play a crucial role in enhancing the AFC compliance program of an organization? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Information security office (ISO)

B.

Marketing and sales

C.

Human resources (HR)

D.

Data privacy office (DPO)

Question 56

According to Basel Committee guidelines, which level of the organization should determine whether or not to enter business relationships with higher risk customers?

Options:

A.

Account opening staff

B.

Middle management

C.

Senior management

D.

First-level management

Question 57

Which statement is the most accurate describing who must comply with Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions?

Options:

A.

All US citizens and permanent residents while located in the US, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals within the United States

B.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities excluding their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

C.

All US citizens except those with dual nationality, US permanent residents, all US incorporated entities, and all individuals within the United States

D.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

Question 58

Which technologies are commonly used to help financial institutions (FIs) navigate privacy and data protection regulations while securely sharing client information with private third-party entities? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Blockchain to ensure traceability and security in shared data transactions

B.

Data encryption to protect sensitive information from unauthorized access

C.

Privacy-enhancing technologies (PETs) to enable secure and privacy-compliant data sharing

D.

Artificial intelligence (AI) to automating compliance processes like data anonymization and secure sharing

E.

Cloud storage solutions for efficient data handling and management

Question 59

A prospective client walks into an accounting firm wanting to incorporate a company. The accountant feels uncomfortable after the meeting.

Which two of the accountant's observations warrant escalation to the compliance officer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The principal activities of the proposed company are importing and exporting new furniture

B.

The prospective client presents confusing details about the proposed business and has very little knowledge about the proposed business activity

C.

The prospective client is unable to provide information about the beneficial owners

D.

The prospective client exhibits confidence when speaking to the accountant when providing personal details

E.

The prospective client is able to provide source of funds and source of wealth documents

Question 60

A financial crimes risk appetite statement describes:

Options:

A.

how an organization defines Its risk-based approach.

B.

how an organization determines its key risk and performance indicators.

C.

the level and type of risk the organization is willing to take to meet its objectives

D.

the purpose of an organization's financial crimes compliance program.

Question 61

When making an independent determination on whether to close an account based on an internal Investigation, a financial institution (F1) should consider. (Select Five.)

Options:

A.

reputational risk.

B.

the customers personal relationships.

C.

the frequency of account activity

D.

the Fl's policies and procedures.

E.

the seriousness of the underlying conduct.

F.

correspondence with law enforcement

G.

the legal basis for closing the account.

Question 62

Which of the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Setting tone from the top

B.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

C.

Mandatory attendance and review of all financial crime trainings

D.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

Question 63

An international bank is investigating a payment requested by one of its correspondent relationships that generated an alert in the automated transaction monitoring system. The payment originated from a corporation located in Hong Kong and the final beneficiary is an individual located in New York.

Which steps should the bank take first to address the alert? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Send a 314(b) request to the corporation's bank in Hong Kong

B.

Call the receiving individual to review identity verification documents

C.

Confirm that neither the beneficiary nor the originator are sanctioned parties

D.

Request supporting documents, including invoices and contracts to confirm the purpose of the payment

E.

Check for negative news in public sources on the sender and receiver

Question 64

Which of the following statements is true regarding the 2012 Financial Action Task Force (FATF) 40 Recommendations and'or 11 Immediate Outcomes?

Options:

A.

The 40 Recommendations have not been updated to reflect the impact of new technology

B.

Each jurisdiction can reach out to the FATF for private access to the interpretive notes to the 40 Recommendations

C.

The 11 Immediate Outcomes are recommendations specific to high-risk jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring.

D.

The cornerstone of the 40 Recommendations is the adoption of a risk-based approach by each jurisdiction

Question 65

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

Question 66

A legal instrument executed between two nations that governs cross-border information sharing is known as a:

Options:

A.

Memorandum of Agreement.

B.

Declaration of Understanding.

C.

Memorandum of Understanding.

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty.

E.

Request for Urgent Information.

Question 67

An employee at a financial institution (FI) suspects that one of their co-workers is involved in a financial investment scam syndicate.

Which step should be taken next by the employee who has the suspicion?

Options:

A.

Conduct an open-source intelligence investigation using artificial intelligence tools to gain more information on the activities of the suspected employee

B.

Use the FI's whistleblowing channel to report the suspected employee

C.

Question their co-worker to determine if their suspicions are correct before reporting to the FI's Human Resources department

D.

Warn colleagues and customers of the FI that the employee's suspicious financial investment proposals could be a scam

E.

Report the suspected employee to the line manager of the FI to take the required action

Question 68

A risk-based approach (RBA) to anti-financial crimes (AFC) involves understanding and managing risks by:

Options:

A.

applying uniform controls to all customers, regardless of their risk profile

B.

allocating resources and implementing controls based on the level of identified risks

C.

prioritizing regulatory compliance over customer experience and operational efficiency

D.

relying on automated systems to detect and mitigate AFC risks

Question 69

Which statement best describes an organizational challenge for law enforcement agencies and Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) when conducting cross-border money laundering (ML) investigations?

Options:

A.

Defining a common communication approach and language between all involved parties.

B.

Delays in the investigation due to a foreign FIU awaiting the results of queries performed by third parties.

C.

Conducting an investigation in all countries through which ML funds were transferred when one or more of the countries do not have an FIU.

D.

Investigations which involve high-ranking politicians, who often have influence over the local FIU.

Question 70

Which of the following attributes would enhance an AML program's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Providing basic AML training to all employees

B.

An AML officer being appointed to the board as a working member of management with increased authority

C.

Auditors providing prescriptive guidance and support to the program following a less than satisfactory audit

D.

Providing effective challenge with AML staff and continuous cross-training

Question 71

Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act relates to forfeiture of funds and allows for extraterritorial reach?

Options:

A.

Section 319(b)

B.

Section 314(b)

C.

Section 314(a)

D.

Section 319(a)

Question 72

Unusual wire transfer transactions can include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

wire transfers in different currencies between accounts held at different banks for the same client.

B.

an incoming third-party wire transfer followed by the purchase of real estate in the client's name.

C.

an incoming wire transfer followed by the loan payment to a third party that is a business associate of the client.

D.

multiple wire transfers sent to counterparties associated with the client as per KYC documentation.

Question 73

Why is it important to use multiple sanctions lists, such as United Nations (UN), Office of Foreign Assets Control ("OFAC"), and European Union ("EU") lists, in name screening systems?

Options:

A.

To avoid sanctions breach related to payments

B.

To avoid onboarding customers previously exited due to true match

C.

To meet international regulatory requirements and identify risks across jurisdictions

D.

To be in line with the risk appetite statement

Question 74

The manager of a bank's KYC team discovers that a high-risk customer's activity was not reviewed last quarter as the bank's internal schedule required.

What should the KYC team manager do?

Options:

A.

Submit a referral to file a suspicious activity report (SAR)

B.

Evaluate the KYC review process to understand why the review did not occur as required and take corrective action as necessary

C.

Contact the customer's relationship manager to suspend account access until the periodic KYC review is completed

D.

Remove the customer from the bank's high-risk list

Question 75

When assessing and managing money laundering risks while operating in foreign jurisdictions different from that of the head office, an effective AML monitoring program should:

Options:

A.

Be consistent with the head office audits

B.

Be tailored to the higher of standards between the jurisdictions.

C.

Conform to the foreign jurisdiction policies to align with the head office policies.

D.

Provide all foreign jurisdiction reports to the head office for approval.

Question 76

Which of the following are key financial crime risks associated with real estate companies? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Buying property allows for the movement of large amounts of funds in a single transaction

B.

Criminal networks could purchase real estate for use as supply houses or locations to grow, manufacture, or distribute illicit narcotics

C.

Markets can be volatile, and buyers may not achieve a strong return on their investment

D.

Beneficial ownership information might be opaque, and criminals may abuse arrangements like shell companies and trusts

E.

Real estate transactions often involve financial institutions and other professional gatekeepers

F.

The high value of properties may require multiple types of financing, which can make it more difficult to identify the source of funds

Question 77

Which line of defense would be tasked with interpreting new AML regulations and revising training for client-facing relationship managers?

Options:

A.

The first line

B.

The second line

C.

Senior management

D.

The third line

Question 78

The financial industry relies heavily on rules-based approaches to transaction monitoring to detect suspicious activities.

Scenario-based systems use technology and algorithms to identify: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

fraudulent identities involving stolen or manufactured identification.

B.

suspicious behavior involving a transaction that occurs at an unusual time of day.

C.

hidden beneficial owners.

D.

transaction patterns involving transactions that exceed a certain dollar amount.

E.

anomalies involving a transaction that occurs in a location far away from the customer's usual spending patterns.

Question 79

A long-term client of an insurance company makes changes to a policy that require payment of an additional lump sum. The amount payable is high, though within the client's means based on the KYC information collected. The payment is made via a company in another jurisdiction that is known to have lax AML controls.

Which indicator of suspicious activity is present?

Options:

A.

A long-term client wants a change to a policy that is already in force

B.

The payment was made via a company that appears to be owned and controlled by the client being insured

C.

The additional premium payable appears to be within the client's means based on the KYC information collected

D.

The payment was made via a company in a jurisdiction known to have lax AML controls

Question 80

Which ancillary departments or operational areas can play an essential role in supporting a larger organization's Anti-Money Laundering and Economic Sanctions compliance program? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Model risk management

C.

Technology solutions and IT security

D.

Marketing

E.

Fraud risk management

Question 81

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

Question 82

Which persons must always comply with all Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) regulations? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Permanent US resident aliens regardless of location

B.

Merchants that offer US-origin goods for sale regardless of location

C.

Non-US financial institutions that offer accounts in USD regardless of location

D.

US citizens regardless of location

E.

US incorporated entities and their foreign branches

Question 83

A real estate buyer purchases multiple high-value properties in cash through a series of transactions in a short period of time and without any clear economic justification.

Which of the following is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the real estate sector?

Options:

A.

The buyer is using high-value real estate transactions to obscure the origin of the funds.

B.

The buyer is quickly diversifying their investment portfolio through structuring payments in order to take advantage of the liquidity of cash transactions in real estate.

C.

The buyer is capitalizing on favorable market conditions and using cash purchases to outbid competitors in a competitive real estate market using insider information.

D.

The buyer is a real estate developer acquiring multiple properties for a potential redevelopment project with a business partner located in a high-risk jurisdiction.

Question 84

Which statements regarding using network analysis tools to determine links to criminality are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

When using network analysis data to fight money laundering and financial crime, data protection and privacy can be disregarded because fighting crime takes precedent

B.

Network analysis tools are an efficient means of generating relevant results because they only need a limited amount of data and computation power and artificial intelligence (Al) allows less-skilled people to quickly learn to use these systems

C.

When using artificial intelligence (Al) with network analysis tools, it must be ensured that the algorithms used are not biased towards social criteria, such as race, gender, or religion

D.

Network analysis allows for the identification of individuals or entities in a network by analyzing connections or links between them and can be used to study a wide range of systems, such as social or transportation networks

E.

Analyzing relationships between individuals in a social network allows for the identification of hierarchies, the detection of behaviors and geographical movements, or an understanding of how groups are organized

Question 85

Which of the services provided by Trust and Company Service Providers (TCSPs) present the greatest financial crime risks? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Providing clear procedures to ensure compliance with local tax regulations

B.

Using trusts to obscure the identity of beneficial owners

C.

Promoting the use of complex corporate structures

D.

Maintaining accurate and updated beneficial ownership details for all customers registered for their services

E.

Establishing shell companies for holding financial assets

Question 86

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

B.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

Question 87

Which of the following serves as an example of a successful public-private partnership (PPP)?

Options:

A.

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

B.

The AUSTRAC Fintel Alliance

C.

The Egmont Group

D.

The Wolfsberg Group

Question 88

According to the Basel Committee principles, which actions would make a customer identification program at a bank more robust? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Understanding why a customer has selected a particular financial institution for banking

B.

Verifying the identity of a customer with reputable online source documentation

C.

Limiting the online activities of a new customer during the first two months

D.

Understanding the nature and purpose behind a new business opening an account at the bank

Question 89

A legal instrument which is executed between two nations and governs cross-border information sharing Is known as a.

Options:

A.

mutual legal assistance treaty.

B.

memorandum of understanding.

C.

request for urgent information.

D.

declaration of understanding.

E.

memorandum of agreement.

Question 90

Which principles of the Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) are aimed at maximizing cooperation between FIUs to more effectively combat money laundering? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating spontaneous information sharing between FIUs to reduce the burden of excess investigative work

B.

FIU cooperation should always be channeled through designated intermediaries

C.

Information exchange should take place informally, without too many formal prerequisites

D.

Formal Egmont Group membership requirements ensure a high commitment of the eligible FIUs

E.

It is within an FIU's authority to sign Memorandums of Understanding independently

Question 91

Which scenario best justifies why a customer's account might be closed by a financial institution?

Options:

A.

The customer is the object of a civil subpoena.

B.

The customer uses a shipping company dealing with specially designated nationals.

C.

The account shows periodic fixed amount remittances for tuition fees.

D.

The account has transactions that triggered multiple suspicious activity reports.

Question 92

A customer of a financial Institution (Fl) complained that they had received multiple emails appearing to originate from the Fl urging them to click on a link or open a remittance attachment for confirmation. After opening the attachment, the customer later realized that funds had been systematically transferred out of their bank account without their knowledge

Which type of cybercrime is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Vishing

B.

Pharming

C.

SMSishing

D.

Spear phishing

Question 93

A financial institution's (FI's) policy is to apply enhanced due diligence (EDD) for every new client to ensure the effectiveness of the program.

How should a consultant advise the FI's management team?

Options:

A.

Suggest the FI needs to implement a risk-based approach for EDD.

B.

Suggest the management team select the clients that are chosen for EDD.

C.

Suggest the management team ask the regulator for advice on EDD measures.

D.

Suggest EDD for 50% of the clients is appropriate.

Demo: 93 questions
Total 313 questions